Tests Flashcards

0
Q

How are the fuel tanks normally vented?

A

The tanks are vented by vent lines in the collector tanks

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1
Q

Where is the aircraft fuel stored?

A

In the 2 main tanks and 1 center tank

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2
Q

How are the fuel system faults annunciated?

A

Switch lights on the overhead fuel panel

On EICAS in the form of messages

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3
Q

What is used to provide the fuel system computer with fuel quantity
Information:

A

6 fuel quantity probes with compensator units in each main tanks
3 probes in the center tank

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4
Q

What type of ejector pumps are used to move fuel from the main tanks to the collector tanks?

A

Scavenger ejectors

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5
Q

What maintains fuel symmetry between the main tanks?

A

Automatically controlled by the Bi-Directional X flow pump

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6
Q

How are the collector tanks kept full?

A

Gravity feed lines and scavenge ejectors

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7
Q

What is used to back up the main ejectors?

A

2 electric boost pumps

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8
Q

The electric fuel boost pumps….

A

Are energized during engine start
Can feed fuel to either engine from one collector tank
Back to the main ejector pumps

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9
Q

From what source is APU fuel feed supplied?

A

From the left collector tank via APU fuel pump

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10
Q

Where is the bulk temperature taken?

A

Right main tank

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11
Q

How is pressure refueling and suction defueling accomplished and how is it controlled?

A

Accomplished through the single point refuel/defuel adapter. Controlled from the refuel/defuel control panel

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12
Q

If a fuel asymmetry condition exists between the two tanks, what visual caution message is presented in EICAS?

A

FUEL IMBALANCE

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13
Q

What fuel system information is displayed on the EICAS Primary page?

A

Individual tank quantities, total fuel quantity, fuel used quantity

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14
Q

For automatic pressure refueling, what does the refuel/defuel control panel permit?

A

Preselection of fuel quantity desired
Built in test (BITE) feature
Refuel/defuel shut-off valves to close automatically if the maximum fuel level is reached

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15
Q

The engine driven and APU generators are rated at?

A

40 KVA

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16
Q

The main aircraft generators supply power to ______ AC buses?

A

4

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17
Q

Power for the 28 VDC is supplied by:

A

TRU’s

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18
Q

The APU battery is:

A

24 volts rated at 43 amp/hours

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19
Q

The main battery is:

A

24 volts 17 amp/hrs

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20
Q

TRU’s supply power to ______ DC buses:

A

4

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21
Q

Cranking power for starting the APU is provided by:

A

APU battery

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22
Q

The ADG supplies AC power to:

A

3B hydraulic pump
ESS AC bus
Slats/flaps and pitch trim
STAB CH2

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23
Q

The main and APU batteries are kept in charged condition by battery chargers powered by:

A

AC BUS No. 1

AC Service Bus

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24
Q

The external AC power receptacle is located:

A

Forward right side of the aircraft

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25
Q

Electrical systems warning and caution messages are normally displayed on:

A

EICAS primary page

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26
Q

Electrical system status and advisory messages are normally displayed on:

A

EICAS status page

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27
Q

The IDG provides a means of converting:

A

Variable engine speed to constant generator speed

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28
Q

The IDGs may be disconnected from the gearbox by:

A

Disconnect switches located in the cockpit

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29
Q

Once disconnected, the IDG:

A

Can only be manually re-connected on the ground with engine shutdown by MTX

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30
Q

The IDGs convert variable engine speed to:

A

12,000 RPM

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31
Q

Fault protection for each engine is incorporated in each:

A

GCU

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32
Q

The priority for allowing power to AC Bus 1 would be:

A

IDG1
APU
IDG2
External AC

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33
Q

IDG2 normally powers:

A

AC Bus 2

Service Bus

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34
Q

The ADG can only supply power to:

A
3B hydraulic
AC essential
ADG Bus
EICAS
Slat, flaps, and pitch trim
STAB CH 2
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35
Q

115 VAC is supplied to TRUs for DC static conversion, and each TRU is rated at:

A

120 amps

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36
Q

Which DC Bus tie(s) has(have) automatic operation?

