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1
Q

When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by-product of which step

A

Splitting of the water molecules

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2
Q

Which of the following statements describes NAD+
A. NAD+ can donate electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation
B. NAD+ is reduced by the action of hydrogenases
C. NAD+ is reduced to NADH during both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
D. NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH

A

NAD+ is reduced to NADH during both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

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3
Q

In the thylakoid membranes, what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules

A

Harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reaction-center chlorophyll

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4
Q

When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the molecule becomes

A

Oxidized

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5
Q

The molecule that functions as the reducing agent (electron donor) in a redox or oxidation-reduction reaction

A

Loses electrons and loses energy

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6
Q

Which process of photosynthesis in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally wether oxygen is present or absent

A

Glycolysis

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7
Q

The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to

A

Act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water

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8
Q

When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner membrane and into the intermembrane space, the result is the

A

Creation of a proton gradient

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9
Q
What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules 
A. Anabolic pathways 
B. Catabolic pathways
C. Exergonic pathways 
D. B and C
E. A and C
A

D. Catabolic and exergonic pathways

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10
Q

The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by

A

Substrate-level phosphorylation

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11
Q

Each time a molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized via aerobic respiration, how many oxygen molecules (O2) are required

A

6

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12
Q
Reduction of oxygen which forms water occurs during
A. Photosynthesis 
B. Both photosynthesis and respiration 
C. Photorespiration 
D. Respiration
A

Respiration

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13
Q
Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle
A. H2O and O2
B. CO2 and glucose 
C. ATP and NADPH 
D. Electrons and H+
E. ADP, Pi, and NADPH
A

ATP and NADPH

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14
Q

Where are the molecules of the electron transport chain found in plant cells

A

Thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts

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15
Q

The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by

A

Substrate level phosphorylation

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16
Q

Starting with one molecule of glucose, the “net” products of glycolysis are
A. 2 NAD+, 2 H+, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 H2O
B. 2 NADH, 2 H+, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 H2O

A

B.

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17
Q

How does pyruvate enter the mitochondrion

A

Active fusion

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18
Q

During cellular respiration, acetyl CoA accumulates in which location

A

Mitochondrial matrix

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19
Q

Carbon dioxide is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration
A. Glycolysis and the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
B. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle
C. The citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation

A

Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle

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20
Q

Cellular respiration harvests the most chemical energy from which of the following
A. Substrate level phosphorylation
B. Chemiosmotic phosphorylation
C. Converting oxygen to ATP

A

Chemiosmotic phosphorylation

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21
Q
Which of the following couples chemiosmosis to energy storage 
A. NADH
B. FADH2
C. Cytochromes
D. Electron transport 
E. ATP synthase
A

ATP synthase

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22
Q

Which of the following events listed below occur in the light reactions of photosynthesis
A. NADP is produced
B. NADPH is reduced to NADP+
C. Carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA
D. ATP is phosphorylation to yield ADP
E. light is absorbed and funneled to reaction-center chlorophyll a

A

Light is absorbed and funneled to the reaction-center chlorophyll a

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23
Q

What does the chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involve?
A. Establishment of a proton gradient
B. Diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane
C. Reduction of water to produce ATP energy
D. Movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma
E. Formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP

A

Establishment of a proton gradient

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24
Q
Reduction of NADP+ occurs during 
A. Photorespiration 
B. Respiration 
C. Both photosynthesis and respiration 
D. Neither photosynthesis nor respiration 
E. Photosynthesis
A

Photosynthesis

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25
Q

What is the relationship between wavelength of light and the quantity of energy per photon
A. They have a direct linear relationship
B. They are inversely related
C. They are only related in certain pats of the spectrum

A

They are inversely related

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26
Q

Which of the following statements best represent the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle
A. The light reactions provide ATP and the NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, Pi, and the NADP+, to the light reactions
B. The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle, and the cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions

A

The light reactions provide ATP and the NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, Pi, and the NADP+, to the light reactions

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27
Q

Produces NADPH
A. Light reactions alone
B. The Calvin cycle alone
C. Both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle
D. Neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle

A

Light reactions alone

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28
Q

The pH of the inner thylakoid space has been measured, as have the pH of the stroma and of the cytosine of a particular plant cell. Which, if any relationship would you expect to find?
A. The pH within the thylakoid is less than that of the stroma
B. The pH within the stroma is higher than that of the other two measurements
C. The pH of the thylakoid space is higher than that anywhere else in the cell

A

The pH within the thylakoid is less than that of the stroma

29
Q

Which process is most directly driven by light energy
A. Carbon fixation in the stroma
B. Reduction of NADPH
C. Removal of electrons from chlorophyll molecules
D. ATP synthesis

A

Removal of electrons from chlorophyll molecules

30
Q
Which of the following does not occur during the Calvin cycle?
A. Carbon fixation
B. Oxidation of NADPH
C. Release of oxygen 
D. Regeneration of CO2 acceptor 
E. Consumption of ATP
A

Regeneration of the CO2 receptor

31
Q
In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?
A. Thylakoid membrane 
B. Plasma membrane 
C. Inner mitochondrial membrane 
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C
A

Inner mitochondrial membrane

32
Q

If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?

