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NAVLE study Questions > Large Animal > Flashcards

Large Animal Flashcards

1
Q

Which hormone lengthens diestrus in the bovine?

A

Progesterone

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2
Q

You examine a pregnant mare at 15 days gestation and identify twins; you manually crush one via rectal palpation. What are 2 reasons for doing this?

A

Twin pregnancies can often terminate 1) early fetal resorption or loss 2) late tern abortions or 3) birth of small growth retarded foals. Mares aborting twins in late gestation frequently have foaling difficulties and can be difficult to rebreed

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3
Q

What is the pathologic mechanism of persistent infection with bovine viral diarrhea virus?

A

Animals become persistently infected with BVDV if the fetus is exposed to the virus before development of the immune system. This results in immune tolerance as the virus is recognized as “self”

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4
Q

Regarding pregnancy failure in pigs, most infections resulting in mummification occur in what gestational age range?

A

Between 35-70 days of gestation

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5
Q

What are 3 recognized tx that may be used for converting atrial fibrillation to normal sinus rhythm in horses?

A

Quinidine

Quinidine plus digoxin

Electrical defibrillation/conversion

Benign neglect

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6
Q

which production animal species is most susceptible to copper poisoning?

A

sheep

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7
Q

The sow and mare have which type of placentation?

A

Diffuse

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8
Q

what is a characteristic finding of the erythrocytes of normal camelids?

A

elliptical shaped

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9
Q

hypoventilation in a horse under GA can produce which type of acid/base disturabance?

A

uncompensated respiratory acidosis

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11
Q

a functional corpus luteum is lysed by which hormone normally produced by th endometrium?

A

PGF-2a

Prostaglandin F 2 alpha

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12
Q

an older horse is diagnosed with a diastolic, decrescendo mrumur on the left side during routine physical exam. What is the most likely etiology?

A

aortic insufficiency/aortic regurgitation

age related

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13
Q

Severe pruritis, persistent rubbing resulting in wool loss, and impaired locomotion are classic clinical signs of which disease of sheep?

A

scrapie

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14
Q

at which stage of gestation would an infection with BVDV likely produce a PI animal?

A

45-125 days

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15
Q

What is distinctive about the macroscopic appearance of female Haemonchus worms?

A

a “barber pole” appearance

intertwined uterus and intestine

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16
Q

a horse with deciduous incisors can be said to be less than what age?

A

2.5 years

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17
Q

which etiologic agent is associated with caseous necrotic lesions in the lymph nodes or visceral organs of small ruminants?

A

corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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18
Q

which clinical sign of Horner’s syndrome differentiates horses from cattle?

A

horses sweat-ipsilateral to the affected side

cattle do not

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19
Q

which two organisms are required for the completion of the life cycle of Parelaphostrongylus tenuis?

A

deer and snail

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20
Q

describe the typical acid/base and electrolyte disturbances that characterize a long-standing abomasal outflow obstruction in a cow

A

hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

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21
Q

What is the cause of mulberry heart disease in pigs?

A

Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency

22
Q

Mares with which blood group characteristics are at risk for producing a foal with neonatal isoerythrlysis?

A

Mares that are negative for either or both the Aa and Qa antigens

23
Q

crias are born enveloped in an extrafetal epidrmal membrane. What are its function?

A

provides lubrication during delivery

keep them dry at birth (an evolutionary advantage for neonates in colder, high-altitue climates)

24
Q

Name the porcine giant kidney worm

A

stephanuris dentatus

25
Q

muscle stiffness and tremor, trismus and prolapse of the third eyelid are classic clinical findings for which neurological disease of large animals?

A

tetanus

26
Q

is a right flank omentopexy suitable for treating a left-sided abomasal displacement, a right-sided abomasal displacement or both?

A

both

27
Q

Aujeszky’s disease of swine causes which reportable disease of ruminants?

A

Pseudorabies

28
Q

Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome (PRRS) manifests with which 2 main signs on a herd level?

A

breeding losses and respiratory disease

29
Q

What is hte most important differential for duodenitis-proximal jejunitis in horses?

A

small bowel obstruction

30
Q

What is the major problem associated with prophylactic use of penicillin in horses exposed to Streptococcus equi but not showing clinical signs?

A

horses are highly susceptible to disease following discontinuation of therapy

31
Q

Which 2 organ systems are affected when horses sustain toxicosis by ingesting red maple leaves?

A

RBC lysis leading to pigment nephropathy/renal failure

32
Q

What are the 2 synergistically-acting causative agents of footrot in cattle?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum and Bacteriodes melaninogenicus

33
Q

in ruminants, the ____________ is the major target organ in immediate, type-1 hypersensitivity reactions

A

Lungs

34
Q

What are the radiographic signs of chronic laminitis in the horse?

A

Rotation and/or vertical displacement (sinking) of P3 from the hoof wall

thin sole

pathologic P3 fx

35
Q

which nerve deficits to the head can occur as a result of guttural pouch mycosis in horses?

A

Laryngeal paralysis (x)

dysphagia (IX, X)

facial nerve paralysis (VII)

Horner’s syndrome (sympathetic fibers)

36
Q

Which disorder is commonly referred as white heifer disease?

A

Segmental aplasia of the genital tract

occurs spontaneously in all cattle breeds

in most cases, the ovaries, uterine tube and cranial part of the uterine horns are normal, but the normal drainage of the endometrial secretions through the cervix is impeded, commonly by an intact hymen

37
Q

Which infectious organism commonly causes epizootic abortion in the second half of gestion in sheep?

A

Campylobacter spp.

38
Q

What is the causative agent of classical swine fever?

A

hog cholera virus

39
Q

Caudal epidural anesthesia in a cow is administered via which intervertebral space?

A

the sacrococcygeal space (between S5, Cd1)

40
Q

What is the most common skin tumor of cattle?

A

papillomas

caused by bovine papillomavirus

41
Q

Which congenital defect is linked to polled gene in goats?

A

Intersexuality

42
Q

Necrotic larygnitis (or calf diphtheria) is caused by the invasion of which bacteria into the cartilage of the larynx?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

43
Q

Which common cause of anemia exclusive to camelids can be routinely diagnosed with a blood smear?

A

Eperhthrozoonosis

Mycoplasma haemolamae

44
Q

An outbreak of disease characterized by high fever, moderate anorexia, recumbency and reddening of the skin is affecting almost all the pigs on the hog farm. The farmer recently traveled to South Africa. Most likely diagnosis?

A

African Swine Fever

45
Q

in a feedlot, which component of the diet is generally overfed if cattle are developing frothy bloat?

A

concentrate

46
Q

During the carrier state, equine viral arteritis virus is solely present in which organ system?

A

the reproductive tract

47
Q

Which equine herpesvirus infection is commonly restricted to the respiratory tract?

A

Equine herpesvirus-4

48
Q

Which muscle disorder of horses is associated with an abnormal glucose metabolism and increased insulin sensitivity?

A

Polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM)

49
Q

Which syndrome in cattle is characterized by hemoptysis, results from ruminitis with subsequent development of liver abscesses?

A

Caudal vena cava syndrome

50
Q

Floppy ears and failure of the incisor teeth to erupt are an indication of which disorder in newborn crias?

A

prematurity

51
Q

Expiratory wheezes are a hallmark of which one of the following respiratory diseases of horses?

laryngeal hemiplegia

inflammatory airway disease

recurrent airway obstruction

A

Recurrent airway obstruction

52
Q

Which gram negatve organism is the most common cause of infection in large animal neonates?

A

E. coli

NAVLE study Questions (7 decks)

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