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State test > Tonys Review > Flashcards

Tonys Review Flashcards

1
Q

Lidocaine 2gm / 500ml run at 2mg / min =

A

30gtts

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2
Q

Lidocaine Drip =

A

4mg / min

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3
Q

Lidocaine Drip =

A

2gm in a 500 bag D5W at 30gtts

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4
Q

2gm into 500ml with concentration of 4mg/min?

A

60gtts

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5
Q

IV set at 20gtts/min using microdrip; how many ml’s?

A

10ml

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6
Q

Dr. orders 1000mg of a drug. The Drug comes packaged .5gm/ml. How many ml’s do you give?

A

200ml

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7
Q

Dr. orders 200mg of a drug. The Drug comes packaged 25mg/ml. How many ml’s?

A

8ml

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8
Q

Epinephrine does what?

A

Vasoconstriction and Bronchodilation

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9
Q

Epinephrine stimulates heart in?

A

Asystole

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10
Q

Epinephrine causes what?

A

Increased BP, Palpitation, Tachycardia

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11
Q

In regards to Epi, what is the correct dose? 1:1000 IV, 1:1000 SQ, IM, 1:10,000 IM, 1:10,000 SQ

A

1:1000 I.V.

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12
Q

Burns shift what?

A

Plasma to interstitial space

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13
Q

An 80kg . Patient who needs Lidocaine (scenario calls for Lido as TX of choice not Cardioversion due to description they give of the patient)

A

100mg Lido Bolus (best answer)

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14
Q

sign of Irreversible Shock?

A

Bradycardia

(Irreversible shock is a condition in which the shock can no longer respond to any treatment as a result of massive cell damage*)

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15
Q

Administration of IV Hypertonic solution on a hydrated patient will?

A

Draw water from the cells to the vascular space

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16
Q

Anaphylactic & Septic shock, Low BP due to?

A

Vasodilation

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17
Q

Beta question =

A

Increased heart rate

did not refer to beta 1or2, just beta

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18
Q

When beta-receptors are stimulated, the Heart Rate does what?

A

Increases

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19
Q

Cells of the heart that conduct electrical activity causing Depolarization and Contraction? (characteristic)

A

Automaticity

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20
Q

Chief Intracellular Cation =

A

Potassium

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21
Q

Chief Extracellular Cation =

A

Sodium

Hint: dont get EXTRA = salty) ;

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22
Q

Definition of shock?

A

Lack of Tissue Perfusion or Inadequate Tissue Perfusion

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23
Q

One of the FIRST Sign’s of Shock?

A

Restlessness, Elevated Heart Rate

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24
Q

Irreversible Shock =

A

Low Heart Rate,

slower than normal) (death is inevitable

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25
Q

Late Sign of Irreversible Shock?

A

Bradycardia

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26
Q

Which is a sign of UNCOMPENSTAED Shock?

A

Decrease BP

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27
Q

Earliest Detectable Sign of Shock is?

A

Tachycardia

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28
Q

Compensated Shock causes what?

A

Increased blood & Decreased Peripheral Perfusion

1st Tachycardia, Increased Pulse, cool, clammy, anxious

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29
Q

Decompensated shock causes what?

A

Falling BP, Thirst, Decreased LOC

1st Hypotension, un-palpable pulse, respirations slows, & Lethargic

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30
Q

Pt. with valid DNR order, what treatment can you still offer as a medic?

A

Pt. Comfort Measures/Supportive Care
(O2, & Pain control)
(DNR is a form of refusal)

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31
Q

You find clear FLUID coming out of the patient Ears, you should suspect?

A

Basilar Skull Fracture

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32
Q

You see Fluid running out of the patient’s nose and ears, what do you do?

A

Halo Test

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33
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Decreases HR

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34
Q

A Chemical Mediator for the Parasympathetic Nervous system is?

A

Acetylcholine

SLUDGE

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35
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for the Parasympathetic Nervous system =

A

Acetylcholine

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36
Q

Increase PaCO2 Regulates/Controls what?

A

Respiration

partial pressure of CO2 in the blood

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37
Q

Intent is NOT required to PROVE?

A

Negligence

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38
Q

Malicious Writing in a report?

A

Libel

Slander = verbal version of libel

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39
Q

Elements of Negligence are? )

A

Duty to Act, Failure to act, Breach of duty

Cause harm, damages

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40
Q

Adenosine slows conduction where?

A

The Sinus (SA) & the AV Node

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41
Q

Sympathetic stimulation causes what?

A

Vasoconstriction & Increase HR

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42
Q

Emergency Medical Service Act?

A

Chapter 401

provides legislation governing all pre hospital EMS

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43
Q

In an ambulance crash, the court will try to prove?

A

Lack of due regard

for the ambulance driver

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44
Q

What’s due regard?

A

Driving with care for others

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45
Q

Put 1gm in 250cc of D5W, how much do you give?

A

4mg/ml (1gm=1,000mg/250 = 4mg/ml)

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46
Q

you have a 15gtts/ml drip set, you must infuse medication for ONE HOUR, & you are running it at 45gtts/min. How many ml/cc?

A

180cc (45x60=2700/15 = 180)

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47
Q

Patient in an MVA has a head injury, Pt. BP 80/60, Pulse 132, you suspect?

A

Hypovolemia Shock

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48
Q

Who were Ethical Standards Developed for =

A

The Patient

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49
Q

The best protection a paramedic has against legal involvement =

A

Proper Training

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50
Q

Info transmitted over the radio, everything EXCEPT?

A

Name & Insurance

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51
Q

The paramedic communicates all of the information to the doctor EXCEPT?

A

Pt. Name & Insurance Policy

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52
Q

Cushing’s Triad?

A

Widening pulse pressure, hypertension, bradycardia, irregular resp.

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53
Q

pH over 7.45?

A

Alkalosis

below 7.35 = Acidosis

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54
Q

Movement of fluid from LOW to HIGH across plasma membrane?

A

Osmosis

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55
Q

Drug & Dose for Pt. after RSC (rapid sequence circulation)?

A

Dopamine @ 5mcg/kg/min

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56
Q

Child with no parents, what type of consent?

A

Implied consent

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57
Q

You get on scene & the patient rolls up sleeves, what type of consent?

A

Implied Consent

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58
Q

Which is not an indication of an infiltrated IV Site?

A

Air in tubing

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59
Q

The Number 1 buffer system is?

A

Bicarbonate

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60
Q

What electrolyte is the PRIMARY Buffer?

A

Bicarbonate

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61
Q

You don’t have to investigate further?

A

Pertinent Negative

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62
Q

2nd dose of albuterol for adult patient?

A
  1. 5mg

2. 5mg/3mls

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63
Q

Patient weight is 86lbs, how many Kg?

A

39kg

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64
Q

Patient tells you he doesn’t want to be treated with Glasgow of 15 & you give him a shot, it is?

A

Battery

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65
Q

Battery is?

