MODULE 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

An agent that prevents infection by the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms when applied to inanimate objects

a. antiseptic
b. disinfectant
c. antibiotic
d. sanitizer
e. pesticide

A

b. disinfectant

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2
Q

A higher molecular weight bisurea derivative containing six sulfonic acid groups as their sodium salts

a. pentamidine
b. suramin
c. glycobiarsol
d. stibogluconate
e. clioquinol

A

b. suramin

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2
Q

A potent antifungal substance with a polyene structure from Streptomyces nodosus

a. nystatin
b. griseofulvin
c. natamycin
d. candicidin
e. amphotericin B

A

e. amphotericin B

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3
Q

A pentavalent antimonial compound intended primarily for the treatment if various forms of leishmaniasis

a. Nifurtimox
b. Suramin
c. Pentamidine
d. Glycobiarsol
e. Stibogluconate

A

e. Stibogluconate

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4
Q

Referred to as British Anti-Lewisite and is effective topically and systemically as an antidote for poisoning caused by heavy metals

a. glycobuarsol
b. melarsoprol
c. eflornithine
d. dimercaprol
e. iodoquinol

A

d. dimercaprol

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5
Q

A highly water soluble compound that is effective against various forms of filariasis, including Brancoft’s onchocerciasis and laviasis

a. pyrivinium pamoate
b. tetrachloroethylene
c. piperazine
d. pyrantel pamoate
e. diethylcarbamazine citrate

A

e. diethylcarbamazine citrate

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5
Q

A red cyanine dye used in the chemotherapy of pinworm infestations

a. pyrivinium pamoate
b. tetrachloroethylene
c. piperazine
d. pyrantel pamoate
e. diethylcarbamazine citrate

A

a. pyrivinium pamoate

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6
Q

A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that causes spastic paralysis to susceptible helminthes

a. pyrantel pamoate
b. thiabendazole
c. mebendazole
d. niridazole
e. niclosamide

A

a. pyrantel pamoate

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6
Q

Mechanism of action of Thiabendazole

a. Irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible helminths
b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase
c. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphate
d. Irreversibly inactivates ornithine decarboxylase
e. Exerts anticholinergic effect causing paralysis and expulsion by persitalsis

A

b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase

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7
Q

Mechanism of action of Praziquantel

a. Irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible helminths
b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase
c. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphate
d. Increases cell membrane permeability of susceptible worms, resulting in the loss of
extracellular calcium
e. Exerts anticholinergic effect causing paralysis and expulsion by peristalsis

A

d. Increases cell membrane permeability of susceptible worms, resulting in the loss of
extracellular calcium

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7
Q

Mechanism of action of Ivermectin

a. blocks interneuron-motorneuron transmission in the nematodes by stimulating the release of
the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA
b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase
c. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphate
d. Increases cell membrane permeability of susceptible worms, resulting in the loss of
extracellular calcium
e. Exerts anticholinergic effect causing paralysis and expulsion by peristalsis

A

a. blocks interneuron-motorneuron transmission in the nematodes by stimulating the release of
the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA

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8
Q

Possesses the antitussive properties of codeine, without the analgesic, addictive, central depressant, and constipating features.

a. Levopropoxyphene
b. Noscapine
c. Dextromethorphan
d. Caramiphen
e. Benzonatate

A

c. Dextromethorphan

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9
Q

This describes the relative position of an energy level with respect to the other energy level present

a. principal quantum number
b. magnetic spin quantum number
c. subquantum number
d. magnetic quantum number

A

a. principal quantum number

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10
Q

This is a modification of the Marsh’s test; the chief difference being that only a test tube is required and arsine is detected by means of silver nitrate or mercury (II) chloride

a. Gutzeit’s test
b. Fleitmann’s test
c. Reinsch test
d. Thenard’s test

A

a. Gutzeit’s test

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10
Q

Chemically, Koppeschaar’s solution is

a. iodobromide solution
b. bromine, tenth normal solution
c. bromine-acetic acid solution
d. bromine t.s

A

b. bromine, tenth normal solution

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11
Q

The calcium salt that is the most frequent recommended for oral consumption as an electrolyte replenisher

a. calcium lactate
b. calcium carbonate
c. calcium phosphate
d. dibasic calcium phosphate

A

d. dibasic calcium phosphate

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11
Q

What solution is use to differentiate Group I cations?

a. ammonium sulphide
b. hydrogen sulphide
c. hydrochloric acid
d. ammonium hypophosphate

A

c. hydrochloric acid

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12
Q

Among the three acetates of sodium, which is the most suitable for the qualitative testing of sodium?

a. zinc uranyl acetate
b. magnesium uranyl acetate
c. cobalt uranyl acetate
d. none of these

