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Review > DIAGNOSTIC EXAM: MODULE 4 > Flashcards

DIAGNOSTIC EXAM: MODULE 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Astemizole and Terfenadine have been withdrawn from the market because of their intrinsic cardiotoxicity. That risk of cardiotoxicity is increased with concomitant intake of Grapefruit juice or Erythromycin. Which of the following is the explanation for this interaction?

A. Displacement from the protein binding of Astemizole or Terfenadine by Grapefruit juice of Erythromycin
B. Decreased urinary excretion of Astemizole and Terfenadine
C. Inhibition of the CYP3A4 enzyme by Grapefruit juice or Erythromycin
D. Increased absorption of Astemizole or Terfenadine
E. Induction of metabolism of Astemizole and
Terfenadine by Grapefruit juice or Erythromycin

A

C. Inhibition of the CYP3A4 enzyme by Grapefruit juice or Erythromycin

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2
Q

What is the neurotransmitter mainly released by
postganglionic parasympathetic fibers?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. 5-Hydroxyryptamine
E. Dopamine

A

A. Acetylcholine

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2
Q

Which of the following is considered as dominant phase I metabolic reaction?

A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Hydrolysis
D. Glucuronidation
E. Acetylation

A

A. Oxidation

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2
Q

Chloramphenicol when given to a neonate or premature baby causes cardiovascular collapse manifested as the so- called “Gray Baby Syndrome” This toxicity in such subsets of the patients is due to what age-related biologic feature?

A. Decreased protein binding
B. Decreased urinary excretion of the metabolite
C. Deficiency and immaturity of UDP-
glucuronosyltransferase inside their bodies
D. Increased metabolism by nitro-reduction
E. Increased volume of distribution

A

C. Deficiency and immaturity of UDP-
glucuronosyltransferase inside their bodies

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3
Q

What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart?

A. Dopamine-1
B. Alpha-1
C. Alpha-2
D. Beta-1
E. Beta-2

A

D. Beta-1

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3
Q

Which of the following amino acids is the precursor in the synthesis of catecholamines?

A. Phenylalanine
B. Glycine
C. Tyrosine
D. Tryptophan
E. Glutamic acid

A

C. Tyrosine

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4
Q

Methylphenidate and Dextroamphetamine are centrally acting sympathomimetics which have found use in which of the following conditions?

A. Manic depression
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
E. NOTA

A

C. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

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5
Q

Tacrine, Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine are indicated for which of the following conditions?

A. Supraventricular tachycardia
B. Curare-induced muscle paralysis
C. Accommodative esotropia
D. Alzheimer’s disease
E. Glaucoma

A

D. Alzheimer’s disease

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6
Q

Retroperitoneal fibrosis is an observed complication seen with drugs that belong to what class of agents?

A. Antiviral agents
B. Tropane Alkaloids
C. Ergot alkaloids
D. Ethanolamine Antihistamines
E. Dopamine Agonist

A

C. Ergot alkaloids

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6
Q

What is the creatinine clearance for a 68-year-old female weighing 160 lbs and having a serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL?

A. 79.0 mL/min
B. 52.54 mL/min
C. 34.34 mL/min
D. 12.02 mL/min
E. NOTA

A

C. 34.34 mL/min

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7
Q

Which of the following acts as an agonist at low natural ligand concentration, as well as acts as an antagonist at high natural ligand concentration?

A. Partial Agonist
B. Inverse Agonist
C. Reverse Agonist
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

A. Partial Agonist

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8
Q

Which of the following is/are the physical factor/s influencing absorption?

A. Total surface area available for absorption
B. Contact time at the absorption surface
C. Blood flow to the absorption site
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

D. AOTA

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8
Q

Which of the following receptor/s does Methyldopa act and bind into?

A. Alpha 2
B. Beta 1
C. Beta 2
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

A. Alpha 2

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9
Q

Which of the following drugs causes significant delay in the absorption of acetaminophen by reducing the rate of gastric emptying?