A

10

33
Q

What is a chromatid

A

A replicated chromosome

34
Q

A tetrad includes what sets of DNA strands

A

Two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed

35
Q

Define cyclin-dependent kinase

A

CDK is present throughout the cell cycle ad CDK is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins

36
Q

How do daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cells when it was in G2 of the cell cycle

A

The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA

37
Q

What is primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells

A

Golgi-derived vesicles

38
Q

After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of daughter cell is

A

haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids

39
Q

Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with

A

two individual nuclei

40
Q

Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis

A

to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking

41
Q

Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?

A

Centrosome

42
Q

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would most likely be affected by a drug that

A

Prevents shortening of microtubules

43
Q

Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of

A

The random and independent way in which pairs of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I

44
Q

In order for anaphase to begin, what most occur

A

Cohesion must be cleaved enzymatically

45
Q

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 6 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have ________ picograms at the beginning of S phase and ________ picograms at the end of G2

A

6, 12

46
Q

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle are called

A

Cyclins

47
Q
Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that require cyclin to become catalytically active
A. MPF
B. Protein kinase
C. Cyclin
D. Cdk
A

Cdk

48
Q

This is the shortest part of the cell cycle

A

M

49
Q

Which of the following is true of cancer cells
A. They do not exhibit density dependent inhibition when growing in culture
B. When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle
C. A and B

A

They do not exhibit density dependent inhibition when growing in culture

50
Q

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n=16
A. The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell
B. Each cell has 8 homologous pairs
C. A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes

A

Each cell has 8 homologous pairs

51
Q

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis
A. Condensation of the chromosomes
B. Replication of DNA
C. Spindle formation

A

Replication of DNA

52
Q

What is a genome

A

The complete sum of an organism’s genes

53
Q

Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction differ in all but which of the following ways?
A. Asexual reproduction requires only mitosis whereas sexual reproduction always involves meiosis
B. Asexual reproduction is utilized only by fungi and protists, whereas sexual reproduction is utilized only by plants and animals

A

Asexual reproduction requires only mitosis whereas sexual reproduction always involves meiosis

54
Q

A gene’s location along a chromosome is known as what

A

Locus

55
Q

The human X and Y chromosomes

A

include genes that determine an individual’s sex

56
Q

Beside the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor?

A

Lack of appropriate cell death

57
Q

The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?
A. Metaphase I of one meiotic event
B. Telophase II of one meiotic event
C. Either anaphase I or II

A

Either anaphase I or II

58
Q

A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?
A. It must be human
B. Its somatic cells must have 46 chromosomes
C. Its gametes must have 46 chromosomes

A

Its somatic cells must have 46 chromosomes

59
Q

A karyotype results from which of the following
A. A natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus
B. The ordering of human chromosome images

A

The ordering of human chromosome images

60
Q

Chromatids are separated from each other
A. This statement is true for meiosis I only
B. This statement is true for meiosis II only
C. This statement is true for mitosis only
D. This statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I
E. This statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II

A

This statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II

61
Q

You have in your possession a microscope slide with meiotic cells on it and a light microscope. What would you look for if you wanted to identify metaphase I cells on the slide?

A

Tetrads lined up at the center of the cell

62
Q

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not mitosis
A. Chromosome replication
B. Synapsis of chromatin
C. Synapsis of chromosomes

A

Synapsis of chromosomes

63
Q

A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with a 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following?
A. 63 chromatids each with three chromatids
B. 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3
C. 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs

A

63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3

64
Q

Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know what is occurring?

A

Crossing over

65
Q

For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes

A

About 8 million

66
Q

When pairs of homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I,
A. The sister chromatids remain attached to one another
B. Recombination is not yet complete
C. The synaptonemal complex is visible under a microscope

A

The sister chromatids remain attached to one another

67
Q

Natural selection and recombination due to crossing over during meiosis I are related in which of the following ways?
A. Recombinants are usually selected against
B. Recombinants may have combinations of traits that are favored by natural selection
C. Recombinant organisms are usually favored by natural selection if there is environmental change

A

Recombinants may have combinations of traits that are favored by natural selection

68
Q

Which life cycle is found in plants but not animals?
A. Multicellular diploid
B. Multicellular haploid
C. Unicellular diploid

A

Multicellular haploid

69
Q
If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, than the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be
A. .025x
B. .5x
C. X
D. 2x
A

2x