A

Unlawfully touching patient (Assault = Threat)

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66
Q

Abandonment means?

A

Not turning over care to an appropriate professional

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67
Q

If paramedic charged in lawsuit, he is the?

A

Defendant

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68
Q

3 Stages of Stress?

A

Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion (ARE)

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69
Q

Which drugs go down the Tube?

A

Lido, Epi, Atropine, Narcan (remember LEAN)

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70
Q

What kind/type of drug is Cocaine?

A

Schedule II

schedule I –addictive but NO medical use: heroin, LSD, or crack cocaine

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71
Q

What does HR do late in decompensating shock?

A

Less then normal, There will be a narrowing of the pulse pressures

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72
Q

Racemic EPI, Tx to relief?

A

Croup

racemic EPI is EPI made for a nebulizer

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73
Q

Smooth muscle relaxant used for patient’s with bronchial asthma?

A

Aminophyline 5-6mg/kg

AKA theophylline, is a bronchodilator

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74
Q

3 systems that regulate acid-base balance?

A

Buffer, respiratory, & renal systems.
(buffer systems functioning in blood plasma include plasma proteins, phosphate, and bicarbonate and carbonic acid buffers)

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75
Q

Increase in acid due to metabolism, vomiting, diarrhea, diabetes or meds?

A

Metabolic Acidosis

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76
Q

Parenteral route of med administration?

A

SQ, IM, IV, IO, ET

Parenteral: administered or occurring elsewhere in the body than the mouth and alimentary canal

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77
Q

ABDUCTION?

A

Away from the body

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78
Q

ADDUCTION?

A

Towards the body

remember ADD to me

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79
Q

In an ambulance crash the court will try to prove?

A

Lack of due regard – for the ambulance driver

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80
Q

Administration of a Hypertonic solution to a hydrated PT will draw water from?

A

The PT’s cells into the vascular space.

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81
Q

Atropine does what?

A

Blocks Vagus Nerve (parasympathetic)

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82
Q

55 yr old Pt. with P 50, P Wave for every QRS, P – R Interval of 0.16, Cold & Clammy with BP 70/50 with Sinus Bradycardia. The Pt. should be given?

A

.5mg Atropine

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83
Q

What must occur to Maintain Relative Homeostasis?

A

Input MUST equal Output (equilibrium, balance)

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84
Q

Pt. doesn’t speak English?

A

Try to talk to both pt. & person doing the interpreting

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85
Q

Anytime you are dispatched to a call you have a duty to what?

A

Duty to act

it’s prescribed by the law as what we must do and how we must do it

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86
Q

Name a controlled substance that does not produce constricted pupils?

A

Valium

Is a benzodiazepan

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87
Q

Blood Components?

A

1unit = 1pint = 500ml

12units in adults or 6 liters

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88
Q

Act creating the Food & Drug administration (FDA)?

A

Controlled Substance Act 1970

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89
Q

Pounds to kg? 1kg =

A

2.2lbs

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90
Q

After C-Spine, how do you open the Airway?

A

Jaw Thrust

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91
Q

Hypercarbia =

A

Increased Co2 in the blood

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92
Q

Hypoxemia =

A

Decreased O2 in the Blood

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93
Q

Patient in car accident, not breathing with head injury. What is the risk of intubation?

A

Increased ICP

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94
Q

Pediatric with SPo2 78%, breathing 40bpm, you should do what?

A

Assist Ventilation

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95
Q

When intubating you hear absent lung sounds on the LEFT due to?

A

Right Mainstem Bronchus insertion

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96
Q

What is correct about Nasogastric tube on intubation?

A

Creates a Bad Face Seal or gets in the way of intubating

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97
Q

Complications of nasal gastric tube?

A

It makes intubations more difficult

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98
Q

Suctioning the back of a child’s mouth can cause all of the following EXCEPT?

A

Dehydration or bradycardia

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99
Q

Patient with air in the stomach, what do you do?

A

NG Tube

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100
Q

Attempted to intubate 4 Times without success what do you do?

A

Try another Advance Airway (use other method)

I-gel, LMA or Dual lumen etc…

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101
Q

Which Blade would you use to intubate an ADULT Pt.?

A

A curve blade (Macintosh) in the vallecula or a straight blade (miller) lifting the epiglottis

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102
Q

A Substance from High to Low concentration?

A

Diffusion

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103
Q

Minute Volume =

A

Tidal Vol X Resp. Rate

amount. of air in or out in one minute
(tidal volume = amount. of air breathed in or out in one breath)

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104
Q

In a normal person, what is the body’s primary respiratory drive?

A

Increase in Pco2

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105
Q

How to Measure Pediatric ET =

A

Size of Smallest Finger

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106
Q

How do you Measure Pediatric ET tube?

A

Broselow Tape

(Size 6 cuffed, size 6 uncuffed, size of index finger) were the other answers given

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107
Q

What separates the upper and lower airway?

A

Epiglottis (vocal cords)

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108
Q

A local alcoholic on a cold night is found to be inarousable, in V-FIB, & is Apneic. TX should include?

A

Airway, Defibrillate 3 times, CPR, Transport

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109
Q

Patient Choking, has PARTIAL Obstruction, you?

A

Encourage him to keep Coughing

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110
Q

What is a good indication for nasal intubation?

A

Gag Reflex intact

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111
Q

What do you check immediately after intubation?

A

Auscultation of the Epigastric & Breath Sounds

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112
Q

When doing a HALO Test, what are you looking for?

A

CSF (cerebral spinal fluid)

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113
Q

You should palpate the Abdomen quadrant?

A

Area with pain/injury LAST

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114
Q

Palpate abdominal quadrants in what order?

A

UL, UR, LR, LL

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115
Q

Kussmaul Respirations?

A

Rapid Deep Gasping Breathing – Associated with DKA/Hyperglycemia

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116
Q

Let CSF (cerebral spinal fluid) leak out, why?

A

To Relieve Increasing Pressure of the brain (ICP)

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117
Q

Mrs. J is in DKA. Her breathing pattern is Bradypena & Tachypnea. What is this respiratory pattern Called?

A

Kussmaul

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118
Q

Increased then Decreased Respiration followed by Apnea (a temporary suspension of breathing)?

A

Cheyne-Stokes

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119
Q

S/S of Hyperglycemia?

A

Deep, Rapid, Gasping respirations associated with Ketoacidosis

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120
Q

Harsh, high pitch sound heard on inspiration that indicate partial airway obstruction?

A

Stridor

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121
Q

You Expect to see Flat Neck Veins in Pt’s with?

A

Hypovolemia

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122
Q

Most important information for ER Doctor?

A

Chief Complaint (c/c), Patient’s condition, Treatment

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123
Q

Medical Pt., the first thing you ask or evaluate?

A

Chief Complaint

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124
Q

Which Vertebrae is responsible for loss of sensation of the Lower & Upper Extremities?

A

(Look it up) Thoracic? T4 or T6

*this answer is questionable

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125
Q

To make changes in the PCR (patient care report) you would?

A

Draw a single line & initial, make a notation at the end of the report

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126
Q

The Difference between Systolic & Diastolic is?

A

Pulse Pressure

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127
Q

The Systolic Portion of the blood pressure is the?

A

Pressure of blood against the Atrial Wall

During the heartbeat (pressure is arteries during ventricular contraction)

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128
Q

Orthostatic BP =

A

Supine, Sitting, Standing @ 2min intervals

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129
Q

JVD best checked?

A

Semi-fowlers

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130
Q

JVD is best observed at a?

A

45 degree angle

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131
Q

What is a contraindication for an NPO?

A

Basilar Skull Facture, look for battle signs or raccoon eyes

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132
Q

Rales are?

A

Fluid in alveoli

small airways or crackels

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133
Q

A high-pitched whistling is what type of sound?

A

Wheezing

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134
Q

Decorticate posturing?

A

Flexion of the arms, extension of legs, & clenched fist

head injury

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135
Q

Trauma Pt. with Arms & Legs FULLY extended?

A

Decerebrate Posturing (head injury/worse one)

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136
Q

Patient with chest pains, you ask?

A

O,P,Q,R,S,T

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137
Q

Amount of blood pumped by the heart in one (1) min, is called?

A

Cardiac Output

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138
Q

Rales usually heard in? Lower airway –

A

Fluid in the Aveoli

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139
Q

Man was cleaning the bathroom with bleach and fainted, a co-worker pulled him out and upon arrivial you notice the man has RALES. What is his condition?

A

Pulmonary Edema

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140
Q

Cardiac Tamponade causes the following, Except
A. Flat Neck Veins
B. normal pulse pressure C. decrease BP
D. muffle heart sounds

A

Except = Flat Neck Veins

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141
Q

How do you check for stable pelvis?

A

Downward & Inward pressure on iliac crests

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142
Q

What to check for in Extremities?

A

PMS-D (pulse, motor, sensory, deformities)

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143
Q

A repeater does what?

A

Boosts transmission range

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144
Q

Most common frequency in EMS?

A

VHF & UHF (VeryHF/UltraHF)

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145
Q

Types of radio systems?

A

Simplex (1freq-only talk to listen,
Duplex (2freq-talk & listen),
Mutiplex (2freq-talk, listen, & send ECG)

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146
Q

A group of frequencies close together?

A

Band

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147
Q

A Scuba Diver has Tingling in the HAND and FEET with Frothy Red Sputum. The patient should be Transported in?

A

Trendelenberg on his Left Side

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148
Q

All of the following are true regarding electrical burns EXCEPT:

A

There is more external than internal damage

(There is an entrance & exit wound, it may cause V-FIB, Path of electricity may follow nerve pathways)
[were the other answers given]

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149
Q

Air Embolism =

A

Diver with joint pain, Tingling in the legs, Abdominal Pain

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150
Q

Which is part of the 6 P’s?

A

PULSES

(pain, pallor, paralysis, paresthesia, pressure) the other five P’s

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151
Q

Abdomen Covering or Lining of the stomach?

A

Peritoneum

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152
Q

Lining of the LUNGS?

A

Visceral Pleura

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153
Q

A Pt. with abdomen pain is found in what position?

A

Fetal

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154
Q

Cerebellum controls what?

A

Motor control, Balance, Coordination

makes body move smoothly

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155
Q

Cerebrum controls what?

A

Thought, Personality, Analysis, Learning, Memory, & Speech
(T-Palms)

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156
Q

Child gets his hand stuck on Dry Ice for more than 5 minutes, what do you do?

A

Immerse in warm water (105degree’s) sterile dressing - don’t let refreeze

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157
Q

Concussion means?

A

A brief period of Unconsciousness, Followed by a complete return of function

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158
Q

Countracoup means?

A

Injury occurring on the opposite side of impact of the brain

Coup – injury to brain on side of impact

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159
Q

Eyes don’t move in Unison (together)?

A

Dysconjugate Gaze

head trauma

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160
Q

Disconjugated Gaze TX?

A

Cover both eyes loosely

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161
Q

Pt. Severed the Spinal Cord at C3–C4 that causes?

A

Total Paralysis & Pt. can’t Breathe on their own

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162
Q

Spleen is Located where?

A

LUQ left upper quadrant – (Liver = RUQ)

Appendix RLQ

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163
Q

Spontaneous Pneumothorax-Signs/Symptoms =

A

Short duration of sudden pain, SOB, Knife like pain

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164
Q

Tendons connect to what?

A

Muscles To Bone

ligaments - bone to bone

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165
Q

Difference between Sprain & Strain?

A

Sprain is injury to Ligaments, Strain is injury to muscles and or tendons

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166
Q

A False statement referring to burns is that?

A

There is insignificant damage to underlying tissue

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167
Q

A Pt. in a motorcycle accident has lacerations to his head that is actively bleeding. His Vital Sign’s are BP 80/4 Pulse 110, Treat him by giving what?

A

Lactated Ringers Wide Open (ringers lactate)

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168
Q

Muti trauma Pt., what do you treat first?

A

Hypoxia

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169
Q

To Open the Airway of a Trauma Patient you would use a?

A

Modified Jaw Thrust

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170
Q

Trauma patient fell from the roof with positive JVD, NO Lung Sounds on Right Side, TX would be?

A

Assist Ventilations, Decompress, Immobilize, Transport, 2 large bore IV’s

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171
Q

All are TRUE in Burn Patients, EXCEPT?

A

Electrical Burns Don’t Effect Soft Tissue

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172
Q

Cavitation is?

A

Object Penetration / Pressure waves from bullet / opening produced by force that pushes body tissues laterally away

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173
Q

A Clear Fluid coming from the nose and mouth, you expect?

A

Basilar Skull Fracture

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174
Q

Most Critical concern to a patient with chest trauma?

A

Hypoxia

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175
Q

Poor Bag compliance seen in what Pts.?

A

Sucking Chest Wounds, Tension pneumo thorax

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176
Q

Patient that has Cervical Fracture =

A

Quadriplegic

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177
Q

Placement for Decompression is?

A

Between 2nd & 3rd Intercostal Space (Midclavicular) or Between 5th & 6th intercostal space – (Mid-Axillary)
Decompress prior to ET, IV, & TRANSPORt)

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178
Q

Traumatic Asphyxia occurs from what type of injury?

A

Crush

injury to the chest or abdomen

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179
Q

Flail Chest is when?

A

2 or more ribs FX in 2 or more places

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180
Q

Complications of fractures & dislocations

A

Nerve & Vascular damage (vascular is the worst complication)

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181
Q

Most commonly fractured bone in the body?

A

Clavicle

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182
Q

Number of LITERS of Blood Loss in Abdominal Distension?

