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MODULE 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

An agent that prevents infection by the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms when applied to inanimate objects

a. antiseptic
b. disinfectant
c. antibiotic
d. sanitizer
e. pesticide

A

b. disinfectant

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2
Q

A higher molecular weight bisurea derivative containing six sulfonic acid groups as their sodium salts

a. pentamidine
b. suramin
c. glycobiarsol
d. stibogluconate
e. clioquinol

A

b. suramin

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2
Q

A potent antifungal substance with a polyene structure from Streptomyces nodosus

a. nystatin
b. griseofulvin
c. natamycin
d. candicidin
e. amphotericin B

A

e. amphotericin B

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3
Q

A pentavalent antimonial compound intended primarily for the treatment if various forms of leishmaniasis

a. Nifurtimox
b. Suramin
c. Pentamidine
d. Glycobiarsol
e. Stibogluconate

A

e. Stibogluconate

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4
Q

Referred to as British Anti-Lewisite and is effective topically and systemically as an antidote for poisoning caused by heavy metals

a. glycobuarsol
b. melarsoprol
c. eflornithine
d. dimercaprol
e. iodoquinol

A

d. dimercaprol

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5
Q

A highly water soluble compound that is effective against various forms of filariasis, including Brancoft’s onchocerciasis and laviasis

a. pyrivinium pamoate
b. tetrachloroethylene
c. piperazine
d. pyrantel pamoate
e. diethylcarbamazine citrate

A

e. diethylcarbamazine citrate

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5
Q

A red cyanine dye used in the chemotherapy of pinworm infestations

a. pyrivinium pamoate
b. tetrachloroethylene
c. piperazine
d. pyrantel pamoate
e. diethylcarbamazine citrate

A

a. pyrivinium pamoate

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6
Q

A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that causes spastic paralysis to susceptible helminthes

a. pyrantel pamoate
b. thiabendazole
c. mebendazole
d. niridazole
e. niclosamide

A

a. pyrantel pamoate

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6
Q

Mechanism of action of Thiabendazole

a. Irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible helminths
b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase
c. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphate
d. Irreversibly inactivates ornithine decarboxylase
e. Exerts anticholinergic effect causing paralysis and expulsion by persitalsis

A

b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase

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7
Q

Mechanism of action of Praziquantel

a. Irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible helminths
b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase
c. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphate
d. Increases cell membrane permeability of susceptible worms, resulting in the loss of
extracellular calcium
e. Exerts anticholinergic effect causing paralysis and expulsion by peristalsis

A

d. Increases cell membrane permeability of susceptible worms, resulting in the loss of
extracellular calcium

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7
Q

Mechanism of action of Ivermectin

a. blocks interneuron-motorneuron transmission in the nematodes by stimulating the release of
the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA
b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase
c. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphate
d. Increases cell membrane permeability of susceptible worms, resulting in the loss of
extracellular calcium
e. Exerts anticholinergic effect causing paralysis and expulsion by peristalsis

A

a. blocks interneuron-motorneuron transmission in the nematodes by stimulating the release of
the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA

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8
Q

Possesses the antitussive properties of codeine, without the analgesic, addictive, central depressant, and constipating features.

a. Levopropoxyphene
b. Noscapine
c. Dextromethorphan
d. Caramiphen
e. Benzonatate

A

c. Dextromethorphan

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9
Q

This describes the relative position of an energy level with respect to the other energy level present

a. principal quantum number
b. magnetic spin quantum number
c. subquantum number
d. magnetic quantum number

A

a. principal quantum number

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10
Q

This is a modification of the Marsh’s test; the chief difference being that only a test tube is required and arsine is detected by means of silver nitrate or mercury (II) chloride

a. Gutzeit’s test
b. Fleitmann’s test
c. Reinsch test
d. Thenard’s test

A

a. Gutzeit’s test

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10
Q

Chemically, Koppeschaar’s solution is

a. iodobromide solution
b. bromine, tenth normal solution
c. bromine-acetic acid solution
d. bromine t.s

A

b. bromine, tenth normal solution

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11
Q

The calcium salt that is the most frequent recommended for oral consumption as an electrolyte replenisher

a. calcium lactate
b. calcium carbonate
c. calcium phosphate
d. dibasic calcium phosphate

A

d. dibasic calcium phosphate

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11
Q

What solution is use to differentiate Group I cations?

a. ammonium sulphide
b. hydrogen sulphide
c. hydrochloric acid
d. ammonium hypophosphate

A

c. hydrochloric acid

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12
Q

Among the three acetates of sodium, which is the most suitable for the qualitative testing of sodium?

a. zinc uranyl acetate
b. magnesium uranyl acetate
c. cobalt uranyl acetate
d. none of these

A

c. cobalt uranyl acetate

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13
Q

The only single acid that can dissolve gold

a. hydrochloric acid
b. nitric acid
c. selenic acid
d. aqua regia

A

c. selenic acid

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14
Q

This process can produce hydrogen with 99% purity and is based on the decomposition of superheated
steam by metallic iron with the subsequent reduction of iron oxides so formed by a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen (blue water gas)

a. Messerschimdt process
b. Solvay Ammonia process
c. Haber process
d. none of these

A

a. Messerschimdt process

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15
Q

Chalybeate water contains

a. Lithium
b. Carbon
c. Salt
d. Iron

A

d. Iron

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16
Q

“Greenish yellow” halogen

a. fluorine
b. chlorine
c. iodine
d. bromine

A

b. chlorine

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17
Q

Magnesium ion is detected using this dyestuff in alkaline solution forming a blue lake:

a. aluminon reagent
b. amaranth
c. p-nitrobenzene resorcinol
d. oxine reagent

A

c. p-nitrobenzene resorcinol

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17
Q

Type of sulfur used in Vleminckx’s Solution

a. precipitated sulfur
b. lac sulfur
c. sublimed sulfur
d. none of these

A

c. sublimed sulfur

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18
Q

Zinc white is:

a. zinc oxide
b. zinc sulfide
c. zinc chloride
d. zinc sulfate

A

a. zinc oxide

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19
Q

Stereoisomers in which the two forms of the compounds are non-superimposable mirror images is called:

a. optical isomers
b. anomers
c. epimers
d. isomers

A

c. epimers

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20
Q

Equal amounts of two isomers are called:

a. levorotatory
b. dextrorotatory
c. racemic mixture
d. optically active

A

c. racemic mixture

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21
Q

Reduction occurs in:

a. cathode
b. anode
c. both
d. none of these

A

a. cathode

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22
Q

A law that states that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero.

a. Third Law of Thermodynamics
b. Second Law of Thermodynamics
c. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
d. First Law of Thermodynamic

A

a. Third Law of Thermodynamics

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23
Q

The energy change that occurs when an electron is added to a gaseous atom is called:

a. ionization energy
b. electronegativity
c. electron affinity
d. electron density

A

c. electron affinity

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24
Q

When added to boric acid, and then ignited it burns with a green-bordered flame.

a. Hexane
b. Ethanol
c. Butanol
d. Methanol

A

d. Methanol

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24
Q

Designed for the visualization of the gall bladder

a. Iopanoic Acid, USP
b. Barium hydroxide
c. Barium sulfate
d. All of these

A

a. Iopanoic Acid, USP

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25
Q

Produces a bluish green flame through a cobalt glass

a. sodium
b. barium
c. strontium
d. calcium

A

b. barium

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26
Q

Produces a purple flame through a cobalt glass

a. sodium
b. barium
c. strontium
d. calcium

A

c. strontium

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27
Q

Gutzeit’s test is for the identification of:

a. magnesium
b. arsenic
c. antimony
d. iron

A

b. arsenic

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28
Q

Conjugate base of a strong acid is a:

a. strong base
b. weak base
c. slightly weak base
d. salt

A

b. weak base

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29
Q

Argyria can be caused by

a. gold
b. cobalt
c. iron
d. silver

A

d. silver

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30
Q

Vogel’s reaction involves cobaltous solution with the addition of:

a. copper
b. iron
c. cobalt
d. manganese

A

c. cobalt

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31
Q

A law that states that the elemental composition of a pure compound is always the same regardless of its
source.

a. Law of Conservation of Mass
b. Law of Constant Composition
c. Law of Definite Proportion
d. b and c

A

d. b and c

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31
Q

Borates are added to glass to:

a. mask the blue-green color
b. give brown glass
c. reduce the coefficient of expansion
d. increase refractive index

A

c. reduce the coefficient of expansion

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32
Q

An attraction of a molecule by a magnetic field due to unpaired electrons

a. diamagnetism
b. paramagnetism
c. dia-para magnetism
d. all of the above

A

b. paramagnetism

33
Q

The amount of acid or base the buffer can neutralize before the pH begins to change to an appreciable
degree

a. Buffer
b. buffer equation
c. buffer capacity
d. Handerson-Hasselbach

A

c. buffer capacity

34
Q

Mendeleev gave this element name “eka-silicon”:

a. Germanium
b. Tin
c. Zirconium
d. Lead

A

a. Germanium

34
Q

Group of elements in which the d orbitals are being filled

a. transition metals
b. representative elements
c. f-block elements
d. inert gas

A

a. transition metals

35
Q

It is the ability of an atom in a molecule to attract electrons in itself

a. electron affinity
b. ionization energy
c. electronegativity
d. all of the above

A

c. electronegativity

36
Q

Spontaneous reactions tend to be:

a. endothermic
b. exothermic
c. either
d. both

A

b. exothermic

37
Q

Priestly discovered Oxygen and called it

a. Oxygen
b. empyreal air
c. mephitic air
d. dephlogisticated air

A

d. dephlogisticated air

38
Q

Frasch process is used to obtain the element

a. Tellurium
b. Sulfur
c. Selenium
d. Silicon

A

b. Sulfur

39
Q

Steel is an alloy of

a. Brass and Aluminum
b. Carbon and Iron
c. Zinc and Iron
d. Zinc and Brass

A

b. Carbon and Iron

39
Q

The least penetrating radiation

a. Beta
b. Alpha Particles
c. Gamma
d. Positron

A

b. Alpha Particles

40
Q

Pink in appeareance:

a. Copper
b. Nickel
c. Cobalt (II)
d. a and c

A

c. Cobalt (II)

41
Q

Employed as systemic acidifier

a. Sodium Bicarbonate
b. Ammonium Chloride
c. Calcium Chloride
d. b and c

A

d. b and c

41
Q

In the activity series of metals, any metal on the list can be oxidized by ions of elements

a. above it
b. below it
c. a and b
d. none of the above

A

b. below it

41
Q

It deals with the heat absorbed or released under constant pressure

a. Entropy
b. Enthalpy
c. summation of heat
d. free energy

A

b. Enthalpy

42
Q

Dimethylglyoxime reagent is specific for:

a. Magnesium
b. Nickel
c. Cobalt
d. Copper

A

b. Nickel

43
Q

It has a suffocating odor that is formed from sulphites. It turns filter paper moistened with acidified Potassium Dichromate green.

a. Sulfur Trioxide
b. Sulfur Dioxide
c. Sulfur Oxide
d. Hudrogen Sulfide

A

b. Sulfur Dioxide

44
Q

Principal manifestation of poisoning is of “boiled lobster” appearance, depression of the circulation,
vomiting, diarrhea, followed by shock and coma:

a. Boric Acid
b. Sodium Borate
c. both
d. none of these

A

c. both

45
Q

Scandium was once known as:

a. eka-boron
b. eka-gallium
c. eka-aluminum
d. gadolinite

A

a. eka-boron

46
Q

Strontium Lactate is used in:

a. mania
b. anemia
c. osteoporosis
d. hyperacidity

A

c. osteoporosis

47
Q

Ozone is an example of:

a. allotrope
b. isotope
c. a and b
d. none of these

A

a. allotrope

48
Q

Prepared chalk is made by process called:

a. precipitation
b. whiting
c. elutriation
d. filtration

A

c. elutriation

48
Q

The more disordered the system, the larger is its:

a. enthalpy
b. gibbs free energy
c. heat of fusion
d. entropy

A

d. entropy

49
Q

The process by which water molecules move under high pressure through a semipermeable membrane from the more concentrated to the less concentrated solution.

a. osmosis
b. passive diffusion
c. active diffusion
d. reverse osmosis

A

d. reverse osmosis

50
Q

It states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum nummers.