A

MAIN TIE
CROSS TIE
ESS TIE

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37
Q

In flight, the ADG Auto deploy monitors the three main AC generators and the main AC Buses for:

A

Complete AC power failure

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38
Q

An amber IDG fault light/caution light indicates:

A

Low IDG oil pressure and/or high IDG oil temperature

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39
Q

An AUTO XFER fail light ( amber) on the Electrical panel indicates:

A

Generator over current or a bus fault

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40
Q

An AC ESS XFER light (white) on the Electrical panel indicates?

A

AC ESS Bus is not being powered by AC Bus 1

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41
Q

What are the generators rated at?

A

40 KVA up to FL410

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42
Q

Warning messages will always appear as a _______ message on the CAS:

A

Red

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43
Q

When warning messages are displayed, they will be accomplished by:

A

Flashing master warning, aural alert, and voice advisory if applicable

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44
Q

Caution messages will always appear as a _________ message on the CAS?

A

Amber

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45
Q

Caution messages will appear immediately:

A

Below warning messages

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46
Q

When caution messages are displayed, they will be accomplished by:

A

A flashing master caution light

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47
Q

Warning and caution messages will normally appear on the:

A

EICAS primary page

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48
Q

Advisory messages will always appear as a _________ message on the CAS:

A

Green

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49
Q

Advisory messages are always displayed:

A

At the top of the stack on the status page

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50
Q

Status messages will always appear as a ________ message on the CAS:

A

White

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51
Q

There are _______ types of aural warnings provided to alert the crew:

A

10

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52
Q

When the master warning lights are illuminated, pushing either switch will:

A

Cause both master warning lights to extinguish and reset for future
Warnings

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53
Q

Data Concentrator Units (DCU) are located in the Avionics bay and are used to:

A

Process and transmit aircraft sensor data to the FDR And EICAS lamp driver unit

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54
Q

What is the function of the EICAS?

A

Provide crew with visual and aural crew alert messages and real time interpretation of aircraft system

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55
Q

How many levels of CAS importance are there?

A

4

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56
Q

What components within EICAS collects and processes data from various aircraft systems?

A

DCU 1 and DCU 2

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57
Q

Where is the EICAS control panel located?

A

Center pedestal

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58
Q

Status and advisory messages displayed on the EICAS primary page?

A

False

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59
Q

Wingspan of the CRJ700?

A

76’ 3”

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60
Q

The exhaust danger area for the CRJ900 engines at idle thrust is?

A

100 feet

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61
Q

The overall length of the CRJ900 aircraft is?

A

118’11”

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62
Q

The CRJ900 maximum ramp weight is?

A

82,750 lbs

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63
Q

On the CRJ900, the distance from the top of the vertical stabilizer to the ground is approx?

A

24’ 1”

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64
Q

The danger area in front of both the CRJ700/900 with the radar operating is?

A

2 feet

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65
Q

The CRJ700 has a maximum steering angle of 80 degrees, the aircraft will require ________ feet to complete an 180 degree turn:

A

118’ 0”

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66
Q

The CRJ900 maximum takeoff weight?

A

82,500 lbs

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67
Q

The maximum load capacity of the passenger door is?

A

1000 lbs

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68
Q

The maximum number of people permitted on the stairway is?

A

4

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69
Q

Which of the following is NOT a “plug type” door?

A

Passenger door

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70
Q

A red warning message on EICAS would indicate that:

A

The passenger door is not locked properly

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71
Q

In the event of passenger evacuation on the CRJ900, there are ______ emergency exits available:

A

6

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72
Q

The correct eye reference position for pilot or copilot seat adjustment is indicated when:

A

The white ball appears in center of orange ball

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73
Q

The APU is equipped with a:

A

40 kVA generator

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74
Q

The APU supplies pneumatic power for:

A

Main engine starts and air conditioning

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75
Q

The APU ECU controls the APU during:

A

All phases of operation

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76
Q

The APU control system ensures priority is given to:

A

Electrical loads

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77
Q

Pressurized fuel is supplied to the APU by the:

A

APU fuel pump

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78
Q

What is the purpose of the internal bypass valve?