A

1.5 to 2 Liters

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183
Q

Anterior dislocation of a shoulder or fracture clavicle, Pt. presents how?

A

Leaning Forward with Affected shoulder & arm held close to chest

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184
Q

Always splint bones?

A

Above & Below joint injuries (If it’s a joint? Above/Below fractured bone)
(check PMS Before & After)

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185
Q

Treatment of a patient who presents with an OPEN Fracture?

A

Dress Wound first then Bandage/Splint

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186
Q

Patient with 3rd degree burns over 20% BSA, Concern is for?

A

Hypovolemia

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187
Q

You have a patient with head trauma & signs of Shock =

A

Look elsewhere; Shock is not due to head trauma (rare to see)

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188
Q

Your index of suspicious is based on mechanism of injury in regards to what?

A

Extent of patients injuries

189
Q

Major Complication of thrombolytic therapy is?

A

BLEEDING OUT

190
Q

Exclusion Criteria from thrombolytic therapy, all EXCEPT?

A

Hip Surgery 2 Years Ago

191
Q

Blood Loss Replacement?

A

3 times the volume lost (20ml/kg) (exp. Pt. loss 750ml X 3 = 2,250)

192
Q

Trauma Bolus?

A

20ml/kg (Adult)

193
Q

Best Fluid for replacement?

A

BPlasma, packed cells, or wholeblood

194
Q

The Pt. with Increased ICP Varies from the expected in that?

A

Pulse Decreases & BP increases

195
Q

Signs of Increased ICP?

A

Hypertension, bradycardia, widening pulse pressures (Pt. with icp should be hyperventilated. lowers ICP by induction of cerebral vasoconstriction with a subsequent decrease in cerebral blood volume. May also lower systemic BP)
(do not hyperventilate or use high flow o2 with stroke PT.)

196
Q

Drug used to decrease ICP

A

Mannitol

197
Q

In a MVA there is a MULTITRAUMA patient, what is the FIRST thing to Control?

A

HEMORRHAGE

Other choices: airway, circulation,

198
Q

Burn patient with Anterior Chest(9), Abdomen(9), & BOTH Arms(18)? 36%. If its says one arm then it’s

A

27%

199
Q

Adult burn Pt. with burns to anterior chest (9), Abdomen(9), & Anterior upper extremities (4.5each). Using rule of 9’s what is the burn score?

A

27%

200
Q

What is your primary concern for burn patients?

A

Hypovolemic Shock

NOT Septic Shock

201
Q

Occipital part of the brain Controls what?

A

Vision

202
Q

Flat Neck Veins are common to all of the following EXCEPT?

A

Cardiac Temponade

other choices; Dehydration, Hypovolemia, Hemothorax

203
Q

Cardiac Tamponade is?

A

Narrowing pulse pressures

pulsus paradoxus, JVD, muffle heart sounds, beck’s triad, Pt. need a pericardial synthesis**

204
Q

Patient has Scalp wound, BP 80/50, Pulse 120, the best IV CHOICE is?

A

Lactated Ringers

(Wide Open)

205
Q

Patient in a MVA says he has radiating pain on LEFT Shoulder, you suspect?

A

Spleen Injury

206
Q

Patient has Stroke like signs & symptoms, but then they RESOLVE & become better. This is what?

A

TIA

207
Q

Which soft tissue injury causes the most bleeding?

A

Avulsion

208
Q

An avulsion is a soft tissue injury involving?

A

The SQ & Facia with lots of blood loss

rip between subcutaneous & muscle tissue

209
Q

Multiple attempts using ET Tube with ICP, CAUSE’s more?

A

ICP, Bradycardia, & other Dysrhythmias

210
Q

Patient fell from 3rd floor, Pt. lying down, (R) lung sound absent, & FX leg. After airway TX?

A

BVM with O2, Decompress (R) Side, PASG, IV in route

211
Q

A Pt. in a trauma accident that gets hit in the abdomen, may mimic peritonitis because?

A

Stomach acids can spill into abdomen cavity

212
Q

A question about Synch. Cardioversion?

A

Cardioversion is carried out only for pt.’s whose cardiac
output is severely impaired.
(wrong choice’s: hemodynamically unstable, & V-FIB)

213
Q

Trauma Pt. hit steering wheel, absent lung sounds on the left side, do not?

A

Decompress on the right side

214
Q

Ascites is?

A

the build up of fluid in the space between the lining of the abdomen and abdominal organs
(the peritoneal cavity & Bulges in the flanks)

215
Q

Penetrating trauma to abdomen, 40% blood loss from this organ?

A

Liver

216
Q

Rule of 9’s, what percentage is the child head?

A

18%

arms: 9% each, 18% front, 18% back, 1% genitals, 14% each Leg

217
Q

C1 – C4 injury, problems with?

A

Respiration

c1=atlas, c2=axis

218
Q

Man Complains of SOB, CHEST PAIN after working out?

A

Spontaneous Pneumothorax

219
Q

Patient with twisted leg, with low BP, high Pulse, cool & clammy skin?

A

Hypovolemia

220
Q

Paralyzed from nipple line down?

A

T-4

221
Q

Umbilicus down?

A

T-10

222
Q

Tension Pneumothorax is known as what shock?

A 
Obstructive Shock
(S/S; JVD, tracheal deviation away from injured side; shock, asymmetrical chest rise)
223
Q

Blood in the eye?

A

Hyphemia

224
Q

Bleed under the dura is described as?

A

Subdural

225
Q

What part of the brain regulates BP, Resp, and Heart Rate?

A

Medulla Oblongata

226
Q

Damages to tissues due to high speed bullet is known as what?

A

Cavitation

227
Q

Babinski Reflex/Sign?

A

Toes go up / Toe Faced outward

regarding infants feet when they are stimulated

228
Q

First thing that happens in a blast injury?

A

Compression of air filled organs

secondary – struck by flying debris, Tertiary – pts. Propelled through space/impact other objects

229
Q

Fracture on one side of Long-Bone?

A

Greenstick

230
Q

Most common type of rural MVA?

A

Frontal

head on collision) (cause of two lane roads

231
Q

Most common cause of death at a Fire Scene?

A

Carbon Monoxide (headache,confusion,cherry red lips)

232
Q

Patient in MVA frontal impact suffering down / under injury, you would suspect?

A 
Femur Fracture
(down under the dashboard)
233
Q

Patient fell through a glass door & has a piece of glass stuck in the neck, what do you do?

A

C-Spine, Airway, Occlusive dressing, Stabilize the glass, Transport

234
Q 
Which would you treat Last?
A. Spinal 
B. Arterial Hemorrhaging
C. Airway Obstruction
D, Sucking Chest Wound
A

A. Spinal

235
Q

Type of fractures?

A 
Transverse (across)
Spiral, Greenstick (kids, incomplete) 
Oblique (diagonal with sharp points) 
Compound (open)
Comminuted (bone fragments)
236
Q

La Forte Fracture:

A

FX within the face
F1 = Maxilla
F2 = Nose
F3 = Orbits

237
Q

Bradycardia With PVC’s, What MED?