a. Heisenberg Uncertainty
b. Aufbau
c. Pauli Exclusion
d. a and b

A

c. Pauli Exclusion

51
Q

In a given period, as the atomic number increases, metallic properties:

a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. double

A

b. decrease

52
Q

A metalloid:

a. Gallium
b. Tellurium
c. Nitrogen
d. Tin

A

b. Tellurium

52
Q

It has been used in recent years in the surgical repair of large abdominal hernias:

a. Strontium
b. Tantalum
c. Platinum
d. Selenium

A

b. Tantalum

53
Q

It has a high refractive index that contributes to its opacity

a. Zirconium Oxide
b. Zinc Oxide
c. Titanium Dioxide
d. all of the above

A

c. Titanium Dioxide

53
Q

It creates a “silver mirror” on the walls of a test tube with Silver Nitrate

a. ammonia
b. formaldehyde
c. glucose
d. b and c

A

d. b and c

54
Q

An organic compound with a molecular formula C10H22 is most likely a/an

a. Alkane
b. Alkene
d. Alkyne
e. Cycloalkene

A

a. Alkane

55
Q

Stereoisomer that are not mirror-images of each other are called

a. Structural isomers
b. Cis-Trans isomers
c. Anomers
d. Diastereomers

A

d. Diastereomers

55
Q

A given compound has the molecular formula C6H6. The compound is most likely

a. 1, 3-cyclohexadiene
b. 1-cyclohexane
c. 1, 3, 5-hexatriene
d. 1, 3, 5-hexatryne
e. Benzene

A

e. Benzene

56
Q

What is the type formula for ethers?

a. RH
b. RX
c. ROR
d. RCHO
e. RCOOR

A

c. ROR

56
Q

A carbon with four different moieties attached to it is generally called

a. Anomeric carbon
b. Epimeric carbon
c. Achirality center
d. Stereocenter
e. Carbonyl carbon

A

d. Stereocenter

56
Q

The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system is used for what purpose?

a. Identify reactive sites in an organic compound
b. Determine R or S designation of enantiomers
c. Determine presence of pi bonds
d. Identify optical isomerism
e. Determine cis-trans isomerism

A

b. Determine R or S designation of enantiomers

57
Q

Which of the following compound is considered as a Grignard’s Reagent?

a. CH3CH2OH
b. CH3Li
c. CH3MgCl
d. NaHSO3
e. HCN

A

c. CH3MgCl

58
Q

What time of mixture is produced when equimolar concentrations of d-epinephrine and I-epinephrine are present in solution?

a. Racemic
b. Saturated
c. Unsaturated
d. optically active
e. Meso

A

a. Racemic

58
Q

These are isomers that are not mirror-images of each other differing only in position of moieties at the
first carbon.

a. Epimers
b. Anomers
c. Propanone
d. Enantiomers
e. Benzene

A

b. Anomers

59
Q

What is the most stable conformation of cyclohexane?

a. Staggered
b. Chair
C. Boat
d. Eclipsed
e. Twist

A

b. Chair

60
Q

What property is conferred in a beta-phenylethylamine structure if large substituents are added to the amino group and a 3 and 5 hydroxyl substitutions are made on a phenyl ring?

a. Increase in alpha-1 activity
b. Increase in both alpha and beta activity
C. Loss of beta-2 activity
d. beta-1 receptor agonist selectivity
e. beta-2 receptor agonist selectivity

A

e. beta-2 receptor agonist selectivity

61
Q

Which of the following changes in the 3, 4-dihydroxyphenyl-beta-ethylamine structure will bring about resistance to the action of catechol-o-methyl transferase leading to oral effectiveness of the drug and a longer duration of action?

a. Methyl substitution in amino group
b. Hydroxyl substitution in the beta carbon
C. Lack of substitution at the amino group
d. absence of one or both hydroxyls in the 3, 4 benzene
e. Ethyl substitution at the alpha carbon

A

d. absence of one or both hydroxyls in the 3, 4 benzene

62
Q

What is the most potent effect of trimethyl substitutions in position 1, 3 and 7 of he xanthine molecule?

a. Diuresis
b. Coronary vasodilation
c. Cardiac stimulant
d. CNS stimulant
e. Skeletal muscle relaxation

