Small Animal

Question 1

Why is a patient placed in left lateral recumbency to perform a pericardiocentesis?

Answer 1

Entering the chest wall and pericardial space from the right side (left recumbency) minimizes the risk of coronary arteries course on the epicardial surface of the left side of the heart

Question 2

Which valve is least likely to be affected in a dog with bacterial endocarditis: aortic, pulmonic or mitral?

Answer 2

Pulmonic

Question 3

How long does it take for anti-erythrocyte abs to form when a dog receives an incompatible blood transfusion?

Answer 3

4-14 days

Question 4

Which embryologic defect is likely if the lateral thoracic radiograph of a dog shows evidence of a persistent dorsal mesothelial remnant?

Answer 4

Peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia

Question 5

An overweight, mature, MN cat with an acute onset of pelvic limb lameness has no history of trauma. Radiographs reveal a unilateral femoral capital physeal fracture. The most likely underlying disorder is:

Answer 5

Feline capital physeal dysplasia

Question 6

A 7-month old beagle has acute onset guarding of the neck suggesting cervical pain; generalized hyperesthesia and anorexia, which resolve within 24 hours of treatment of corticosteroids. What is the most likely dx?

Answer 6

Juvenile polyarteritis (beagle pain syndrome)

Question 7

What is the main antidote for acetaminophen-induced methemoglobinemia in cats?

Answer 7

N-acetylcysteine (mucomyst). S-adenosyl methionine (SAMe) also may be strongly beneficial

Question 8

Atherosclerosis in dogs has been associated with a deficiency of thus hormone

Answer 8

Thyroid hormone

Question 9

70% of feline hyperT4 dz is uni- or bilateral?

Answer 9

Bilateral

Question 10

During recovery from GA for a spay, you notice that your feline patient has signs of severe SQ emphysema. What was the likely cause?

Answer 10

Tracheal perforation

Likely during intubation, cuff inflation or venipuncture (jugular draw)

Question 11

What is the oral abx of choice for tx toxoplasmosis in a cat?

Answer 11

Clindamycin

Question 12

At which site in the canine elbow does OCD most commonly occur?

Answer 12

Distomedial humeral trochlea

Question 13

What are dermal sinuses and which breed of dog is strongly predisposed to having them?

Answer 13

Embryonic defects presenting as focal invaginations of the skin on the dorsal midline; the deepest ones are continuous with the subarchnoid space/spinal cords. They are also called pilondial cysts.
Almost exclusively in Rhodesian ridgebackes

Question 14

In dogs but not cats, an enzyme in the corneal stroma converts glucose to sortibol causing diabetic dogs to be at risk for irreversible cataract formation. What is that enzyme?

Answer 14

Aldose reductase

Question 15

A Siberian husky present with photophobia, blepharospasm, conjunctivits and skin lesions consisting of depigmentation, erythema and crusting of the dorsal muzzl, periorbital region, planum nasale and lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 15

uveodermatologic syndrome

aka Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada-like syndrome

Question 16

What are 2 examples of arrhythmias that commonly develop in dogs with DCM?

Answer 16

VPCs, Ventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation

asystole, sinus tachycardia

Question 17

The most common clinical signs in dogs and cats with PSS reflect dysfcn of which body system secondary to poor liver function?

Answer 17

CNS signs
dullness
seizures

Question 18

Which blood test is preferred for screening cats for FeLeuk and when the result is positive, which second test is used for confirmation?

Answer 18

Screening: ELISA snap test
Confirmation: IFA

Question 19

What are the tx options for fibrosacroma in a dog?

Answer 19

surgical resection
radiation therapy
chemotherapy

Question 20

In canine patients with gallbladder mucoceles, what are the two most common clinical signs on PE?

Answer 20

abdominal pain

icterus

Question 21

Soft-coated wheaten terriers have a familial predisposition for which renal disease?

Answer 21

Protein losing nephropathy

Question 22

Cytology from a cutaneous draining tract in an adult hunting dog shows broad-based budding yeast forms. By which route was the disorder acquired?

Answer 22

inhalation-blastomycosis

Question 23

A dog has a cervical salivary mucocele that requires excision, but the lesion hangs on the ventral midline of the neck. What is the easiest way to find on which side the mucocele is (ie which side to operate on)?

Answer 23

placement of dog in dorsal recumbency with make the mucocele roll or fall to the affected side

Question 24

In a dog or cat, in which direction should the hindlimb be manipulated to minimize the risk of sciatic nerve damage when placing an intraosseous needle in the proximal femur?

Answer 24

The hindlimb is rotated internally and adducted, to widen access to the trochanteric fossa and reduce the risk of sciatic nerve damage

Question 25

How is FIV most commonly transmitted?

Answer 25

bite wounds and scratches

Question 26

What are the vector and causative organism of salmon poisoning in dogs?

Answer 26

Vector: Nanophyteus salmincola
organism: Neorickettsia helminothoeca

Question 27

Cats with wet FIP typically have which type of abdominal effusion?

Answer 27

Exudate, ocassionally modified transudate

Question 28

In a young, large breed dog, which type of congenital portsystemic shunt would you expect (based on signalment alone)?

Answer 28

Intrahepatic

Question 29

In an 8 month old Yorkie with intermittent mental dullness, recent urethral obstruction caused by urate uroliths, and markedly prolonged anesthetic recovery, what is the most likely dx?

Answer 29

portosystemic shunt

Question 30

Name 3 different tx that can be used for treating canine hyperadrenocorticism.

Answer 30

Mitotane (o,p'-DDD, Lysodren)
trilostane 
ketoconazole
L-deprenyl (selegeline, Anipryl)
surgery (adrenalectomy if primary adrenal source; rarely hypophysectomy for pituitary-based disease)

Question 31

A 4 year old Dachshund is acutely unable to voluntarily move her hindlimbs. A firm pinch of a toe on the affected limb reveals withdrawal of the limb (flexion). What info does this response provide you regarding pain sensation?

Answer 31

none. Withdrawal of the limb is only part of the flexor reflex arc, and is independent of conscious proprioception

Question 32

Calcinosis cutis is a possible clinical sign of this endocrine disease?

Answer 32

hyperadrenocorticism

Question 33

What are 2 complication to be aware of- and warm owners about when performing sx to treat a nasopharyngeal polyp in a cat?

Answer 33

Horner’s syndrome
peripheral vestibular disease
both due to bulla osteotomy

Question 34

A dog has high serum ionized calcium level and normal parathyroid hormone (PTH) level. The results are accurate and repeatable. What is the most likely dx?

Answer 34

Primary hyperparathyroidism

PTH should be low in the face of hypercalcemia

Question 35

What is the dx tst of choice for initial screening of dogs for brucellosis?

Answer 35

Rapid slide agglutination test (RSAT)

Agar gel immunodiffusion is confirmatory

Question 36

Which 2 life threatening serum biochemical abnormalities can occur if cats or small dogs receive phosphate based enemas?

Answer 36

Hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia

Hypocalcemia clinical signs worse and life threatening

Question 37

Lack of which protein, encode by which gene, is associated with multiple adverse drug reactions in dogs (especially ivermectin in herding breeds)?

Answer 37

P-glycoprotein encoded by the multidrug resistance -1 gene

Question 38

Anterior uveitis and corneal edema (“blue eye”) are hallmarks of which canine viral disease?

Answer 38

Infectious canine hepatitis

Canine adenovrius-1 infection

Question 39

In dogs, almost all documented tears of meniscus following cranial cruciate ligament ruptured involve which portion of the meniscus?

Answer 39

Caudal horn of the medial meniscus