A. Digoxin
B. Levodopa
C. Anticholinergics
D. Paracetamol
E. Propantheline

A

C. Anticholinergics

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10
Q

Which of the following can be used in patients with hypertensive crisis with damaged organs?

A. Captopril
B. Labetalol
C. Sodium Nitroprusside
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

C. Sodium Nitroprusside

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11
Q

The following are non-selective beta-blockers, except:

A. Nebivolol
B. Nadolol
C. Pindolol
D. Propranolol
E. NOTA

A

A. Nebivolol

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12
Q

Which of the following is a beta-2 agonist that belongs to SABA?

A. Formoterol
B. Salmeterol
C. Salbutamol
D. Bambuterol
E. NOTA

A

C. Salbutamo

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13
Q

Which of the following is the most important mechanism of termination of effects of released Norepinephrine which is the target action of TCA’s and cocaine?

A. Degradation by COMT
B. Sequestration into cells
C. Degradation by MAO
D. Reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
E. NOTA

A

D. Reuptake into the presynaptic terminal

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14
Q

Which of the following is the phenomena that a drug which has no effect but enhances the effect of a second drug?

A. Antagonism
B. Addition
C. Synergism
D. Potentiation
E. NOTA

A

D. Potentiation

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15
Q

Which of the following is known antidote for N-acetyl-para- aminophenol toxicity?

A. Naltrexone
B. NAC
C. Fomepizole
D. Flumazenil
E. Heparin Sulfate

A

B. NAC

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16
Q

Which of the following anesthetics has both local anesthetic and antiarrhythmic properties?

A. Desflurane
B. Lidocaine
C. Isoflurane
D. Halothane
E. Sevoflurane

A

B. Lidocaine

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16
Q

Which of the following is responsible for reducing the release of Norepinephrine from the sympathetic nerves?

A. Alpha-1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
B. Alpha-2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
C. Beta-1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
D. Beta-2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
E. AOTA

A

B. Alpha-2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor

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17
Q

Which of the following antibiotics belong to the
ureidopenicillin class of agents?

A. Carbenicillin
B. Ticarcillin
C. Mezlocillin
D. Methicillin
E. Bacampicillin

A

C. Mezlocillin

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18
Q

Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (EPGA) is caused by which of the following drugs?

A. Zafirlukast
B. Lipoxygenase Inhibitors
C. Beta-2 blockers
D. Glucocorticoids
E. NOTA

A

A. Zafirlukast

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18
Q

Inulin is a fructosan used to measure which of the following?

A. Creatinine Clearance
B. Glomerular Excretion Rate
C. Glomerular Filtration Rate
D. Tubular Reabsorption Rate
E. NOTA

A

C. Glomerular Filtration Rate

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18
Q

Gray baby syndrome happening to infants is caused by the antibiotic, chloramphenicol. Which of the following metabolic reaction is responsible for this?

A. Glucuronidation
B. Nitro reduction
C. Acetylation
D. Methylation
E. NOTA

A

A. Glucuronidation

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19
Q

Rhinitis medicamentosa is associated to which of the following drug classifications?

A. Alpha-2 Selective Agonist
B. Non-Selective Agonists
C. Alpha-1 Selective Agonist
D. Beta-2 Agonist
E. NOTA

A

C. Alpha-1 Selective Agonist

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20
Q

The following agents below are drugs used in the treatment and management of dyslipidemia together with their corresponding Mechanism of Action (MOA). Which of them is/are incorrectly paired?

I. Colestipol: PPAR-α agonist
II. Atorvastatin: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
III. Gemfibrozil: PPAR-α agonist
IV. Ezetimibe: bile acid sequestrant

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and IV
D. II and III
E. III and IV

A

B. I and IV

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20
Q

Which of the following is the clinical application of drugs that inhibits dipeptidyl peptidase-4 enzymes?

A. Used against bacterial infections
B. Oral hypoglycemics
C. Thyroid function
D. Adjunct in Cancer Chemotherapy
E. Nausea and Vomiting

A

B. Oral hypoglycemics

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21
Q

Which of the following diuretics is used in treating Kidney Stone formations?