A

Allows the APU to continue to run if APU pump fails

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79
Q

APU RPM is displayed on the:

A

EICAS Status page

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80
Q

APU bleed air is controlled by modulating:

A

APU LCV

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81
Q

APU bleed pressure readout can be monitored on:

A

EICAS “ECS” synoptic page

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82
Q

APU “AVAIL” will illuminate at:

A

99% RPM and 2 seconds later

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83
Q

The APU gauges (RPM and EGT) appear on EICAS when:

A

APU POWER/FUEL switch/light is pressed in

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84
Q

“APU OVERSPEED” warning message is displayed when RPM exceeds:

A

106%

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85
Q

Where is the APU located?

A

Tail cone

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86
Q

APU intake door is located:

A

Upper right hand side (aft) aircraft

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87
Q

APU secondary functions:

A

Supplies bleed air for air conditioning

Supplies air for main and engine starting

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88
Q

If APU door position is unknown, airspeed is restricted to:

A

220 KIAS and APU is not operating

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89
Q

The APU door position is displayed on the:

A

EICAS Status page

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90
Q

The CF34-8C5, with APR, has a thrust rating of:

A

14,750 lbs

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91
Q

What engine model is equipped on the CRJ900 series of aircraft?

A

CF34-8C5

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92
Q

Pneumatic bleed air is used for:

A

Air conditioning

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93
Q

The engines may be started using the APU, ground air source or engine cross bleed:

A

True

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94
Q

When does the APR system arm?

A

When the engine speed is within 8% N1 scheduled takeoff power

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95
Q

During an engine start, the starters cuts out at:

A

50% N2

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96
Q

Refilling of the oil system is provided by a replenishment tank:

A

Located in the aft equipment bay

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97
Q

Engine oil is cooled by:

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

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98
Q

80% of engine thrust is generated by?

A

Bypass air

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99
Q

When will OEO thrust be activated?

A

N1 mismatch 15% RPM

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100
Q

The left engine is the master engine for:

A

N1 and N2 Sync

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101
Q

The primary thrust setting reference is:

A

N1

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102
Q

With Wing anti-ice on, the N2 RPM Indicators will:

A

Turn White from 0 to 77% RPM

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103
Q

The left engine START switch light, when pressed in:

A

Opens the left bleed air Start Valve and the isolation valve

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104
Q

Prior to takeoff, normal rated takeoff N1 thrust is displayed…

A

Automatically by FADEC

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105
Q

The thrust lever quadrant is equipped with detente located at what positions?

A

CLIMB
TOGA
MAX PWR

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106
Q

Which hydraulic system is used during normal landing gear extension and retraction?

A

3 hydraulic system

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107
Q

With the aircraft on the ground, what is incorporated within the landing gear control lever to prevent an up selection?

A

A solenoid lock

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108
Q

During the landing gear retraction sequence, why is hydraulic pressure from the nose landing gear up line routed to activate the brake control valves?

A

To stop main wheel rotation

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109
Q

What means is provided to mute the landing gear horn?

A

Horn mute switch/light on the landing gear control panel

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110
Q

Where are the landing gear position and status displayed?

A

EICAS Primary page (ED1)

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111
Q

The alternate landing gear extension method should be used in case of a failure in the landing gears control system or:

A

3 hydraulic system

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112
Q

Pulling the landing gear manual release handle will permit the MLG to extend and lock into position:

A

Using gravity and down lock assist actuator force from the no. 2 HYD system

113
Q

What powers the wheel brakes?

A

No. 2 HYD system powers the O/B brakes and the No. 3 HYD system powers the O/B brakes

114
Q

In the event of a failure of No. 2 and No. 3 hydraulic power, what emergency braking is available?

A

Brake accumulators in both hydraulic systems provide reserve pressure for 6 brake applications with anti-skid selected OFF

115
Q

Where is brake pressure displayed?

A

On EICAS Hydraulic synoptic page

116
Q

When the parking brake is applied hydraulic pressure is trapped within which brake system?

A

Only the I/B brakes

117
Q

The BTMS…..

A

Monitors the temperature of each brake and the information is displayed on EICAS

118
Q

Provided the anti-skid is armed, when does it become operational?

A

Once a 35 knot wheel spin-up signal is present or a WOW signal after a 5 second delay

119
Q

When using the steering tiller, nose wheel steering is available through how many degrees?

A

80

120
Q

The strike indicator located in the FWD end of the tail bumper assembly is there for…..

