The "ologies" Flashcards

1
Q

During a neurological examination, what does the panniculus reflex indicate?

A

Integrity of the spinal cord between the site of stimulation and the C8-T1 spinal cord segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The cervical intumescence, which is the origin of the lower motor neurons for the thoracic limbs, contains which spinal cord segments?

A

C6-T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Are Paramyxoviridae RNA or DNA viruses?

A

RNA viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common side-effect of azathioprine in cats, which makes it contraindicated in this species?

A

Myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary source of coccidiosis infections in nursing puppies?

A

Environmental contamination with oocysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In dogs and cats, which one of the following is higher in concentration in urine than plasma? Amino acids, chloride or phosphate?

A

Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does metabolic alkalosis predispose cows to subclinical hypocalcemia and milk fever?

A

Blunts the response to parathyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Infarction of tissues is characterized by which type of necrosis?

A

Coagulation necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mechanism of toxicity of strychnine?

A

It interferes with the release of glycine from the interneurons in the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pancheco’s disease is causes by a virus of which class?

A

Herpesvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An adult dog has peritoneal effusion
Centesis reveals a thick, opaque white fluid with metacestodes evident microscopically
What is the caustice organism?

A

Mesocestoides spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A normally hydrated dog with a right to left shunting VSD also has a high HCT, a low PCO2 level and high Epo level. Which type of erythrocytosis is this?

A

Absolute secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or false: in the dog, the site of greatest absorption of water in the GI tract is the large intestine/colon

A

False
It is the jejunum
Common error: most of what the colon absorbs is water but less total volume than ileum or jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Other than GI and adrenal effects, ketoconazole is recognized to have toxic potential involving which important organ?

A

Liver

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

by which mechanism do fluoroquinolones exert their antibacterial action? Does this result in a bacteriostatic or bactericidal effect?

A

inhibition of DNA gyrase (bacterial topoisomerase-III)

inhibition is bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name 3 effects of atropine

A
mydriasis
decreased GI motility
decrease saliva production
tachycardia
decreased lacrimation
decreased vomiting
decreased urination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The resorptive capacity of proximal renal tubules is exceeded when the blood glucose concentration surpasses which value (renal threshold) in the horse or dog?

A

180 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

a dog with pulmonary lesions also has extensive periosteal reaction and proliferation of both humeri. What is this condition called?

A

Hypertrophic osteopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium levels by acting on which organ system?

A

GI-increased Ca absorption
renal-decreased Ca excretion
bone-increased osteoclastic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

by which mechanism does ethanol prevent ethylene glycol toxicosis?

A

competitive inhibition
endogenous alcohol dehydrogenase would normally convert ingested ethylene glycol to glycoaldehyde (leading to oxalate formation and renal failure)
alcohol dehydrogenase has a greater affinity for ethanol than ethylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which effect does acidosis have on ionized calcium concentrations?

A

mild increase.
acidosis decreases plasma-protein-binding affinity for calcium, creating a mild physiologic hypercalcemia
alkalosis has the opposite effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can you explain that an animal with ketonuria has a negative ketones result on urine dipstick?

A

high levels of beta-hydroxybutyrate

urine dipstick squares react to acetoacetate, but not beta-hydroxybutyrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which 2 toxins are produced by Bacillus anthracis are the most important in the production of the disease?

A

lethal toxin

edema toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the intermediate host of Paragonium kellicotti?