A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Mannitol
D. Acetazolamide
E. NOTA

A

A. Hydrochlorothiazide

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21
Q

Which of the following Serotonin Agonists does
Methysergide classify into?

A. 5-HT 2A and 2B Receptors
B. 5-HT 1B Receptor
C. 5-HT3 Receptor
D. 5-HT4 Receptor
E. NOTA

A

E. NOTA

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21
Q

Which of the following drugs is included in the therapies available for the treatment of Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)?

I. Proton Pump Inhibitors
II. Ampicillin IV
III. Clarithromycin
IV. Metronidazole

A. I, II, and III
B. II, III, and IV
C. I, III, and IV
D. II and IV
E. III and IV

A

C. I, III, and IV

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22
Q

Weak acids are reabsorbed in bloodstream in which of the following conditions? 34.

A. Urinary pH is high
B. Urinary pH is low
C. Highly Protein Bound
D. Highly Ionized
E. NOTA

A

B. Urinary pH is low

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23
Q

Which of the following effects of Alpha-1 Receptor excitation is/are correctly paired?

A. Eyes –> Miosis
B. Blood Vessels –> Vasodilation
C. Urinary Bladder –> Relaxation
D. Piloerector Muscles –> Contraction
E. AOTA

A

D. Piloerector Muscles –> Contraction

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24
Q

Which of the following is/are the rational antidote/s for organophosphate poisoning?

A. Scopolamine
B. Hyoscyamine
C. Atropine
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

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25
Q

Which among the following nervous systems has a longer preganglionic fibers but shorter postganglionic fibers?

A. Sympathetic Nervous System
B. Enteric Nervous System
C. Parasympathetic Nervous System
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

C. Parasympathetic Nervous System

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26
Q

Which of the following is not true about Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris?

A. Relieved by rest and NTG patches
B. Beta Blockers as Drug of Choice
C. Chest pain for at least 20 minutes
D. Chest pain occurs for 2 to 5 minutes
E. NOTA

A

E. NOTA

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26
Q

Which of the following is not one of the side effects of ACE Inhibitors?

A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Dry Cough
D. Angioedema
E. Teratogenicity

A

A. Hypokalemia

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26
Q

Which of the following ions is one of the components of drugs used in Lethal Injection?

A. Mg2+
B. K+
C. Ca2+
D. Na+
E. Two of the above

A

E. Two of the above

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27
Q

Which of the following forms of the drug that is highly favored for absorption by the body?

A. Lipophilic
B. Unionized
C. Ionized
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

D. A and B

27
Q

The following are clinical manifestations of Cholinergic Agonists to the body, except for what?

A. Lacrimation
B. Xerostomia
C. Myopic Accommodation
D. Bronchoconstriction
E. NOTA

A

B. Xerostomia

28
Q

Which of the following barbiturates fall into the Short-Acting classification?

A. Methohexital
B. Hexobarbital
C. Pentobarbital
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

29
Q

Which of the following classification of Antidepressants does have a side effect of QT Prolongation?

A. Tetracyclic Antidepressants
B. Tricyclic Antidepressants
C. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
D. Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors
E. NOTA

A

B. Tricyclic Antidepressants

29
Q

The following drugs are anti-aggregants that inhibit platelet aggregation, except:

A. Prostacycline (PG12)
B. Cyclic AMP
C. ADP
D. PGE1
E. NOTA

A

C. ADP

30
Q

Which of the following selective COX-2 inhibitors that is pulled out due to its cardiac effects?

A. Rofecoxib
B. Valdecoxib
C. Celecoxib
D. Etoricoxib
E. NOTA

A

A. Rofecoxib

31
Q

Which of the following is the correct formula for Blood Pressure (BP)?

A. BP = CO + TPR
B. BP = TPR - CO
C. BP = CO × TPR
D. BP = TPR ÷ CO
E. NOTA

A

C. BP = CO × TPR

32
Q

Which of the following is the diuretic of choice for patients with Hepatic Cirrhosis?

A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Acetazolamide
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

B. Spironolactone

33
Q

Which of the following is/are the toxicities associated with acetaminophen overdose?