A 
Give Atropine 
(not lidocaine)
238
Q

What is a wide Etopic Beat?

A

PVC

239
Q

A 22 yr. old woman complains of severe pain in RLQ, She has not eaten in 12 days & is constipated, & No chance of being pregnant. She most likely has?

A

Appendicitis

240
Q

A 23 yr. old Gym rat has Explosive headache, this indicates?

A

Subarachnoid Aneurysm

241
Q

When you Approach radiation the 3 Principles of Safety are?

A

Time, Distance, Shielding

alpha – weak 6inches / beta – weak 1-2ft / gamma –Bad

242
Q

A patient complains of Dyspnea, he is CYANOTIC, has RALES, Reg. Pulse 140, BP 150/120, with Pink
Frothy Sputum. Pt. has?

A

Pulmonary Edema

243
Q

A patient has a history of SOB, Orthopnea, and Coughing up pink tinged mucus. The patient most likely
has?

A

Left Sided Heart Failure or Acute Pulmonary Edema (instead of using CHF*)

244
Q

Pulmonary Edema?

A

Left Heart Failure

245
Q

Lady sitting upright with pink frothy sputum indicative of?

A

Left Heart Failure

246
Q

Best position for Pt. with Orthopnea?

A 
Sitting Position
(orthopnea: SOB laying down)
247
Q

A patient is found on the floor in a pool of vomit, shaking, CONFUSED and frightened
of SPIDERS on the wall (there are no spiders!). Patient has stopped drinking for 2 Days and is experiencing what?

A

Withdraws (DT’s)

248
Q

A patient is Unconscious, Incontinent, and having Generalized Muscle Relaxation and Contraindications, what type of Seizure?

A

Grand Mal Seizure

249
Q

A prolong P-R Interval is indicative of a?

A

First Degree Heart Block

250
Q

First Degree block is indicated on ECG tracing when the P-R interval is greater than?

A

.20 sec

251
Q

P-R Interval begins and ends?

A

Begins @ the P wave & ends @ the Beginning of the QRS

252
Q

P waves get wider & wider till QRS drops, is set to be?

A

Mobitz I Wenkebach (going, going – gone*)

253
Q

QRS interval?

A

0.08 - 0.12

254
Q

A man repeatedly dove today & made a fast ascent from the last dive. He is complaing of Joint pains, Tingling legs, & Adominal pain. The Pt. has?

A

Decompression Sickness (bends)

255
Q

Septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic shock, the Low BP is due to what?

A

Vasodilation

256
Q

A Victim is found with Bright Red, frothy blood bubbling from the mouth which each exhalation.
This is an Indication of what?

A

Lung Damage (hemoptysis)

257
Q

Pt. with Abdomen Pain, position of comfort?

A

On their sides with knee’s bent (fetal position)

Or in Lateral Recumbent

258
Q

Acetylcholine / Oxytocin are Secreted by?

A

The Pituitary Gland

259
Q

Adrenal Glands Secrets / Releases what?

A

Epinephrine & Norepinephrine

260
Q

Angina caused by physical (exercise) or emotional stress is called?

A

Stable Angina

not unstable angina

261
Q

During Cardiac Arrest, Build up of Pyruvic & Lactic Acid causes?

A

Metabolic Acidosis

262
Q

Primary concern with treating a near drowning victim?

A

Hypoxia / Acidosis

both metabolic/resp

263
Q

Eclampsia is?

A

A Seizures

related to pregnant women

264
Q

What do you do BEFORE Admin. D50?

A

Check Sugar

glucose check

265
Q

When a patient is vomiting GREEN like substance, this is a sign of what?

A

Rupture of the Gallbladder (cholecystitis – RUQ pain, could be yellow or green bile vomit)

266
Q

Antepartum =

A

Prior to the delivery of the fetus

267
Q

A female Pt. with ABD pain to her LLQ with vaginal bleeding & a missed menstrual cycle
approximately 7-10 days ago, what type of pregnancy?

A

Ruptured Ectopic Pregnancy

268
Q

A 22yr. old female with LLQ Pain. She is 2 weeks late for her period. Pt. is shocky. She is diagnosed as?

A

Ectopic Pregnancy

269
Q

A Child that has a headache, STIFF NECK, Vomiting, high fever, lethargic, & pale has?

A

Meningitis

270
Q

Pt. mother is Pregnant with 2nd child; pt. mother has had 2 Miscarries before, with ONE Live Birth? Gravid 4, Para 1, Abortions 2 (twins, count as one birth)

A

Gravid 4, Para 1, Abortions 2

twins, count as one birth

271
Q

Transporting a pregnant patient in the 3rd trimester, how do you transport?

A

Left Lateral Recumbent supine 10 – 15 degree’s

272
Q

Woman in third trimester, minimal bleeding, ridged uterus & pain?

A

Abruptio Placenta

pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus

273
Q

Abdominal pain and dark bleeding is characterized by?

A

Abruptio Placenta

274
Q

S/S of Pregnancy?

A

lower BP, increase HR, & Plasma increase

275
Q

After you have clamped and cut the cord, blood keeps oozing out, what do you do?

A

Clamp proximal to the previous clamp (

276
Q

Pregnant female in childbirth with prolapse cord, what to do?

A

Sterile Gloved hand in canal, Hold baby face away from cord and Transport
(do not push the cord back inside the canal) (transport mother = in knee chest)

277
Q

What do you do if you see a Nuchal Cord?

A

Insert gloved hand, move baby’s head away From the cord, & transport immediately

278
Q

If baby delivers with amniotic sac not ruptured, what to do?

A

Poke with glove finger & pull away from baby face

279
Q

Baby delivers in a “bag of water” what do you do?

A

Puncture the bag with your finger & uncover The baby’s face

280
Q

Patient has been decontaminated from Radiation, come to you, what is he considered?

A

Low Threat

281
Q

DKA or Diabetic ketoacidosis Pt. present with?

A

Warm & Dry Skin (dehydration/fever)

282
Q

The Upper Area of the Uterus is?

A 
The Fundus 
(which is a muscular structure located behind the cervix)
283
Q

Top Priority of Heat Stroke Pt.?

A

Rapid Cooling, IV, & Transport (temp is 105-106)

284
Q

Heat Stroke signs/symptoms?

A

Hot & Dry Skin, Syncope, Weak Pulse, Hypotension

285
Q

Heat Exhaustion is?

A

Profuse Sweating, weak/pale, Tachy

sodium and water loss

286
Q

Heat Cramps is?

A

ABD & Leg cramps

cool down, give fluids

287
Q

Which one is NOT a SIGN of a Stroke?

A

Hypotension

correct choice given; headache, aphasia, facial drooping

288
Q

How long does death generally occur after an MI?