A

Visual indication of a tail strike

121
Q

Landing Gear position indicators are located on the…..

A

ED1

122
Q

MLG doors are…..

A

Mechanically operated

123
Q

Pump 3B is automatically running when the ADG is deployed (T/F)

A

True

124
Q

With the switch in the AUTO position, Pump 3B will be operating during normal take offs and landings (T/F)

A

True

125
Q

What is normal hydraulic system pressure?

A

3000 PSI

126
Q

What ACMP is directly powered by the ADG?

A

3B

127
Q

What is the normal percentage of hydraulic fluid in the system?

A

45%-85%

128
Q

AC-motor pumps 1B and 2B will automatically turn on during an engine failure (T/F)…

A

False

129
Q

Where would you normally be able to read hydraulic brake pressure?

A

On the hydraulic synoptic page

130
Q

Where can the hydraulic systems be viewed on EICAS under normal operating conditions?

A

The EICAS hydraulic synoptic page

131
Q

What activates the hydraulic shut off valve at the engine firewall?

A

ENGINE FIRE PUSH switch light

HYD SOV switch lights on overhead pane

132
Q

When the hydraulic pump switch 1 and 2 are set to AUTO, when will the pumps automatically start?

A

Flaps are in the 0 degree position

Any generator on line

133
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are engine driven?

A

1A and 2A

134
Q

How are hydraulic systems #1 and #2 cooled?

A

Ram air/oil heat exchanger

135
Q

Systems 1 and 2 are each powered by and EDP and an AC PUMP (T/F)…..

A

True

136
Q

System #3 is powered by ________ AC -motor pumps:

A

2

137
Q

With normal switch positions, which electric hydraulic pump normally operates continuously?

A

3A

138
Q

How many hydraulic systems are normally used to power the rudder?

A

3 systems

139
Q

The CRJ has __________ hydraulic pumps?

A

6 - 2 engine-driven and 4 electric

140
Q

At cruise, normally which hydraulic pumps are operating?

A

1A, 2A, and 3A

141
Q

You are taxiing out single engine (right engine running), which hydraulic
Pumps are running in normal operations (flaps up)?

A

2A and 3A

142
Q

With the No. 1 engine shutdown in flight, which hydraulic pumps are not available?

A

1A

143
Q

The A pumps are engine-driven, and the “B” pumps are electric AC motor-driven (T/F)?

A

False

144
Q

What is considered low hydraulic pressure?

A

< 1800 PSI

145
Q

What is considered high hydraulic pressure?

A

> 3200 PSI

146
Q

When does hydraulic pressure relief occur?

A

> 3750 PSI and excessive fluid is vented to an overflow bottle

147
Q

What aides the crew in directional control during a jammed rudder conditions?

A

Rudder system anti-jam/breakout mechanisms

148
Q

The purpose of aileron flutter dampers is:

A

Prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCUs

149
Q

What are the takeoff flap settings?

A

8 and 20 degrees

150
Q

The elevators, rudder and ailerons are:

A

Manually controlled and hydraulically actuated

151
Q

What is the purpose of the aileron bungee breakout switch?

A

Provides automatic on-side MFS control to operable circuit during aileron PCU runaway

152
Q

What/Who has the highest priority when trimming the horizontal stabilizer trim?

A

Captain

153
Q

HORT STAB trim limits?

A

+2 degrees to -13 degrees

154
Q

A SPOILERONS ROLL caution message, accomplished by amber ROLL SEL lights on the glare shield indicates?

A

Roll disconnect handle has been pulled, but spoileron priority has not been established

155
Q

What are the selectable flap positions?

A

0-1-8-20-30-45

156
Q

What message appears on EICAS if one flap motor fails?

A

Flaps half speed

157
Q

During landing or rejected takeoff, how does multifunction spoilers deploy logic differ from ground spoilers deploy logistic?

A

Multifunction spoilers deployment requires R and L MLG WOW

158
Q

In the event of total AC electrical power failure, the flight controls will remain operational because ACMP 3B is powered by the ADG bus (T/F)?

A

True

159
Q

Each elevator is hydraulically powered by ___________ PCUs

A

3

160
Q

Bleed air is used for?

A

Engine cowl anti-icing and wing anti-icing

161
Q

The left and right Pitot/Static probes are?

A

Electrically heated

162
Q

When the WSHLD switch is set to LOW:

A

The side windows are in low

163
Q

Ice detection probes are:

A

Electrically de-iced

164
Q

Ice detector switch/light illuminates amber it indicate aircraft entry into icing with:

A

Wing and cowl anti-ice off

165
Q

The windshield wipers operate:

A

Together, at the last speed selected by either pilot

166
Q

At what point does the Air Data Sensor Heater Control energize all probes and sensor heater regardless of probe or generator switch position?

A

WOW

167
Q

The windshield wipers will operate at the most recently selected speed (T/F)?

A

True

168
Q

Ice and Rain protection systems displayed Caution/Warning, Advisory/Status Messages on:

A

EICAS Primary and/or Status page

169
Q

What does the DET TEST SWITCHLIGHT test when pressed?

A

Ice detectors and air data probes and sensor heaters

170
Q

The right hand pack normally supplies the :

A

Passenger cabin

171
Q

RAM AIR ventilation is used only when:

A

When the aircraft is unpressurized

172
Q

Cabin air outflow is controlled automatic by:

A

The active CPC maintains aircraft pressurization

173
Q

The pressurization system automatically pre-pressurizes the aircraft to:

A
  • 150 feet
174
Q

Maximum negative pressure differential pressure is:

A
  • 0.5 PSI
175
Q

If the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet the:

A

CPAM will trigger the oxygen system auto deploy to the passengers

176
Q

On the ground, with Display Control Panel in Normal, what cools the cockpit displays?

A

GND fan

177
Q

When the PRESS CONT switch/light is pressed in:

A

It selects manual mode

178
Q

The manual cabin altitude regulator, when selected UP:

A

Causes the outflow valve to open and increase cabin altitude

179
Q

When in Manual (MAN) the pressurization read outs are displayed on:

A

EICAS Primary page

180
Q

The two safety valves located on the aft pressure bulkhead:

A

Provide over/under pressure relief

181
Q

During ground operations the ground valve:

A

Is controlled from the Avionics Fan Switch

182
Q

What is the normal source for engine supply bleed air to the manifold?

A

6th or 10th stage

183
Q

The aircraft has ______ independent built-in oxygen systems

A

2

184
Q

The flight compartment oxygen bottle has a _______ capacity:

A

50 cu ft

185
Q

The flight compartment oxygen bottle is normally charged to:

A

1850 PSI

186
Q

Over pressure relief for the flight compartment oxygen system will occur at:

A

2800 PSI

187
Q

The “OXY LO PRESS” caution will be displayed on EICAS when the pressure is below:

A

1410 PSI

188
Q

The Normal/100% Lever on the Pilots Mask Stowage Container should be set to:

A

100%

189
Q

The indications of oxygen flow from the flight compartment mask can be confirmed by:

A

Yellow cross appears on the blinker

190
Q

The oxygen mask regulator will supply 100% continuous flow above a:

A

30,000 ft cabin altitude

191
Q

The PBE hood provides oxygen for approximately:

A

15 minutes

192
Q

Passenger oxygen masks will automatically deploy if the cabin altitude exceeds:

A

14,000 feet

193
Q

A crash axe is located:

A

Behind the co-pilots seat

194
Q

On the CRJ900, the four emergency exit windows over the wing open:

A

Inward from the top with adjacent life lines

195
Q

The CRJ900 emergency lighting system is provided by five rechargeable battery packs that will supply power for approximately:

A

10 minutes

196
Q

The emergency lights can be:

A

Armed or turned on from the flight compartment

Turned on from the flight attendant panel

197
Q

Flight crew members life vests are:

A

Stowed beneath each crew members seat

198
Q

Fire detection and extinguishing is provided in the:

A

Left and right core sections and APU compartment

199
Q

When the heat sensing elements are subjected to heat, the:

A

Resistance decreases

200
Q

The fire detection system for the engines use:

A

A dual loop sensing element mounted in parallel

201
Q

The cargo compartment has:

A

3 smoke detectors in FWD

2 smoke detectors in AFT

202
Q

The engine firex bottles are located in the:

A

Aft equipment bay

203
Q

An APU fire on the ground will cause:

A

Shutdown the APU, automatically discharge the firex bottle and display an EICAS message

204
Q

The lavatory firex bottle is discharge by:

A

Heat sensitive capsule automatically

205
Q

When a fire warning is detected, the MASTER WARNING light flashes, a fire bell sounds, an EICAS message appears, and the appropriate
Engine fire push light illuminates red. Pushing the ENG FIRE push light “IN” will:

A

Arm the dedicated squibs to the affected engine
Close the fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shut off valves
Shutdown engine driven generator

206
Q

Engine fire messages are displayed:

A

EICAS primary page

207
Q

The fire bell can be silenced by pushing “IN” on the:

A

Master warning switch light

208
Q

ENG BOTTLE LO messages are displayed on:

A

EICAS status page

209
Q

What two subsystems comprise the Fire and Overhead Protection System?

A

Fire Overheat Detection System and Fire Extinguisher System

210
Q

What unit controls the Fire Protection, Smoke Detection, and Fire Extinguishing system?

A

FIDEEX Unit

211
Q

The FWD/AFT Cargo Bays have both Smoke Detection and Fire Extin guishing equipment (T/F):

A

True

212
Q

Engine and APU Fire/Overheat Detection is accomplished by _______
Loop(s) in the engine area and APU compartments:

A

Dual

213
Q

A Fire Warning is generated when one or more fire loops sense an overheat condition (T/F):

A

False

214
Q

A Squib fires to release Halon into the lavatory waste bin (T/F):

A

False

215
Q

Fire Overheat/detection loops consist of two wires inside a metal sheath separated by _________:

A

An insulating material (thermistor)

216
Q

The __________ can discriminate between a real and false fire indication:

A

FIDEEX Control Unit

217
Q

What happens when the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH SWITCHLIGHT is pressed?

A

Bottle squibs are armed

Hydraulic SOV closes

218
Q

The APU bottle will automatically discharge in flight if an APU fire is detected (T/F):

A

False

219
Q

When the respective CARGO FIREX BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCHARGE switch is pressed:

A

One bottle will discharge completely, and the other discharges slowly over an extended period of time

220
Q

The audio control panels are located on the center pedestal (T/F):

A

True

221
Q

The MASK/BOOM switch is located on the audio control panel (T/F):

A

True

222
Q

The ELT is located in the tail section of the aircraft (T/F):

A

True

223
Q

How is tuning the ADF receivers achieved?

A

Through the RTUs

224
Q

How many ADF receivers does the CRJ have?

A

Two

225
Q

The FMS Tune Inhibit switch:

A

Inhibits the FMS radio

226
Q

Which radios can be tuned by the back-up tuning unit?

A

COM1, NAV1

227
Q

When does the high/low chime sound in the flight deck?

A

When a call is initiated to the flight deck from the FA station

228
Q

During use of the PA system, who has the highest priority?

A

Pilots

229
Q

FA to flight deck calls are indicated by a steady CALL SWITCHLIGHT illuminated on the center pedestal (T/F):

A

False

230
Q

Pressing the CALL SWITCHLIGHT in the flight deck will signal the FA with an illuminated SWITCHLIGHT on the handset and a:

A

High/low chime in cabin

231
Q

Pressing the CHIME SWITCHLIGHT from the flight deck will:

A

Generate a high/low chime in the cabin

232
Q

To squawk IDENT, push the IDENT button on either RTU (T/F):

A

True

233
Q

COM2 can be tuned using:

A

Either RTU

FMS radio page

234
Q

Selecting various flight director modes is accomplished through the:

A

Flight Control Panel

235
Q

The primary purpose of the altitude preselect mode is to:

A

Generate commands to capture and track the preselected altitude

236
Q

Lamp lights on each side of a mode push button indicates:

A

That FCC1 and FCC2 have acknowledge that mode input

237
Q

If a new flight director mode became active, the annunciation in the FMA will:

A

Flash green for 5 seconds then steady

238
Q

When the transfer (XFR) switch on the flight control panel is selected:

A

The co-pilots flight director provide guidance to the autopilot

239
Q

Pressing either TOGA switch on a thrust lever will:

A

Disconnect the autopilot

240
Q

When the turbulence push button is engaged, the autopilot will:

A

Reduces autopilot gain

241
Q

The flight director sync switch (on the control wheel):

A

Synchronize flight director references to those currently flown

242
Q

The flight director command bars can be flown:

A

Manually

By the autopilot

243
Q

The color of an ARMED flight director mode in the flight mode annunciation is:

A

White

244
Q

If you engage the ALT mode push button on the FCP, the FD will:

A

Generate commands to maintain pressure altitude existing at time of selection

245
Q

To set the Heading Bug on the PFD and MFD, the Pilot must use the HDG Rotary Knob on the:

A

Flight Control Panel

246
Q

At what pressure altitude will half bank be automatically activated?

A

31,600

247
Q

Which is not a way to disconnect the autopilot?

A

Activating the aileron trim switches

248
Q

In takeoff mode (TOGA) how much bank authority is given to the FD?

A

5 degrees

249
Q

In the event that a PFD fails, PFD information can be displayed on the MFD by using the:

A

Reversionary Mode Switch

250
Q

The TAT Probe supplies temperature information to the:

A

Air Data Computers

251
Q

Pitot/Static inputs and TAT provide raw Air Data information which is converted to digital format through the:

A

Air Data Computers

252
Q

What is the time required to align the AHRS in the MAG Mode?

A

30-70 seconds

253
Q

What is the time required to align the AHRS in the DG Mode?

A

10-11 minutes

254
Q

Radio altitude will be displayed on the PFD below:

A

2500 feet AGL

255
Q

The Airspeed trend vector indicates the predicated airspeed in:

A

10 seconds

256
Q

The MACH number will be displayed when the aircraft reaches:

A

.45 MACH

257
Q

The Green Line on the Airspeed Tape indicates?

A

1.27 Vs

258
Q

The Slop and Skid indicator on the PFD is:

A

A rectangle under the Roll Pointer

259
Q

When a common Attitude/Heading source is selected, an annunciation will appear on the:

A

PFD and MFD

260
Q

The Integrated Standby Indicator can display Localizer and Glide Slope information (T/F):

A

True

261
Q

The ISI is located:

A

In the Center Instrument Panel

262
Q

The Co-pilots PFD and MFD normally receives Air Data, Attitude, and Heading information from the:

A

ADC2 and AHRS2

263
Q

Where is the radar control panel mounted?

A

Center pedestal

264
Q

The EGDWS alerts and warns the flight crew when the airplane’s flight path and positive relative to _______ requires immediate crew attention and action

A

The terrain

265
Q

How are being pointers displayed?

A

Selected through the Display Control Panel

266
Q

Weather radar returns, when selected, are displayed on the MFD’s (T/F):

A

True

267
Q

The ________ is an airborne system that interrogates ATC transponders in nearby airplanes to identify and display potential and predicted collision threats.

A

TCAS

268
Q

TCAS monitors a radius of approximately ______ NM about the airplane:

A

40

269
Q

Each of the MFDs has the primary function of showing:

A

Current heading

Course information

270
Q

Each PFD has the function of pictorially showing:

A

FD commands
Aircraft attitude
Flight control system mode annunciation a

271
Q

When will the vertical deviation glide scale (Green Diamond) be displayed on the PFD and MFD?

A

When a valid ILS is tuned

272
Q

With a (RED) Windshear warning you would expect:

A

Decrease in flight performance with escape guidance

273
Q

If the TCAS system produces an Aural of “Traffic, Traffic”’ what symbol would be associated with it?

A

An amber circle

274
Q

Wind shear warning will stop when:

A

Wind shear conditions are no longer present

275
Q

With an (Amber) Wind Shear Alert you would expect a(n):

A

Decrease in flight performance with escape guidance in GA mode

276
Q

Which colors are used by the RADAR system, starting with the most precipitation levels to the least amount of precip

A

Magenta, Red, Yellow, Green, Black

277
Q

Where are the RADAR returns displayed?

A

MFDs

278
Q

The pilot can cancel a “SINK RATE” advisory by:

A

Pressing the GPWS switch

Climbing the aircraft above the trip point

279
Q

The TCAS will direct the flight crew to resolve a threat by:

A

Producing an aural command

Producing a visual cue on the PFD