I. NAPQI
II. Hepatotoxicity
III. Teratogenicity
IV. Reye’s Syndrome

A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I and IV only
D. I and III only
E. III and IV only

A

B. I and II only

33
Q

Which of the following is a PGE1 analog that is used for the prevention of NSAID-induced peptic ulcer and is also used as an abortifacient?

A. Dinoprostone
B. Alprostadil
C. Misoprostol
D. Epoprostenol
E. NOTA

A

C. Misoprostol

34
Q

Which of the following antineoplastic drugs is correctly matched with its adverse effect?

A. Cisplatin - Cardiotoxicity
B. Bleomycin - Nephrotoxicity
C. Mitomycin - Pulmonary Fibrosis
D. Ifosfamide - Hemorrhagic Cystitis

A

D. Ifosfamide - Hemorrhagic Cystitis

35
Q

Which of the following increases Gastric Emptying Time (GET)?

I. Stress
II. Heavy Exercise
III. Lying on the right side
IV. Lying on the left side
V. Mild Exercise

A. I, II, and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II, and V
D. I, III and V
E. I, IV, and V

A

B. I, II and IV

36
Q

Which of the following diuretic agents causes gynecomastia in men and hirsutism in women?

A. Acetazolamide
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Triamterene
E. NOTA

A

C. Spironolactone

37
Q

Which of the following is/are the metabolic effect/s of estrogen?

A. Increase LDL
B. Decrease HDL
C. Decrease TAG
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

E. NOTA

38
Q

The following is/are centrally acting antitussives, except:

A. Codeine
B. Noscapine
C. Butamirate Citrate
D. Levodropropizine
E. AOTA

A

D. Levodropropizine

39
Q

Which of the following is/are the mechanism of action (MOA) of Aminophylline?

A. Adenosine Agonist
B. Adenosine Antagonist
C. PDE Inhibitor
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

40
Q

Which of the following is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Methotrexate for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

I. Inhibition of Dihydrofolate Reductase
II. Inhibition of Thymidylate Synthase
III. Inhibition of AICAR Transformylase

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. III only
E. AOTA

A

C. II and III

40
Q

Which of the following conditions does not aggravate the effect of Digoxin inside the body?

A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hypoxia
E. NOTA

A

B. Hyperkalemia

41
Q

Which of the following mechanism of action (MOA) of diuretics is/are correctly paired?
A. Potassium Sparing Diuretics: Epithelial Na+ Channels Inhibitor
B. Mannitol: Creates osmotic gradient in water permeable regions of the kidney tubule
C. Loop diuretics: Inhibits the Na+, K+, and 2Cl-
reabsorption
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

D. AOTA

42
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor??

A. Acetazolamide
B. Chlorpropamide
C. Brinzolamide
D. Dichlorphenamide

A

B. Chlorpropamide

43
Q

Which of the following results from the interaction of Warfarin + Metronidazole?

A. Increase PT-INR
B. Increase APTT
C. Decrease PT-INR
D. Decrease APTT
E. NOTA

A

A. Increase PT-INR

44
Q

Which of the following is a 5HT-1A partial agonist that is used as an anxiolytic with lesser chance of developing dependence to patients?

A. Butamirate Citrate
B. Budesonide
C. Buspirone
D. Bupropion
E. NOTA

A

C. Buspirone

44
Q

Which of the following is/are the side effect/s of taking Acetylsalicylic Acid?

I. Reye’s Syndrome
II. Hallucinations
III. Reduction of Glomerular Filtration Rate
IV. GI Disturbances

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV
E. AOTA

A

E. AOTA

45
Q

Which of the following is known Potassium Channel Blocker under Antiarrhythmic drugs?

A. Tolbutamide
B. Amiodarone
C. Glipizide
D. Exenatide
E. NOTA

A

B. Amiodarone

46
Q

Which of the following is the chemical classification based on structure of the full agonist, Fentanyl?

A. Phenylpiperidines
B. Phenylheptylamines
C. Phenanthrenes
D. Morphinans
E. Benzomorphan

A

A. Phenylpiperidines

47
Q

Which of the following is the driving force for passive absorption of a drug?

A. Specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics
B. Concentration gradient across a membrane
separating body compartment
C. A and B
D. NOTA

A

B. Concentration gradient across a membrane
separating body compartment

47
Q

The clinical effectiveness of a drug often depends on which of the following?

A. Maximum serum drug concentration
B. Minimum serum drug concentration
C. Time after concentration required to reach onset of
concentration
D. NOTA

A

A. Maximum serum drug concentration

47
Q

Which of the following drugs causes “Torsade’s De Pointes”?

A. Cisapride
B. Procainamide
C. Amiodarone
D. B and C only
E. AOTA

A

E. AOTA

48
Q

Which of the following is a second-generation
fluoroquinolone?

A. Nalidixic Acid
B. Lomefloxacin
C. Levofloxacin
D. Trovafloxacin
E. NOTA

A

B. Lomefloxacin

49
Q

Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome Seizure is related to which of the following drugs?

A. Lamotrigine
B. Rufinamide
C. Topiramate
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

D. AOTA

49
Q

Which of the following information about Muscarinic Receptors is/are correct?

A. M1 Receptors are in the Vagus Nerve
B. M2 Receptors are in Endothelium
C. Muscarinic Receptors cause increase in GI motility, and decrease in GI secretion
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

A. M1 Receptors are in the Vagus Nerve

49
Q

Which of the following is true about the Inflammatory Bowel Disorder, Ulcerative Colitis?
A. Its possible etiology is an Autoimmune Disease
B. Continuous lesions that usually seen in the rectum
C. Complications of the disease can go into Colon Cancer
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

D. AOTA

50
Q

Which of the following drugs doxycycline chelates with?

A. Warfarin
B. Maalox®
C. Ferrous Sulfate
D. Ascorbic Acid
E. NOTA

A

B. Maalox®

50
Q

Which of the following central nervous acting agents can be the drug/s of choice for status epilepticus?

A. Diazepam
B. Lorazepam
C. Fluoxetine
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

D. A and B

51
Q

Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate (cAMP) is generated as a secondary messenger by the action of the enzyme Adenylyl Cyclase. Which of the following is the substrate fo the synthesis of cAMP?

A. AMD
B. ADP
C. ATP
D. GTP
E. NOTA

A

C. ATP

52
Q

The medium dose, or the dose of the drug that produces half of the maximum achievable response is called what?

A. LD50
B. Potency
C. Therapeutic Index
D. Ceiling Dose
E. Binding Constant

A

B. Potency

52
Q

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Sildenafil, a drug popularly known as Viagra®?

A. Inhibits phosphodiesterase (PDE) leading to increase cAMP
B. Inhibits PDE leading to increase cGMP
C. Stimulates adenylyl cyclase leading to increase cAMP
D. Stimulates guanylyl cyclase leading to increase cGMP
E. Inhibits phosphodiesterase leading to increase cGMP

A

B. Inhibits PDE leading to increase cGMP

52
Q

The following drugs have all narrow therapeutic index, except:

A. Theophylline
B. Digoxin
C. Levalbuterol
D. Phenytoin
E. NOTA

A

C. Levalbuterol

53
Q

Which of the following drugs is/are agent/s that can disrupt structural proteins of the cell?

I. Colchicine
II. Vincristine
III. Griseofulvin

A. II and III
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I, II, and III
E. NOTA

A

D. I, II, and III

53
Q

Which of the following drugs is used as treatment of Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?

A. Tolvaptan
B. Demeclocycline
C. Streptomycin
D. Aztreonam
E. Metronidazole

A

B. Demeclocycline

53
Q

Which of the following stages of Anesthetic Activity is also known as the “Surgical Stage” of Anesthesia?

A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
E. NOTA

A

C. Stage III

53
Q

Which of the following drugs is an analog of aminocaproic acid used to treat severe bleeding by the inhibition of plasminogen activation?