A

1-3 hours after MI or (1-3hrs Check) OR Most deaths involving MI occur within? 2-3 hours

289
Q

In MI, which part of the heart is affected?

A 
Left Atrium
(other choices = Right Atrium, Left Ventricle, Right Ventricle -wrong)
290
Q

Blue or Purple Lesions on AIDS Pt. face, neck, mouth is?

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

291
Q

Neurotic VS Psychotic Pts, psychotic pt are not in touch with?

A

Reality

292
Q

When talking to Psych. Pt.? contact**)

A

Take away from situation & let them speak
(remove spouse from scene)
(calm approach, good eye contact)

293
Q

PPE is the same as? BSI is used because of assumption that all blood & other body fluids are infection (ppe and bsi are not the same)

A

PPE is the same as? BSI is used because of assumption that all blood & other body fluids are infection (ppe and bsi are not the same)

294
Q

What happens in the 3rd Trimester?

A

Decreased BP

295
Q

What trimester does toxemia usually occur in pregnancy?

A

3rd Trimester

296
Q

Rapid Cooling for Heat Stroke patient is to prevent what?

A

Irreversible Brain Damage

297
Q

Cardiac Output is the amount of?

A

Blood pumped by the heart in one min

298
Q

Total amount of blood ejected in each contraction of the ventricle?

A

AKA stroke vol 80-100mls (Adult male)

299
Q

Patient with chest pain, P-72 and 10MIN later pulse decreases to 38. If stroke volume DOSEN’T CHANGE…?

A

Cardiac Output DECREASES

300
Q

What is TRUE about HIV patient?

A

They Appear NORMAL (you couldn’t tell)

301
Q

Fibrinolytic Therapy time frame is?

A

3 Hours

302
Q

Causes of AMS?

A

Hypoperfusion, hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, heat stroke (AEIOU-TIPS)

303
Q

Guy went on Vacation and went diving, how do you transport pt.?

A

Left Lateral

304
Q

Absent P wave in LEAD II means?

A

The SA Node is not the Pacemaker

305
Q

Normal Pacemaker of the heart?

A

SA Node

306
Q

What does the QRS mean on an ECG?

A

Ventricular Depolarization

307
Q

When dealing with a patient exhibiting a hostile, aggressive behavior, appropriate action would be to?

A

Contact the police dept. & remove bystanders from the scene

308
Q

Behavior emergency Pt., you should?

A

Try to orient the Pt.

309
Q

How to restrain a behavioral emergency Pt.?

A

One arm above his head, One arm by his side,

Patient lying prone with feet tied at the end of the stretcher

310
Q

Hypogylcemia Pt. resembles what?

A

Behavioral problems

311
Q

A Pt. complains of SOB. On assessment he has pursed lips & barrel chest, which indicates?

A

Emphysema
(pink puffers)
(Chronic Bronchitis is called - “blue bloaters”*)

312
Q

Patient with Barrel Chest and is pink has?

A

Emphysema

313
Q

Female Pt., puffing & with pink skin?

A

Emphysema

314
Q

A guy in an MVA, Pt. has subcutaneous emphysema on the right neck side, Dyspnea, Absent lung sounds on the right side & diminish lung sounds on the left side?

A

Tension Pneumothorax

315
Q

Pt. is a Chronic Smoker with Barrel Chest; what condition would you expect him to have?

A

Emphysema

316
Q

ST Elevation in Leads II, III, AVF?

A

Inferior Wall MI

317
Q
  1. Leads V1-V4?
A

Anteroseptal MI

318
Q
  1. Leads V3-V6?
A

Anterolateral MI

319
Q

ST elevation on V1-V6, l, AVF?

A

Anterior Wall MI

320
Q

ST elevation on V2, V3, V4, V5?

A

Anterior Lateral Wall MI

321
Q

Lead Placement of V4 electrode?

A

Midclavicular

322
Q

P Wave =
QRS Wave =
T-Wave =

A

P Wave = Atrial Depolarization

QRS Wave = Ventricular Depolarization, T-Wave = Repolarization of the Ventricles

323
Q

Enlarged Liver, distended neck veins & edema are Sign’s of?

A

Heart Failure (RIGHT)

324
Q

Pain in the chest “tearing & shearing” pain towards the neck, with no pedal pulses?

A

Dissecting Aortic Aneurysm

325
Q

Man complaining of tearing pain in the back & in between SHOULDERS with no pedal pulses?

A

Aortic Aneurysm

326
Q

Causes of pinpoint pupils?

A

Narcotics

327
Q

The Drug of choice for Cardiogenic shock is?

A

Dopamine

pump problem, MI

328
Q

Pt. presents with whistling sound during exhalation is consider being?

A

Asthmatic Bronchiolitis

329
Q

When blood leaves the Lungs, where does it go FIRST?

A

Left Atrium

330
Q

O2 rich blood leaves the pulmonary veins & goes to the?

A

Left Atrium

331
Q

Where do you put pressure for the Sellick maneuver?

A

Cricoid Cartilage

332
Q

Sign of a Pt. with a progressive disease that affects the nervous system?

A

Mental Status

333
Q 
All are S/S of Kidney Stones EXCEPT?
severe flank pain
pale 
Frequent Urination  
lower abd pain
A

Frequent Urination

334
Q

Patient with ringing in the EAR & is SICK?

A

ASA Overdose

335
Q

Patient coping with stress, common reaction?

A

Stress, Fear, Anxiety Anger

336
Q

2nd Phase of child birth is when?

A

Full Dilation of cervix until child is delivered

3rd phase is when the baby is fully out

337
Q

Blood Clot in the legs will lodge where?

A

In the Lungs

338
Q

35yr. old female has sudden, sharp, severe headache & becomes unconscious & unresponsive.
She is suspected to have?

A

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

339
Q

What is the BEST Method to use on LSD Pt.?

A

Talk down method

340
Q

Which of the following bites is most neurotoxins?

A

Coral Snake

Red to Yellow - kills a fellow / Red to Black - is a friend of jacks

341
Q

Patient with chest pain & back pain, with no pulses in extremities?

A

Dissecting Aorta

342
Q

What are some of the signs/symptoms expected to be seen in a pt. who has been giving Narcan?

A

Combative & Aggressive Behavior

343
Q

Definition of Status Epilecticus?

A

Seizure without gaining consciousness in between 2 or more
Episodes
(prolonged seizure) (remember - no break between Seizures, Don’t Intubate*)

344
Q

Petit mal seizures?

A

A type of seizure that involves brief, sudden lapses in attention.
Also in children
(many a day / may or may not lose consciousness)

345
Q

Guy playing baseball then DROPS, Swollen tongue & Lips?

A

Anaphylaxis

346
Q

Guy with Fever, SOB, productive cough, no edema?

A

Pneumonia

347
Q

Bilateral, Dilated Pupils indicate?

A

Cerebral Hypoxia

348
Q

What causes unequal pupils?