A

d. CNS stimulant

62
Q

Which of the following metabolites of methoxyflurane is primarily responsible for the nephrotoxicity associated with this inhalational anesthetic?

a. Fluoride
b. Oxalic Acid
C. Difluoromethoxyacetic Acid
d. Dichloroacetic Acid
e. Bromide

A

a. Fluoride

62
Q

Which of the following drugs useful for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder is commercially available as the threo-racemate form, which is about 400 times more potent than its erythro-racemate form?

a. Phenmetrazine
b. Amphetamine
c. Methylphenidate
d. Phentermine
e. Fenfluramine

A

c. Methylphenidate

63
Q

Which of the following agents is considered as a selective reversible inhibitor of MAO-A (RIMA)?

a. Pargyline
b. Isocarboxazid
c. Selegiline
d. Tranylcypromine
e. Moclobemide

A

e. Moclobemide

63
Q

Which of the following calcium channel blockers is a benzothiazepine?

a. Verapamil
b. Nifedipine
c. Diltiazem
d. Amlodipine
e. Isradipine

A

c. Diltiazem

64
Q

Which of the following agents is considered as a selective MAO-B inhibitor?

a. Pargyline
b. Isocarboxazid
c. Selegiline
d. Tranylcypromine
e. Moclobemide

A

c. Selegiline

65
Q

The proton pump inhibitors are chemically known as?

a. Ethenediamines
b. Propanimidamides
c. Dicarboxylamines
d. Hydropropanes
e. Benzimidazoles

A

e. Benzimidazoles

65
Q

Which of the following opioids contains a Phenanthrene nucleus?

a. Morphine
b. Meperidine
c. Methadone
d. Fentanyl
e. Papaverine

A

a. Morphine

65
Q

What is the form of insulin in the presence of zinc ions or at high concentrations? This form of insulin is the primary storage form in man

a. Monomer
b. Dimer
c. Tetramer
d. Pentamer
e. Hexamer

A

e. Hexamer

66
Q

Which of the following agents is a clinically useful 5-HT1D receptor antagonist?

a. Buspirone
b. Losaratan
c. Trazodone
d. Sumatriptan
e. Propanolol

A

d. Sumatriptan

66
Q

A given drug molecule possesses a ureide structure. What is the most likely clinical indication of this drug?

a. Management of Alzheimer’s disease
b. Management of lead poisoning
c. Management of Seizure disorder
d. Management of Psychosis
e. Management of Hyperuricemia

A

c. Management of Seizure disorder

67
Q

A given drug is known to antagonize the 5-HT1D receptor. What is the most likely clinical indication of this drug?

a. Glaucoma
b. Migraine
c. Hypertension
d. Anxiety
e. Psychosis

A

b. Migraine

68
Q

Which form of insulin is absorbed and interacts with the insulin receptors?

a. Monomer
b. Dimer
c. Tetramer
d. Pentamer
e. Hexamer

A

a. Monomer

68
Q

Which of the following agents is primarily a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist?

a. Ondansetron
b. Cisapride
c. Clozapine
d. Ergonovine
e. Naratriptan

A

a. Ondansetron

69
Q

V1/N1 = V2/N2

a. Boyle’s Law
b. Gay-Lusac’s Law
c. Charles’ law
d. Ideal gas law
e. Avogadro’s Law

A

e. Avogadro’s Law

70
Q

V1/T1 = V2/T2

a. Boyle’s Law
b. Gay-Lusac’s Law
c. Charles’ law
d. Ideal gas law
e. Avogadro’s Law

A

c. Charles’ law

70
Q

P1V1 = P2V2

a. Boyle’s Law
b. Gay-Lusac’s Law
c. Charles’ law
d. Ideal gas law
e. Avogadro’s Law

A

a. Boyle’s Law

70
Q

P1/T1 = P2/T2

a. Boyle’s Law
b. Gay-Lusac’s Law
c. Charles’ law
d. Ideal gas law
e. Avogadro’s Law

A

b. Gay-Lusac’s Law

71
Q

PV = NRT
a. Boyle’s Law
b. Gay-Lusac’s Law
c. Charles’ law
d. Ideal gas law
e. Avogadro’s Law

A

d. Ideal gas law

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