A. Tranexamic Acid
B. Warfarin
C. Aprotinin
D. Vitamin K
E. Mefenamic Acid

A

A. Tranexamic Acid

54
Q

Which of the following antibiotics should not be given to patients who are children and pregnant?

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Minocycline
C. Cefotaxime
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

D. A and B

54
Q

Which of the following extrapyramidal symptom is associated with the use of anti-psychotics?

A. Hyperprolactinemia
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Akathisia
E. NOTA

A

D. Akathisia

55
Q

Which of the following drugs is the only FDA approved abortifacient?

A. Misoprostol
B. Dinoprostone
C. Epoprosterenol
D. Latanoprost
E. Alprostadil

A

B. Dinoprostone

56
Q

Which of the following is/are the clinical effect/s of Opioids?

I. Miosis
II. Tachycardia
III. Analgesia
IV. Constipation

A. I and III only
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III, and IV
D. II and III only
E. NOTA

A

C. II, III, and IV

57
Q

Which of the following anticoagulant drugs should not be administered parenterally?

A. Lepirudin
B. Heparin
C. Hirudin
D. Dabigatran
E. Argatroban

A

D. Dabigatran

58
Q

Which of the following Beta Blockers is not used for the management of glaucoma?

A. Nebivolol
B. Timolol
C. Betaxolol
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

A. Nebivolol

58
Q

Which of the following Parasympathetic Nervous System Antagonist isolated from Indian Tobacco?

A. Nicotine
B. Lobeline
C. Trimethaphan
D. Hexamethonium
E. NOTA

A

B. Lobeline

58
Q

Which of the following is a branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of doses?

A. Toxicology
B. Doxology
C. Posology
D. Pharmacodynamics
E. NOTA

A

C. Posology

58
Q

Which of the following Disease Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drugs (DMARDs) has immunosuppressive properties?

A. Auranofin
B. Leflunomide
C. Hydroxychloroquine Alpha
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

B. Leflunomide

59
Q

Which of the following drugs for dyslipidemia is/are contraindicated to hepatically and renally-impaired patients?

A. Colestipol
B. Clofibrate
C. Vitamin B3
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

B. Clofibrate

60
Q

Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously (IV) to the patient?

A. Insulin Aspart
B. Insulin Suspension
C. Insulin Glargine
D. Insulin Regular
E. NOTA

A

D. Insulin Regular

61
Q

Which of the following is the chemical conversion of the drug molecule, usually by an enzymatically mediated reaction, into another chemical entity referred to as a metabolite?

A. Liberation
B. Absorption
C. Distribution
D. Metabolism
E. Excretion

A

D. Metabolism

61
Q

The following statements are true regarding the particle size of a drug, except:

A. Reducing the particle size can decrease the
surface area of the molecule exposed to the
solvent.
B. Reduction of particle size can be achieved by
micronization using jet mill, spray drying and air attrition methods.
C. Dissolution of some drugs available in the market has been improved by reducing its particle size.
D. Reducing the particle size of a drug may increase drug absorption.
E. NOTA

A

A. Reducing the particle size can decrease the
surface area of the molecule exposed to the
solvent.

61
Q

According to Fick’s Law of Diffusion, the rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to which of the following?

A. Concentration Gradient of the Drug
B. Membrane Thickness
C. Surface Area
D. NOTA

A

B. Membrane Thickness

62
Q

Which of the following classes of 1st Generation
Antihistamine drugs is included in Neozep®?

A. Phenothiazines
B. Piperidines
C. Alkylamine
D. Piperazines
E. Ethanolamines

A

C. Alkylamine

62
Q

Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of morphine and heroin by competitively blocking the opioid receptors?

A. Naloxone
B. Nalbuphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Methadone
E. NAC

A

A. Naloxone

62
Q

Omeprazole can inhibit the gastric acid secretion induced by Histamine and Acetylcholine. Omeprazole is thus classified as which type of antagonist.

A. Pharmacodynamic Antagonist
B. Pharmacokinetic Antagonist
C. Physiologic Antagonist
D. Chemical Antagonist
E. NOTA

A

C. Physiologic Antagonist

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