A

CNS Injury (neurological crisis)

349
Q

Best way to evaluate a behavioral emergency patient?

A

Away from crisis & cause

350
Q

Maternal blood volume increases how much?

A

40%

351
Q

A Pt. has one pupil that is dilated & non-reactive, while the other is slow to respond. This is a form of a?

A

Neurological Crisis

352
Q

WPW (Wolff-Parkinson-White) Syndrome ( Meds you cant give like Cardizem, why?

A

Because it will bypass the AV Node & the rapid Firing of the atrium will get to the ventricles & eventually will go into V-Fib
(WPW:extra electrical pathway in the heart causes a rapid heartbeat.

353
Q

Why would you SYNC a Pt. in SVT?

A

Because he is Hemodynamically Unstable

354
Q

Which is consider a peripheral vein?

A

The arms, hands, legs and feet

Not the veins in the chest or abdomen

355
Q

R on T Causes what?

A

V-FIB

356
Q

What do we NOT want to give a stroke Pt?

A 
Fluid Bolus
(*remember by doing so, you will increase BP causing ICP = No Bueno!*)
357
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

Stimulates the liver to change glycogen into sugar and secrete it into the blood stream for energy.

358
Q 
Which is not a vector of hepatitis ? 
blood
Saliva 
semen 
feces
A

Saliva

blood & semen = HEP B

359
Q

A Fecal or Orally Transmitted Disease is?

A

Hepatitis A

(viral) is fecal

360
Q

How does an elderly Pt. mask an MI?

A

They have a decreased sensation to pain

361
Q

Proper meds for CHF?

A

02 (CPAP), Morphine sulfate, lasix and Nitro

362
Q

Common finding w/ Cystitis (inflammation of bladder) is?

A

Urinary tract infection

363
Q

What kind of diabetes do you develop during Pregnancy?

A

Gestational

must be on insulin

364
Q

9 month pregnant patient w/ seizures?

A

Valium 2.5mg - 10mg (Slow IVP) or 5-10mg

365
Q

Valium = Ped:

Adult:

A

Ped: 0.2mg/kg
Adult: 5-10mg

366
Q

10 QRS complexes in a 6 sec strip would most likely indicate?

A

A Ventricular Rate

367
Q

Prolong P-R Interval?

A

1st Degree Block

368
Q

Normal Rhythm with no Pulses, what med do you give?

A

Epi

369
Q

Strip shown, the above strip represents? Sinus Bradycardia

NSR, Junctional Rhythm, 1st Degree heart Block – were the other answers

A

Strip shown, the above strip represents? Sinus Bradycardia

NSR, Junctional Rhythm, 1st Degree heart Block – were the other answers

370
Q

V-Tach shown how?

A

Wide, Bizarre QRS

371
Q

Most common route of poisoning?

A

Ingestion

372
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Mellaril, Trofranil, Elavil, Amytriptyline

TX-sodium bicarb

373
Q

Intrinsic Rate of the SA Node?

A

60-100 BPM

374
Q

Intrinsic Rate of the AV Node?

A

40 – 60 BPM

375
Q

Intrinsic rate of the Ventricles?

A

20-40 BPM

purkinje fibers

376
Q

Tourniquet does what?

A

Restrict Venous Blood Flow BUT Allows Arterial Blood Flow

377
Q

34 yr. old male appears Jaundiced with Sclera, No appetite, Lost 10 lbs. in 3 weeks, Nauseated, Generally Fatigued, Low fever, & Sudden distaste to cigarettes?

A

Viral Hepatits

378
Q

51 yr old. Farmer has cramps & diarrhea, this indicates?

A

Organophosphate Poisoning

379
Q

The Pharmacological TX of Anaphylactic Shock?

A

Epinephrine & Benadryl

380
Q

Endocrine system acts by?

A

Releasing hormones into the bloodstream

381
Q

Chicken Pox (Varicella), Measles, & Mumps are spread by?

A

Airborne Droplets (virus)

382
Q

Delirium Tremors can occur?

A

48 -72 hours after cessation of alcohol (ETOH)

383
Q

Patient says “I hear bells in my head”?

A

Aspirin OD

384
Q

22 y/o female, RLQ pain, radiating to right shoulder, no menses with spotting?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

385
Q

Define Cor Pulmonale?

A

Right sided heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease

386
Q

Acute Myocardial Infarction, what is the Treatment?

A

Morphine MONA – (O2,ASA,nitro,Morphine*)

387
Q

What are signs & symptoms of respiratory distress?

A

Nasal Flaring

388
Q

Most common error with AED use is?

A

Dead Batteries

389
Q

A situation that is indicated for the use of MAST Suit is a?

A

Ruptured, Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm, A pelvis fracture

inflate – left leg, right leg, ABD

390
Q

Which of these can lead to permanent Brain Damage if not corrected?

A

HYPOglycemia

391
Q

constricted pupils are most indicative of?

A 
Heroin Overdose
(dilated pupils may indicate amphetamine overdose)
392
Q

Addison Disease

A

Adrenal gland failure

adrenal glands do not produce enough of the hormone cortisol and in some cases, the hormone aldosterone

393
Q

UPPER GI hemorrhage?

A

Black tarry stool, vomiting blood or coffee ground

394
Q

Lower GI Bleed?

A

Bright red or wine color stool

395
Q

Adult GCS scenario = 13 (lowest 3 – highest 15)

A

Adult GCS scenario = 13 (lowest 3 – highest 15)

396
Q

What is correct about Nasogastric tube on intubation?

A

Bad Face Seal or gets in the way of intubating

397
Q

Complications of nasal gastric tube?

A

It makes intubations more difficult

398
Q

Suctioning the back of a child’s mouth can cause all of the following EXCEPT?

A

Dehydration

suction can stimulate the vagal nerve causing slower than normal heart rate

399
Q

Inter-facility transport Pt. receiving a blood transfusion & not feeling well?

A

Stop Transfusion

400
Q

NPA is used when?

A

Used on pt. with a intact gag reflex

401
Q

When Suctioning the Tracheotomy?

A

3 – 5 inches

402
Q

During Intubation you could stimulate the Vagus Nerve, what happens?

A

Bradycardia

403
Q

Aphasia is inability to?

A

Produce or Understand Speech

404
Q

Catecholamine’s causes?

A

increase Heart Rate, & Increase vasoconstriction

Catecholamines are hormones produced by the adrenal glands

405
Q

Increase in acid due to metabolism or vomiting, diarrhea, diabetes or meds?

A

Metabolic Acidosis

406
Q

External Jugular vein is NOT a?

A

Central Line

407
Q

Movement of fluid or molecules through a cell membrane against the concentration?

A

Active Transport

408
Q

Lowest APGAR Score?

A

0

highest 10

409
Q

When do you check (APGAR)?

A

1 & 5min after birth

410
Q

Which is part of APGAR?

A

Which is part of APGAR? Appearance

pulse, grimace, activity, respiration

411
Q

A baby is born, delivery finds it’s Body is Pink, Extremities are blue, Pulse120, Crying lustily while jerking arms legs. The APGAR score is?

A

9

412
Q

SIDS?

A

Below the age of 1 but most occur between 4-6 months, may have vomit or fluids from mouth/nose (unexpected death which is unexplained even after autopsy)
Place infants on back or side to sleep

413
Q

When you get OLD, you get Thirsty because?

A

Decrease in Bone Mass, skin turgor, & decrease in thermoregulation

414
Q

Which is NOT a characteristic problem in the OLD People?

A

Increased Thirst

415
Q

Neonate Pt. how much fluid replacement?

A

10ml/kg

416
Q

Pediatric assessment?

A

Toe to Head

417
Q

Laryngotracheobronchitis AKA Croup presents with?

A

Stridor

418
Q

All happens during the AGING Process EXCEPT?

A

Increase Thirst

419
Q

Rapport with geriatric Pt.?

A

Be professional, open stance, caring

be patient

420
Q

How would you approach a geriatric patient differently than a non-geriatric patient?

A

More formally With an open stance

421
Q

The #1 cause of trauma in elderly injuries?

A

The #1 cause of trauma in elderly injuries? Falls

In bathrooms/stairs

422
Q

Elderly Pt. output more than input causing?

A

Electrolyte Imbalance

423
Q

Child Abuse, what do you do?

A

Take child to hospital & document, report to authorities

424
Q

Old man urinates MORE than he puts in, due to what?

A

Dehydration/Electrolyte Imbalance

425
Q

Guy on Vent, how do you treat?

A

Remove from vent, suction trachea, o2 BVM

426
Q

Child with SOB, mother being hysterical & not letting you treat child, what would you do?

A

Try & talk to calm her down

427
Q

Most common seizures in children under the age of 6?

A

Febrile

rapid increase of temp.

428
Q

Where do you apply pressure when tubing a pediatric?

A

Larynx

429
Q

Landmark for IO in a 10kg infant?

A

2-3 inches (fingers) below the Tibial Tuberosity in medial aspect

430
Q

Diabetic Pt. with headache, Most important question to ask?

A

How long has he had the head ache

431
Q

Newborn treatment?

A

Dry, Warm, Suction, Stimulate

Do What Seems Sensible

432
Q

Umbilical Cord has?

A

2 Arteries, 1 Vein, Supplies to the fundus

433
Q

In a Criothyrotomy, the landmark used to determine the proper insertion location is?

A

The Depression just INFERIOR to the Adam’s Apple

434
Q

Pt. who are decontaminated in the warm zone, have how much threat to paramedics?

A

Little or no threat to medic

435
Q

Part of the Scene Size Up includes?

A

Number of Pt. on scene

436
Q

MCI, first crew on scene come upon Pt. in cardiac arrest?

A

continue triage to triage pt.s

437
Q

What do you check in the triage system?

A

Breathing, Circulation, & LOC
(32 can do)
(breathing under 30, cap refil less than 2 seconds, follows direction. if pt passes these test triage yellow. if not triage red)

438
Q

When triaging at MCI, the Highest Priority when treating?

A

Sucking Chest Wound

439
Q 
When prioritizing patients at an MCI, which one is LEAST important? 
AMS 
Airway compromise
arm & leg numbness
sucking chest wound
A

arm & leg numbness

440
Q

Last person treated in MCI

A

Spinal Injury

441
Q

The Incident Commander is in Charge of?

A

MCI

442
Q

Arrive on scene of an MCI where do you PARK yourself?

A

Staging area

wait for assignment

443
Q

Upon Arrival of a disaster scene, the patient who should receive the lowest priority
(of the following) is?

A.Mid sternal chest pain
B.2nd degree burn 20-30%
C.penetrating chest wound
D.3rd degree burns over 80% of the body

A

D.3rd degree burns over 80% of the body

pt. will die soon anyway

444
Q

In S.T.A.R.T system a patient breathing at 40bpm is consider a?

A

Critical Pt.

red

445
Q

At a crime scene, you have a Pt. that is viable, what do you do?

A

Treat the Patient, & cooperate with law
enforcement
(“DO NOT DISTURB THE SCENE”)

446
Q

Landing Zone for helicopter is?

A

100ft x 100ft

447
Q

All are Ignition Sources at a Hydrocarbon Spill, Except

A

Sealed Flashlight

448
Q

The Front windshield glass is made of

A

Laminated Safety Glass (use fire ax)

449
Q

In a MVA scene, what should you do first?

A

Stabilize scene, then car, then patient

Always put Safety First

450
Q

Assessment begins at?

A

Dispatch

451
Q

Pt. in MVA, while trying to gain access, what should you try first?

A

Door, Window, Body

try before you pry

452
Q

Arrive to an MVA, how should you disable the car battery?

A

Disconnect the BLACK (negative) First

don’t cut cables

453
Q

Arrive on scene and see a Burning Vehicle, park where?

A

100ft away uphill & upwind from hazmat scene

454
Q

At intersections, before proceeding you must?

A

Look Left first

obey all traffic laws

455
Q

What lane should you drive on your way to a call, why?

A

Left lane, so others can pull right

456
Q

An ambulance is called to a house fire. Upon entering the burning house, a paramedic finds an unconscious woman. He decides to mover her from the house using a fireman’s drag. The First step would be to?

A

Tie the patient’s hands together

457
Q

Definition of Multi System Trauma?

A

Pt. considered to have more than one injury

458
Q

Highest Level of protection of HAZMAT suits?

A

Highest Level is A
(then B,C,D)
(hot – scene; warm – decon; cold zones – treatment/transport)

459
Q

Most fatalities among rescuers occur in?

A

Confined Spaces

460
Q

The most major complication of a joint injury is?

A

Blood Vessel Damage (not nerve damage)

461
Q

The tool not to use to pull or roll a dashboard is?

A

A Pry Bar

462
Q

H’s

A

Hypovolemia Hypothermia
Hypoxia
Hydrogen Ion (acidosis) Hyper/Hypo kalemia

463
Q

T’s

A

Thromboemboli (pulmonary & coronary) Trauma
Tension pneumothorax
Tamponade, Cardiac
Toxins (overdose)

464
Q

STAGES OF LABOR

A
  1. Contractions & Dilationofthecervix
  2. Baby enters birthcanal until birth
  3. Birth to Delivery of the Placenta
465
Q

Transection above T1

A

Quadriplegia (tetraplegia) no use of upper/lower ext

466
Q

Transection below T1

A

Paraplegia, use of upper ext, but no use of lower ext

467
Q

Adult respirations and pulse

A

12-20

60-100

468
Q

Child respirations and pulse

A

18-30

65-110

469
Q

Infant/Newborn respirations and pulse

A

40-60

140-160

State test (11 decks)

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