Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 High Yield > Things I Can Nevr Remember > Flashcards

Things I Can Nevr Remember Flashcards

0
Q

What is the MOA of an acute transplant rejection?

A

Donor T cells are activated due to MHC incompatibilty?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

How quickly does an acute transplant rejection take to happen?

A

Weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the symptoms of GVHD?

A

Gradual loss of organ function: maculopapular rash, jaundice, LFTs, HSM, diarrhea,desquamation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the pathogenesis of chronic transplant rejection?

A

T cell and Ab mediated vascular damage –> fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Systolic flow murmur that does not change with preload
Wide pulse pressure
Brisk carotid upstroke

A

High output heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the defect in RTA 1?

A

Defect in the collecting tubule’s ability to secrete H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the associated features of RTA 1?

A

Urine Ph greater than 5.5
Hypokalemia
Increased risk for calcium phosphate kidney stones due to increased urine PH and bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the defect in RTA 2?

A

Defect is in the proximal tubule’s ability to reabsorb bicarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the associated features of RTA II?

A

Hypokalemia

Urine ph below 5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are people with RTA 2 at risk for?

A

Hypophosphatemic rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the defect in RTA 4?

A

Hypoaldosteronism or lack of collecting tubule response to hypoaldosteronism –> get hyperkalemia which impairs ammoniagenesis in the proximal tubule so you have decreased buffering capacity and decreased urine ph. (Less than 5.3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the complication with RTA I?

A

Nephrolithiasis with calcium phosphate kidney stones.

Phosphate is no longer being used to buffer because no acid being secreted, so binds calcium instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the complication with RTA II?

A

Rickets and osteomalacia due to hypophosphatemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the complication with RTA 4?

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drugs can cause RTA 1?

A

Lithium

Amphotericin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs can cause RTA 2?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What drugs can cause RTA 4?

A

Amiloride
Spironolactone
Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does pre renal AKI look like?

A

Urine sodium less than 20
BUN/Cr is increased (above 20 because of increased Aldo, increased absorption of Na and H2O so additional BUN in the blood because BUN follows water)
FeNa is less than 1% because normally you don’t want to excrete too much sodium. Tubules are still working
Urine osmolality is over 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does intrinsic renal failure look like?

A

Urine osmolality will be less than 350 (because cant concentrate the urine
Urine Na will be greater than 40 because cant reabsorb properly due to damaged tubules
FeNa will be greater than 2 %
BUN/Cr will be decreased (less than 15) because wasting everything

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does post renal AKI look like?

A

Urine osmolality will be decreased less than 350
Urine sodium will be greater than 40
FeNa will be greater than 2
All because back up is causing damage to the tubules so looks like intrinsic but BUN/Cr is above 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the sx of a nonhemolytic febrile rxn to a transfusion?

A

Fevers, chills, rigors, malaise 1-6 hours after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the tx of a nonhemolytic febrile transfusion rxn?

A

Stop the transfusion

Acetaminophen

22
Q

What is the mechanism behind a nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reaction?

A

Cytokine formation in storage

23
Q

What is the mech behind a minor allergic rxn to a transfusion?

A

Ab formation against other donor proteins

24
Q

What are the sx of minor allergic rxn to a transfusion?

A

Urticaria

25
Q

What is the tx of minor allergic rxn to a transfusion?

A

Antihistamines

26
Q

What is the mech of a hemolytic transfusion rxn?

A

Antibody formation after donor RBCS from ABO incompatibility or antigen mismatch

27
Q

What is the tx of a hemolytic transfusion rxn?

A

Stop the transfusion immediately

Give IVF and maintain good urine output

28
Q

What are the sx of a hemolytic transfusion rxn?

A

Fever, chills, nausea, flushing, burning at IV site, tachy, hypotension DURING or shortly after transfusion

29
Q

What is lentigo maligna?

A

Melanoma that arises in a lentigo on sun damaged skin of the face
Stays at the junction of dermis and epidermis and only grows radially

30
Q

What is supeficial spreading melanoma?

A

Most common type
Has a dominant radial growth
Affects younger adults
Presents on trunk in men and on legs in women

31
Q

What is nodular melanoma?

A

Rapid early vertical growth
Appear as reddish-brown nodule with ulceration or hemorrhage
Poor prog

32
Q

What is acral lentiginous melanoma?

A

Begins on the hands and feet in dark skimmed people.
Slowly spreading patch
Not related to UVB

33
Q

What does L4 do?

A

Motor: foot dorsiflexion (tibial is anterior)
Sensory: medial aspect of the lower leg

34
Q

What does L5 do?

A 
Motor: big toe dorsiflexion (extensor hallucis longus) 
Foot eversion (Peroneus) 
Sensory: dorsum of foot and lateral leg
35
Q

What does S1 do?

A

Motor: Plantar flexion, hip extension
Sensory: plantar and lateral foot

36
Q

What are normal right atrial pressures?

A

Between 4-6 mmHg

37
Q

What is a normal pulmonary artery pressure?

A

25/15 mmHg

38
Q

What is a normal PCWP?

A

6-12 mmHg

39
Q

What are the sx of transfusion related lung injury?

A

RDS and pulmonary edema

40
Q

What is the cause of transfusion related lung injury?

A

Donor antileukocyte abs

41
Q

What is an anaphylactic rxn to transfusion due to?

A

Recipient anti-IgA abs

42
Q

What is a primary hypotension reaction to a transfusion?

A

Transient hypotension within minutes of transfusion

43
Q

What causes primary hypotension reaction to transfusion?

A

Bradykinin in blood products (normally degraded by ACE)

44
Q

Who usually gets primary hypotension reaction?

A

People on ACEi

45
Q

How does bacterial sepsis from transfusions present?

A

Fever, chills, shock, DIC within minutes

46
Q

How do you treat anaphylactic rxns?

A

IM epi
Glucocorticoids
Antihistamines
Vasopressors and mechanical ventilation

47
Q

What should patients with IgA deficiency receive for blood products?

A

IgA deficient plasma and washed red cells

48
Q

What are the sx of a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Fever
Hemolytic anemia
2-10 days after transfusion

49
Q

What is a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction caused by?

A

Anamnestic Ab Response against minor RBCS antigen

50
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for acute hemolytic transfusion rxn?

A

Happens within a hour
Positive direct Coombs
Pink plasma
Hburia

51
Q

What is the tx for delayed hemolytic reaction?

A

None

52
Q

Low serum C3, lumpy bumpy appearance on EM, after a skin or throat infection

A

Post infectious GN

Step 2 High Yield (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions