Theme 10 L2: Soft tissue tumours Flashcards

1
Q

The following benign tumours arise from?:

  1. Lipoma
  2. Fibroma
  3. Leiomyoma
  4. Hemangioma
  5. Lymphangioma
  6. Neuroma
  7. Chondroma
A
  1. Fat tissue
  2. Fibrous tissue
  3. Smooth muscle
  4. Blood vessel
  5. Lymphatics
  6. Chondroma
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2
Q

Name 4 tumours associated with sarcomas

A
  1. Neurofibromatosis type 1 - neurofibroma
  2. Gardner syndrome - fibromatosis
  3. Carney syndrome - myxoma, melanotic schwannoma
  4. Turner syndrome
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3
Q

What is a benign mixed bone tumour?

A

osteochondroma

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4
Q

What is an osteosarcoma, who gets it and what is the commonest site?

A
  • osteosarcoma
  • young age
  • commonest site is around the knee
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5
Q

Which malignant tumours commonly metastasise to bone?

A

thyroid, prostate, kidney, breast and GI tract

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6
Q

What is CREST syndrome?

A
  • calcinosis (calcium deposits in any soft tissue)
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon
  • oesophageal dysfunction
  • sclerodactyly (fingers turning inwards)
  • telangiectasia
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7
Q

What is polymyalgia rheumaica?

A

stiffness, weakness, aching and pain in the muscles of the neck, limb girdles and upper limbs
-associated with giant cell arteritis

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8
Q

What is the difference between myopathy and myositis?

A

Myopathy - muscle disease unrelated to any disorder of innervation or neuromuscular junction
Myositis - muscle fibres and overlying skin are inflamed and damaged resulting in muscle weakness

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9
Q

What is muscular dystrophy?

A
  • heterogenous group
  • inherited disorders
  • progressively severe muscle weakness and wasting
  • begins in childhood
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10
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A

inherited disease -

fast rise in body temperature and severe muscle contraction when the affected person gets GA

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11
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?

A
  • Bleeding
  • Dark brown urine
  • Muscle rigidity
  • Quick rise in body temperature to 105 degree F or higher
  • Discovered during anaesthesia
  • May have family history
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12
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A
  • destruction of skeletal muscle
  • release of muscle fibre content in the blood (myoglobin)
  • get myoglobinuria (brown urine)
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13
Q

What are the causes of rhabdomyolysis?

A
  • Trauma, crush injuries
  • Drugs – cocaine, amphetamine
  • Extreme temperature
  • Severe exertion – marathon running
  • Lengthy surgery
  • Severe dehydration
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14
Q

What is arthritides?

A
  • pain and stiffness of a joint

- inflammation of the joint

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15
Q

What is the commonest type of skin disease?

A

osteoarthritis

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16
Q

What are the clinical features of osteoarthritis?

A
  • progressive erosion of articular cartilage
  • results in the formation of bony spurs and cysts at the margins of joints
  • results in pain and limitation of movements
17
Q

What is the cellular basis of OA?

A

Chondrocytes

18
Q

What are the features of primary OA?

A
  • abnormal stresses in weight bearing joints
  • affecting fingers, knees and cervical/ lumbar spines
  • involvement of fingers - herberdens or bouchards nodes
19
Q

What are the features of RA?

A
  • Chronic systemic disorder – principally affecting the joints
  • Producing a non suppurative proliferative synovitis – destruction of articular cartilage and ankylosis of joints
  • Also affects skin, muscle, heart, lungs and blood vessels
  • Women 3-5x more than men
20
Q

What are the clinical features of RA?

A
  • malaise, fatigue and generalised MS pain to start of
  • involved joints are swollen, warm, painful and stiff in the morning
  • slow or rapid disease course
  • small joints of the hands and feet are frequently affected
21
Q

Which genes are involved in susceptibility to RA?

A

DR4 and DR1

22
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosis of RA?

A
  1. Morning stiffness
  2. Arthritis in 3 or more joint areas
  3. Arthritis of hand joints
  4. Symmetric arthritis
  5. Rheumatoid nodules
  6. Serum rheumatoid factor

4 of the above criteria

23
Q

What are the typical radiographic changes in RA?

A

Narrowing of joint space, loss of articular cartilage

24
Q

How do we diagnose RA?

A
  1. Rheumatoid factor - present in most patients but not all patients, less specific
  2. Analysis of synovial fluid - confirms presence of neutrophils - inflammatory picture
25
Q

What other systems are involved in RA?

A

Skin - rheumatoid nodules - commonest cutaneous manifestation
-lung, spleen, heart, other viscera

26
Q

What is sero-negative arthritides?

A

lack rheumatoid factor

27
Q

Which arthritis are sero-negative?

A
  1. Ankylosing spondylitis
  2. Reiter’s syndrome
  3. Psoriatic arthritis
  4. Enteropathic arthritis
28
Q

What is gout?

A
  • end point of a group of disorders producing hyperuricemia

- deficiency of enzymes involved

29
Q

What are the clinical features of gout?

A
  • acute/chronic arthritis
  • tophi
  • gouty nephropathy
  • transient attacks of acute arthritis
30
Q

What is pyogenic osteomyelitis?

A
  • systemic illness - fever, malaise, chills and marked pain over affected region
  • caused by bacteria
  • haematogenous spread
31
Q

What is infective arthritis?

A
  • acutely painful and swollen joints with restricted movements
  • fever, leucocytosis and elevated ESR
  • bacterial
32
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A
  • increased porosity of the skeleton
  • reduction in bone mass
  • localised or entire skeleton
33
Q

What are the clinical features of osteoporosis?

A
  • vertebral fractures
  • kyphosis
  • scoliosis
34
Q

Which disease results from osteoclast dysfunction?

A

Paget’s disease

35
Q

What are the features of Pagets disease?

A
  • M>F
  • begins in 5th decade
  • pain most common symptom
  • tumours are benign and malignant
36
Q

What is osteopenia?

A

too little bone / decreased bone density

37
Q

What is osteomalacia a result of?

A

lack of vitD

38
Q

What is the net effect of hyperparathyroidism?

A

increased bone resorption and calcium mobilisation from the skeleton –> hypercalcaemia