A

c. cobalt uranyl acetate

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13
Q

The only single acid that can dissolve gold

a. hydrochloric acid
b. nitric acid
c. selenic acid
d. aqua regia

A

c. selenic acid

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14
Q

This process can produce hydrogen with 99% purity and is based on the decomposition of superheated
steam by metallic iron with the subsequent reduction of iron oxides so formed by a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen (blue water gas)

a. Messerschimdt process
b. Solvay Ammonia process
c. Haber process
d. none of these

A

a. Messerschimdt process

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15
Q

Chalybeate water contains

a. Lithium
b. Carbon
c. Salt
d. Iron

A

d. Iron

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16
Q

“Greenish yellow” halogen

a. fluorine
b. chlorine
c. iodine
d. bromine

A

b. chlorine

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17
Q

Magnesium ion is detected using this dyestuff in alkaline solution forming a blue lake:

a. aluminon reagent
b. amaranth
c. p-nitrobenzene resorcinol
d. oxine reagent

A

c. p-nitrobenzene resorcinol

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17
Q

Type of sulfur used in Vleminckx’s Solution

a. precipitated sulfur
b. lac sulfur
c. sublimed sulfur
d. none of these

A

c. sublimed sulfur

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18
Zinc white is: a. zinc oxide b. zinc sulfide c. zinc chloride d. zinc sulfate
a. zinc oxide
19
Stereoisomers in which the two forms of the compounds are non-superimposable mirror images is called: a. optical isomers b. anomers c. epimers d. isomers
c. epimers
20
Equal amounts of two isomers are called: a. levorotatory b. dextrorotatory c. racemic mixture d. optically active
c. racemic mixture
21
Reduction occurs in: a. cathode b. anode c. both d. none of these
a. cathode
22
A law that states that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero. a. Third Law of Thermodynamics b. Second Law of Thermodynamics c. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics d. First Law of Thermodynamic
a. Third Law of Thermodynamics
23
The energy change that occurs when an electron is added to a gaseous atom is called: a. ionization energy b. electronegativity c. electron affinity d. electron density
c. electron affinity
24
When added to boric acid, and then ignited it burns with a green-bordered flame. a. Hexane b. Ethanol c. Butanol d. Methanol
d. Methanol
24
Designed for the visualization of the gall bladder a. Iopanoic Acid, USP b. Barium hydroxide c. Barium sulfate d. All of these
a. Iopanoic Acid, USP
25
Produces a bluish green flame through a cobalt glass a. sodium b. barium c. strontium d. calcium
b. barium
26
Produces a purple flame through a cobalt glass a. sodium b. barium c. strontium d. calcium
c. strontium
27
Gutzeit’s test is for the identification of: a. magnesium b. arsenic c. antimony d. iron
b. arsenic
28
Conjugate base of a strong acid is a: a. strong base b. weak base c. slightly weak base d. salt
b. weak base
29
Argyria can be caused by a. gold b. cobalt c. iron d. silver
d. silver
30
Vogel’s reaction involves cobaltous solution with the addition of: a. copper b. iron c. cobalt d. manganese
c. cobalt
31
A law that states that the elemental composition of a pure compound is always the same regardless of its source. a. Law of Conservation of Mass b. Law of Constant Composition c. Law of Definite Proportion d. b and c
d. b and c
31
Borates are added to glass to: a. mask the blue-green color b. give brown glass c. reduce the coefficient of expansion d. increase refractive index
c. reduce the coefficient of expansion
32
An attraction of a molecule by a magnetic field due to unpaired electrons a. diamagnetism b. paramagnetism c. dia-para magnetism d. all of the above
b. paramagnetism
33
The amount of acid or base the buffer can neutralize before the pH begins to change to an appreciable degree a. Buffer b. buffer equation c. buffer capacity d. Handerson-Hasselbach
c. buffer capacity
34
Mendeleev gave this element name “eka-silicon”: a. Germanium b. Tin c. Zirconium d. Lead
a. Germanium
34
Group of elements in which the d orbitals are being filled a. transition metals b. representative elements c. f-block elements d. inert gas
a. transition metals
35
It is the ability of an atom in a molecule to attract electrons in itself a. electron affinity b. ionization energy c. electronegativity d. all of the above
c. electronegativity
36
Spontaneous reactions tend to be: a. endothermic b. exothermic c. either d. both
