Random Flashcards
Name the 4 stages involved in the healing process of a skin graft
1) adherence-starts within the first 8 hours post-op
2) plasmatic imbibition-maximum about 48-72 hours after grafting
3) inosculation
4) penetration and ingrowth of new blood vessels
Which specific blood vessels is the most common type of congenital portosystemic shunt in the dog? And in the cat?
Dog: persistent ductus venosus
Cat: left gastric vein
Butorphanol administered to horses, loperamide administered to cats and acepromazine administered to dogs, all may cause which type of adverse effect?
Profound excitement/CNS stimulation
Name 3 types of transfusion reactions
1) anaphylactic
2) acute hemolytic-pre-existing anti-erythrocyte abs in recipient
3) delayed hemolytic-development of anti-erythrocyte abs over time
4) febrile/bacterial contaminant
5) volume overload
6) citrate toxicosis
7) in vitro hemolytic
8) infectious disease from donor
Name 4 conditions that predispose a small animal patient to pulmonary thromboembolism
Angiostrongyliasis Corticosteroids-exogenous or endogenous Dirofilarsis DIC Heart disease-right atrial enlargement, endocarditis IMHA indwelling central venous catheter Pancreatitis PLE renal disease-amyloidosis, glomerulonephritis Septicemia Trauma
Pharmacologic agents used for delaying parturition are called:
Tocolytics
What is the preferred method for preventing leishmaniasis?
Avoidance of exposure to the vector, the sand fly
No vaccine available
With respect to hair rubbing against the surface of the cornea: what is the difference between ectopic cilia, distichiasis and trichiasis?
Ectopic cilia: aberrant individual eyelashes arising from meibomian glands and growing through the conjunctiva towards the globe
Distichiasis: presence of an additional row of eyelashes on the eyelid margin, in addition to the normal lashes
Triachiasis: normal facial hair that rubs on the conjunctival or cornea
What is a leiomyosarcoma? What is its best recognized paraneoplastic syndrome?
A malignant tumor of the smooth muscle origin
Hypoglycemia
What is the meaning of myelophthisic disease?
Disease characteried by bone marrow obliteration/replacement with nonmarrow tissue
Which renal syndrome causes renal tubular acidosis, primary urinary loss of glucose, amino acids and phosphate?
Fanconi syndrome
How does the toxin of Clostridium tetani cause disinhibition of the extensor motor neurons?
It inteferes with interneuronal release of inhibitor NTs glycine (SC) and GABA (brainstem)
what would you give as an antidote to a patient with carbamate intoxication?
Atropine
the trapezius muscle is innervated by which nerve?
Accessory nerve (Cranial nerve XI)-dorsal branch
What is a tension pneumothorax?
Air in the pleural space, where air continues to enter the pleural space but cannot exit
“one-way valve” effect of lesion causing pneumothorax
What is the ECG characteristic that defines first-degree AV block?
prolonged PR interval
Streptococci are divided into 3 types based on hemolysis patterns when grown on blood agar plates (alpha-, beta-, and gamma- hemolytic). In which of these 3 categories are most of the pathogenic streptococci?
beta-hemolytic
The total lung capacity consists of?
inspiratory reserve volume
expiratory reserve volume
residual volume
tidal volume
Two of these gastric acid-reducing drugs also have GI promotility effects. Which ones? Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine
ranitidine
nizatidine
the blood supply to the cow’s udder comes primarily from which artery?
external pudendal artery
Which synthetic absorbable suture material retains tensile strength for the longest period of time?
Polydioxanone (PDS)
Polyglycolic acid
Silk
polydioxanone (PDS)
Tissue transplanted from one site to another in the same patient is called an______?
autograft
A patient has a HCT of 78%. Which one is correct?
A) the risk of TE is decreased
B) Heart murmur is likely due to hypervicosity
C) renal neoplasm is an important DDx
d) Epo is the best treatment
C) renal neoplasm is an important DDx
Suture material with which characteristics should be used in infected wounds?
Sterile mono-filament absorbable (PDS or Maxon) to reduce risk of persistant infection
How is a comminuted fracture defined?
it has 2 or more fracture lines
can range from three-piece fx to highly comminuted fx with 5 or more pieces
Which product accumulates in stored blood that makes the blood unsuitable for use in patients with hepatic encephalopathy?
ammonium
What is glargine?
a long-acting insulin analog and an excellent choice for treating diabetic cats
The coagulation factors are numbered from I to XIII. However, there are only 12. Which factor does not exist?
Factor VI (6)
The “round ligament of the liver” is a remnant of which fetal structure?
umbilical vein
Which protozoal parasite commonly harbored by cats can be linked to infection in the California sea otter?
Toxoplasma gondii
What is the toxin that causes tick paralysis?
Salivary neurotoxin
produced by the gravid females of certain tick species
What is the common name for mandibular osteomyelitis of llamas caused by Actinomyces?
Lumpy jaw
“Collie nose” is a common name for which dermatologic condition?
Discoid lupus erythematous
In the bovine, the “pin bone” refers to which anatomic structure?
Ischiatic tuberosity
The optimal therapeutic regimen for rhodococcal pneumnonia in foals consists of treatment with which antimicrobials?
macrolide (azithromycin, erythromycin, clarithromycin) and Rifampin
in neurology, what is meant by the term “root signature”?
lameness and pain resulting from reduced sensation in a nerve root or sensory nerve of the cervical or lumbosacral intumescence.
usually is a result of nerve compression
Which fetal disorder may result from in utero infectiosn with feline panleukopenia virus in cats or BVDV in cattle?
cerebellar dysfunction/hypoplasia
Does an animal with paresis, hyperreflexia and disuse atrophy that is mild and slow to develop have upper or lower motor neuron disease of the affected area?
upper motor neuron disease
When administering IV fluid that contain supplemental KCl, the rate of K infusion should not exceed:
0.5 mEq/kg/hr
What are the major hemostatis alterations seen in advanced cases of DIC?
Thrombocytopenia (TCP)
prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
increased fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs)
decreased fibrinogen and antithrombin III
The menace test assess which cranial nerves?
CN II-optic
CN VII-facial
Closure of which 2 structures is responsible for the second heart sound?
The 2 semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic)
What is the vector for WNV?
the mosquito (Culex spp)
The term “trigone” refers to an anatomic region of which organ?
urinary bladder
this disease causes flaccid paralysis and results from a toxin blocking the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
botulism
This zoonotic, Gram-positive rod can cause cutaneous lesions and fatal systemic illness, and necropsy of affected animals is discouraged to avoid release of infective spores.
Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
This drug can be given by SQ injection to a female 5 minutes before neonates are allowed to suckle to encourage milk letdown following caesarean section
oxytocin
Which one of following cyanotic disorders should not respond to oxygen supplementation? Pneumonia Pulmomary edema right-to-left cardiac shunt pulmonary contusion pulmonary hemorrhage
right-to-left cardiac shunt
bypasses lungs
Is a peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia (PPDH) more likely to be congenital or acquired?
congenital always
developmental failure of separation of pericardial and peritoneal cavities
Which are the vitamin K dependent clotting factors?
Factors II, VII, IX, X (2, 7, 9, 10)
2 for 10.97
Which paired vessel can safely be ligated bilaterally to stop bleeding in patients with intractable epistaxis?
common carotid arteries
vertebral arteries provide collateral supply to the head
the cubital lymph node is normally palpable in which species of domestic animal?
horse
What is flail chest?
A segment of the chest wall created by >2 fx of >2 adjacent ribs.
The segment paradoxically moves into the chest during inspiration and outward during expiration
What is the timing of the murmur caused by aortic valve insufficiency?
diastolic
With respect to respiratory sounds, what is the difference between stertor and stridor?
Stertor-deep guttural sound caused by vibration of the pharnyx (ie snoring) such as occurs in horses with dorsal displacement of the soft palate. URT
stridor-inspiratory stenotic whistle-like sound, such as occurs with decreased larygneal diameter from edema or mass LRT
Which 2 zones of the adrenal cortex are prefentially destroyed by mitotane (o,p’DDD)?
zona fasciculata and zona reticularis
Guttural pouch infection may result in severe hemorrhage due to damage of which artery?
internal carotid
Which hormone does a corpus luteum produce?
progesterone
Pericardial effusion can cause an ECG pattern where every other QRS complex is shorter. What is the name of this finding?
electrical alternans
Which components of the eye make up the uvea?
choroid
ciliary body
iris
What are the 2 components of the intervertebral disk?
nucleus pulposus
annulus fibrosus
Where in the body is the greater trochanter found?
on the proximal femur, lateral to the femoral head
When observing for symmetry of facial expression in the dog, you are mainly assessing the status of which cranial nerve?
facial nerve CN VII (7)
intussusceptum, intussuscipiens: which is on the inside and which is on the outside?
intussusceptum is surrounded by the intussuscipiens
Which nerve and associated spinal cord segments does the patellar reflex test?
Femoral nerve
spinal segments L4-L6
What is contained within the cytoplasmic granules of mast cell tumors that increase the likelihood of bleeding?
heparin
What are the 4 components of the tetralogy of Fallot?
ventricular septal defect
dextroaorta
pulmonic stenosis
right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
Which effect is excessive estrogen classically described as having on the bone marrow
pancytopenia
aplastic anemia
Which parasite of white-tailed deer causes neurologic deficits as a result of larval migration in camelids as aberrant hosts?
Parelaphostrongylus tenuis
in rabies, what is the incubation period, and once clinical signs are apparent, what is the patient’s expected survival time?
Incubation: up to 6 months
maximal survival after onset of signs: 10 days
Which medication increases detrusor muscle contractility? what is its main CI?
Bethanechol
CI: urethral obstruction
Do large breed dogs tend to have larger litter sizes, smaller litter sizes, or roughly the same litter size as small breed dogs?
larger
small breeds typically have 1-4 pups/litter
large breeds typically have 8-12 pups/litter
Typhilitis is inflammation of which organ?
the cecum
What are the major inhibitors of parathyroid hormone (PTH) synthesis and secretion?
increased calcium
increased vitamin D3
After leaving the heart, the aorta and pulmonary trunk are connected by which distinct structure in a normal adult?
ligamentum arteriosus
the embryonic remnant of the ductus arteriosus
A patient showing high-pitched inspiratory stridor and inspiratory dyspnea. Is this more likely due to an obstruction of the glottis or pulmonary parenchymal disease?
obstruction of the glottis (or any upper airway obstruction)
pulmonary parenchymal disease rarely if ever produces abnormal noise and dyspnea that are only inspiratory
What is the significance of pitting edema (as opposed to nonpitting)?
intercellular fluid excess
nonpitting occurs with intracellular fluid excess (eg wheal)
In dermatology, what is the difference between a papule and macule?
a papule is a small, solid elevation of the skin up to 1 cm in diameter
macule is a circumscribed, nonpalpable spot of skin pigmentation up to 1 cm in diameter (freckle)
Name 2 causative agents of systemic fungal diseases most commonly seen in the Missouri, Mississippi and Ohio River valleys
Histoplasma capsulatum
Blastomyces dermatitidis
What is the name of the congenital sternal malformation where the caudal sternum has a dorsal deviation into the thoracic cavity?
pectus excavatum
the opposite, where the sternum projects ventrally (outward) is pectus carinatum
What is the most likely origin of bacterial contaminants in surgical wounds?
a) endogenous flora
b) air
c) surgical team
a) endogenous flora
When performing definitive closure of wounds, waiting until the appearance of healthy granulation tissue before closing the wound is known as:
secondary closure
or closure by second intention