A

snails and crawfish
ingestion of these Paragonimus bearing intermediate hosts can cause respiratory disease due to cyst formation in the respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which parasitic infestation in a dog can cause pseduo-hypoadrenocorticism?
Infection with whipworm (Trichuris vulpis) can cause hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
26
Which gene mutation is responsible for susceptibility to ivermectin toxicosis in Collies?
MDR-1 gene (multiple drug resistance gene, which codes for P-glycoprotein)
27
An active, roaming dog develops acute liver failure 6 hours after swimming in stagnant water. What is the likely cause?
Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) toxicosis
28
During a neuro exam, where is a spinal lesion likely to be if there is pathologically increased resistance to bladder outflow?
Upper motor neuron lesion cranial to the sacral spinal cord segments (L7 or cranial to it), causing increased urethral sphincter tone
29
With the respiratory sinus arrhythmia, does the heart rate decrease or increase during expiration?
decrease | greater intrathoracic pressure during expiration-->increase pressure on vagus nerve-->slower heart rate
30
Chagas' disease is caused by which protozoal parasite, carried by which vector?
Trypanosoma cruzi, transmitted by triatomin bugs
31
What is the major route of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii to both the definitive host and humans?
ingestion of tissue cysts | containing bradyzoites
32
Name 2 tick genera that transmit Babesia spp to dogs
Rhipicephalus Haemaphysalis Dermacentor
33
What is the causative agent of "glanders" in horses?
Burkholderia mallei
34
Muscle contract occurs due to calcium release into the sacroplasm, where calcium binds with _____, allowing the connection of actin to mysin
troponin/tropomyosin complex | troponin C
35
Which mechanism of skin disease of small animals is typically responsible for lesions on the nasal planum, pinnae and foot pads?
Immune-mediated skin disease
36
There are at least 4 indications for the use of antimicrobial combinations instead of antibiotic monotherapy. Name 2
Superior efficacy in serious infections polymicrobial infections/broad-spectrum coverage prevention of emergence of resistance to 1 drug lower risk of toxicity
37
Which adverse effect involving the urinary tract can the anti-neoplastic drug cyclophosphamide cause?
Sterile Hemorrhagic cystitis | cause by the drug metabolite acrolein
38
ingestion of a tall grass by cattle cause cause toxicosis manifesting as lameness and ultimately dry necrosis of extremities. Which type of grass is responsible for this disorder?
Fescue grass
39
Cardiac muscle is derived from which embryonic cell line?
neural crest
40
``` Which of the following abx is the only one with good penetration into the CSF? Gentamicin TMS Tetracycline cephalothin ```
TMS
41
If a blood vessel's radius doubles, by how much will flow increase if all the other parameters (pressure difference between ends of the vessels, viscosity, etc) remain the same?
16 fold Poiseuille's law flow increases to the fourth power of the increase in radius
42
What are the components of feline "triaditis"?
Cholangiohepatitis pancreatitis IBD
43
Taylorella equigenitalis causes which disease?
Contagious equine metritis (CEM)
44
In which type of cell death are cellular skrinage and condenses chromatin initial features?
apoptosis
45
Which 2 classes of drugs most commonly account for pharmacologically-indcued diffuse splenomegaly in dogs?
Phenothiazines | barbiturates
46
Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is degraded to acetyl CoA int he mitochondrion. To what molecule is pyruvate converted instead (in the cytosol) under anaerobic conditions?
Lactate
47
Atrophic rhinitis in pigs has 2 causative agents. What are they?
Pasteurella multocida | Bordetella bronchiseptica
48
Which viral etiologic agent is associated with pneumonia, mastitis, arthritis and wasting in sheep?
Maedi-visna virus | Ovine progressive pneumonia
49
What are the function and mechanism of action of cyclosporine?
Immune suppressant | T-Cell inhibition
50
What is the antidote for organophosphate insecticide intoxication?
Atropine and/or pralidoxime (2-PAM)
51
Which will produce fewer false-negatives: a test with high specificity or a test with high sensitivity?
High Sensitivity High sensitivity tests are ideal for screening high specificity tests are ideal for confirmation
52
Glucocorticoid-induced hepatocellular degeneration is a specific disorder characterized by an excessive hepatic accumulation of _______?
Glycogen
53
Which organ systems are affect in aminoglycoside toxicity?
Renal | Auditory (inner ear)
54
Which bacterium is involved in most purulent infections of traumatic or opportunistic origin in cattle?
Trueperella pyogenes (formerly known as Arcanobacterium pyogenes)
55
Upper motor neuron signs in both the thoracic and pelvic limbs localize a neurological lesion to which segments of the spinal cord?
C1-C5
56
What are the classical histologic findings in the liver with pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity?
Megalocytosis fibrosis biliary duct hyperplasia
57
What is the most common reason that a cat with lymphoma develops dyspnea?
formation of a mediastinal mass, which can either cause pleural effusion reducing the volume of pulmonary parenchyma or the space occupying mass compressing the pulmonary parenchyma and airways.
58
A dog presents to your clinic for coughing and fever a week after going hunting. You work the dog up, perform bronchoscopy and remove a plant awn from the lungs. What bacterial infection is this dog predisposed to?
Actinomyces filamentous, branching, gram positive bacteria that is a normal inhabitant of the mouth and oropharynx. commonly associated with grass awn migration. usually contaminated in the oropharynx and then migrate through the body from the respiratory or GI tracts. takes months to years to make a diagnosis.
59
Which of the following is a classic brain lesion seen with listeriosis?
microabscesses
60
PSS in dogs can be associated with which change in erythrocytes: Heinz bodies, basophilic stippling, or microcytosis?
microcytosis
61
White focal plaques on the cotyledons of sheep and goats are suggestive of which abortifacient agent?
toxoplasma gondii
62
Horses that ingest plants containing pyrrolizidine alkaloids may develop toxicosis involving which organ system?
hepatobiliary
63
Which hematological changes are typical for acute disease associated with Ehrlichia canis infection?
variable degress of thrombocytopenia +/-leukopenia +/- anemia
64
What is the vector for bluetongue virus?
Culicoides spp | midges
65
Which domestic ungulate species does not develop clinical disease due to foot and mouth disease virus?
the horse
66
intestinal ulceration is common in severe mast cell neoplasia. Which substance do mast cells secrete that binds to parietal cells and which substance do the parietal cells then secrete?
histamine | hydrochloric acid
67
The causative agent of Lyme disease is
Borrelia burgdorferi
68
in dogs, this superficial burrowing skin mite causes a nonseasonal intense pruritus initially around less-haired skin, such as the hocks, elbows and pinnal margins
Sarcoptes scabiei
69
What is the key feature of all cell types primarily targeted by paroviruses?
mitotically active cells (eg enterocytes, blood cell precursors in the marrow)
70
What is the mechanism of action of lactulose, by which it helps prevent hepatic encephalopathy?
traps ammonia in the colon, reducing it to ammonium | excreted in feces rather than diffusing through colon wall and circulating systemically, causing encephalopathic effects
71
Are leptospirae gram positive or gram negative bacteria?
gram negative
72
Name 2 classes of abx that have superior penetration of prostatic tissue
``` Fluoroquinolones potentiated sulfas +/-macrolide (erythromycin) +/- lincosamide (clindamycin) +/-chloramphenicol ```
73
A lamb is stillborn, with grotesque deformations including cyclopia. Which toxic plant was likely consumed by the ewe during gestation?
Veratrum (skunk cabbage)
74
Adenocarcinoma of which organ has been associated with a paraneoplastic alopecia in cats?
the pancreas | the glistening appearance of the skin is responsible for the colloquial term for this disorder "shiny cat disease"
75
Which class of bacteria is grouped by Lancefield serologic classification?
Streptococci