b. exothermic
37
Priestly discovered Oxygen and called it a. Oxygen b. empyreal air c. mephitic air d. dephlogisticated air
d. dephlogisticated air
38
Frasch process is used to obtain the element a. Tellurium b. Sulfur c. Selenium d. Silicon
b. Sulfur
39
Steel is an alloy of a. Brass and Aluminum b. Carbon and Iron c. Zinc and Iron d. Zinc and Brass
b. Carbon and Iron
39
The least penetrating radiation a. Beta b. Alpha Particles c. Gamma d. Positron
b. Alpha Particles
40
Pink in appeareance: a. Copper b. Nickel c. Cobalt (II) d. a and c
c. Cobalt (II)
41
Employed as systemic acidifier a. Sodium Bicarbonate b. Ammonium Chloride c. Calcium Chloride d. b and c
d. b and c
41
In the activity series of metals, any metal on the list can be oxidized by ions of elements a. above it b. below it c. a and b d. none of the above
b. below it
41
It deals with the heat absorbed or released under constant pressure a. Entropy b. Enthalpy c. summation of heat d. free energy
b. Enthalpy
42
Dimethylglyoxime reagent is specific for: a. Magnesium b. Nickel c. Cobalt d. Copper
b. Nickel
43
It has a suffocating odor that is formed from sulphites. It turns filter paper moistened with acidified Potassium Dichromate green. a. Sulfur Trioxide b. Sulfur Dioxide c. Sulfur Oxide d. Hudrogen Sulfide
b. Sulfur Dioxide
44
Principal manifestation of poisoning is of “boiled lobster” appearance, depression of the circulation, vomiting, diarrhea, followed by shock and coma: a. Boric Acid b. Sodium Borate c. both d. none of these
c. both
45
Scandium was once known as: a. eka-boron b. eka-gallium c. eka-aluminum d. gadolinite
a. eka-boron
46
Strontium Lactate is used in: a. mania b. anemia c. osteoporosis d. hyperacidity
c. osteoporosis
47
Ozone is an example of: a. allotrope b. isotope c. a and b d. none of these
a. allotrope
48
Prepared chalk is made by process called: a. precipitation b. whiting c. elutriation d. filtration
c. elutriation
48
The more disordered the system, the larger is its: a. enthalpy b. gibbs free energy c. heat of fusion d. entropy
d. entropy
49
The process by which water molecules move under high pressure through a semipermeable membrane from the more concentrated to the less concentrated solution. a. osmosis b. passive diffusion c. active diffusion d. reverse osmosis
d. reverse osmosis
50
It states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum nummers. a. Heisenberg Uncertainty b. Aufbau c. Pauli Exclusion d. a and b
c. Pauli Exclusion
51
In a given period, as the atomic number increases, metallic properties: a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same d. double
b. decrease
52
A metalloid: a. Gallium b. Tellurium c. Nitrogen d. Tin
b. Tellurium
52
It has been used in recent years in the surgical repair of large abdominal hernias: a. Strontium b. Tantalum c. Platinum d. Selenium
b. Tantalum
53
It has a high refractive index that contributes to its opacity a. Zirconium Oxide b. Zinc Oxide c. Titanium Dioxide d. all of the above
c. Titanium Dioxide
53
It creates a “silver mirror” on the walls of a test tube with Silver Nitrate a. ammonia b. formaldehyde c. glucose d. b and c
d. b and c
54
An organic compound with a molecular formula C10H22 is most likely a/an a. Alkane b. Alkene d. Alkyne e. Cycloalkene
a. Alkane
55
Stereoisomer that are not mirror-images of each other are called a. Structural isomers b. Cis-Trans isomers c. Anomers d. Diastereomers
d. Diastereomers
55
A given compound has the molecular formula C6H6. The compound is most likely a. 1, 3-cyclohexadiene b. 1-cyclohexane c. 1, 3, 5-hexatriene d. 1, 3, 5-hexatryne e. Benzene
e. Benzene
56
What is the type formula for ethers? a. RH b. RX c. ROR d. RCHO e. RCOOR
c. ROR
56
A carbon with four different moieties attached to it is generally called a. Anomeric carbon b. Epimeric carbon c. Achirality center d. Stereocenter e. Carbonyl carbon
d. Stereocenter
56
The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system is used for what purpose? a. Identify reactive sites in an organic compound b. Determine R or S designation of enantiomers c. Determine presence of pi bonds d. Identify optical isomerism e. Determine cis-trans isomerism
b. Determine R or S designation of enantiomers
57
Which of the following compound is considered as a Grignard’s Reagent? a. CH3CH2OH b. CH3Li c. CH3MgCl d. NaHSO3 e. HCN
c. CH3MgCl
58
What time of mixture is produced when equimolar concentrations of d-epinephrine and I-epinephrine are present in solution? a. Racemic b. Saturated c. Unsaturated d. optically active e. Meso
a. Racemic
58
These are isomers that are not mirror-images of each other differing only in position of moieties at the first carbon. a. Epimers b. Anomers c. Propanone d. Enantiomers e. Benzene
b. Anomers
59
What is the most stable conformation of cyclohexane? a. Staggered b. Chair C. Boat d. Eclipsed e. Twist
b. Chair
60
What property is conferred in a beta-phenylethylamine structure if large substituents are added to the amino group and a 3 and 5 hydroxyl substitutions are made on a phenyl ring? a. Increase in alpha-1 activity b. Increase in both alpha and beta activity C. Loss of beta-2 activity d. beta-1 receptor agonist selectivity e. beta-2 receptor agonist selectivity
e. beta-2 receptor agonist selectivity
61
Which of the following changes in the 3, 4-dihydroxyphenyl-beta-ethylamine structure will bring about resistance to the action of catechol-o-methyl transferase leading to oral effectiveness of the drug and a longer duration of action? a. Methyl substitution in amino group b. Hydroxyl substitution in the beta carbon C. Lack of substitution at the amino group d. absence of one or both hydroxyls in the 3, 4 benzene e. Ethyl substitution at the alpha carbon
d. absence of one or both hydroxyls in the 3, 4 benzene
62
What is the most potent effect of trimethyl substitutions in position 1, 3 and 7 of he xanthine molecule? a. Diuresis b. Coronary vasodilation c. Cardiac stimulant d. CNS stimulant e. Skeletal muscle relaxation
d. CNS stimulant
62
Which of the following metabolites of methoxyflurane is primarily responsible for the nephrotoxicity associated with this inhalational anesthetic? a. Fluoride b. Oxalic Acid C. Difluoromethoxyacetic Acid d. Dichloroacetic Acid e. Bromide
a. Fluoride
62
Which of the following drugs useful for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder is commercially available as the threo-racemate form, which is about 400 times more potent than its erythro-racemate form? a. Phenmetrazine b. Amphetamine c. Methylphenidate d. Phentermine e. Fenfluramine
c. Methylphenidate
63
Which of the following agents is considered as a selective reversible inhibitor of MAO-A (RIMA)? a. Pargyline b. Isocarboxazid c. Selegiline d. Tranylcypromine e. Moclobemide
e. Moclobemide
63
Which of the following calcium channel blockers is a benzothiazepine? a. Verapamil b. Nifedipine c. Diltiazem d. Amlodipine e. Isradipine
c. Diltiazem
64
Which of the following agents is considered as a selective MAO-B inhibitor? a. Pargyline b. Isocarboxazid c. Selegiline d. Tranylcypromine e. Moclobemide
c. Selegiline
65
The proton pump inhibitors are chemically known as? a. Ethenediamines b. Propanimidamides c. Dicarboxylamines d. Hydropropanes e. Benzimidazoles
e. Benzimidazoles
65
Which of the following opioids contains a Phenanthrene nucleus? a. Morphine b. Meperidine c. Methadone d. Fentanyl e. Papaverine
a. Morphine
65
What is the form of insulin in the presence of zinc ions or at high concentrations? This form of insulin is the primary storage form in man a. Monomer b. Dimer c. Tetramer d. Pentamer e. Hexamer
e. Hexamer
66
Which of the following agents is a clinically useful 5-HT1D receptor antagonist? a. Buspirone b. Losaratan c. Trazodone d. Sumatriptan e. Propanolol
d. Sumatriptan
66
A given drug molecule possesses a ureide structure. What is the most likely clinical indication of this drug? a. Management of Alzheimer’s disease b. Management of lead poisoning c. Management of Seizure disorder d. Management of Psychosis e. Management of Hyperuricemia
c. Management of Seizure disorder
67
A given drug is known to antagonize the 5-HT1D receptor. What is the most likely clinical indication of this drug? a. Glaucoma b. Migraine c. Hypertension d. Anxiety e. Psychosis
b. Migraine
68
Which form of insulin is absorbed and interacts with the insulin receptors? a. Monomer b. Dimer c. Tetramer d. Pentamer e. Hexamer
a. Monomer
68
Which of the following agents is primarily a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist? a. Ondansetron b. Cisapride c. Clozapine d. Ergonovine e. Naratriptan
a. Ondansetron
69
V1/N1 = V2/N2 a. Boyle’s Law b. Gay-Lusac’s Law c. Charles’ law d. Ideal gas law e. Avogadro’s Law
e. Avogadro’s Law
70
V1/T1 = V2/T2 a. Boyle’s Law b. Gay-Lusac’s Law c. Charles’ law d. Ideal gas law e. Avogadro’s Law
c. Charles’ law
70
P1V1 = P2V2 a. Boyle’s Law b. Gay-Lusac’s Law c. Charles’ law d. Ideal gas law e. Avogadro’s Law
a. Boyle’s Law
70
P1/T1 = P2/T2 a. Boyle’s Law b. Gay-Lusac’s Law c. Charles’ law d. Ideal gas law e. Avogadro’s Law
b. Gay-Lusac’s Law
71
PV = NRT a. Boyle’s Law b. Gay-Lusac’s Law c. Charles’ law d. Ideal gas law e. Avogadro’s Law
d. Ideal gas law