TESTS Flashcards

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1
Q

A human somatic cell contains how many total autosomes?

A

44

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2
Q

A gamete (egg or sperm) of a fruit fly contains how many chromosomes?

A

4

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3
Q

A species of plant is found to have a haploid number of 7. How many chromatids would be present at the start of Prophase (Mitosis)?

A

28

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4
Q

For the same plant, how many centromeres would you observe at Prophase I of Meiosis ?

A

14

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5
Q

Homologous chromosomes separate at what specific stage of Meiosis?

A

Anaphase I

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6
Q

In a color-blind male human, how many copies of the mutant color-blindness allele would be present in a somatic cell at Prophase?

A

2

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7
Q

The idea that new organs and tissues arise each generation (de novo) is most consistent with which hereditary theory?

A

Epigenesis

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8
Q

In a breed of sheep, only males have horns and males with horns always pass this phenotype to their sons. The Best explanation for this inheritance pattern is?

A

the horn locus is holandric

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9
Q

A phenotypic ratio of 1:1:1:1 is the expected result from a ________ cross?

A

dihybrid recessive backcross

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10
Q

If two plants are crossed and the phenotypic ratio in the progeny is found to be 9:3:4, the genotypes of these plants is most likely:

A

AaBb x AaBb

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11
Q

Pleiotrophy is a genetic term best illustrated by which of the following:

A

two traits affected by one locus

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12
Q

A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio is one classic signature of the ________ mode of inheritance.

A

incomplete dominance

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13
Q

The _______ Rule can be used to combine two or more _____ Ratios to form _____ Ratios.

A

Product / Segregation / Assortment

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14
Q

A “Crisscross” inheritance pattern is frequently observed in the ____ Mode of Inheritance.

A

sex-linked

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15
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

Tetraploid?

A

20

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16
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

Trisomy?

A

11

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17
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

Monosomy?

A

9

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18
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

Triploid?

A

15

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19
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

3N+1

A

16

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20
Q
  1. If non‐dysjunction occurs during Meiosis Anaphase II. What is not separating properly?
A

Sister Chromatids

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21
Q

What is not separating properly during mitotic non‐dysjunction?

A

Sister Chromatids

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22
Q

A chromosome has the following segments, where ● represents the centromere.
ABCD•EFGH

The chromosomal change to ABCD●EEFGH would be?

A

Duplication

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23
Q

A chromosome has the following segments, where ● represents the centromere.
ABCD•EFGH

The chromosomal change to AFE●DCBGH would be?

A

Inversion

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24
Q

A chromosome has the following segments, where ● represents the centromere.
ABCD•EFGH

The chromosomal change to ABCD●EFGNOP would be?

A

Translocation

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25
Q

Cri‐du‐chat is due to a?

A

terminal deletion

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26
Q

Male “tortoise shell” cats are rare but they do occur. The most likely cause of this phenotype would be a _________ involving the ________

A

trisomy / sex chromosomes

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27
Q

Dicentric chromatids are one common outcome of crossover in a ______ loop.

A

Inversion

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28
Q

A common method of producing seedless fruit such as watermelons is to make them ___

A

Autopolyploid

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29
Q

The term Endopolyploidy explains variation frequently found in _____ cells of vertebrates.

A

Liver

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30
Q

Maternal Age effect was first associated with which chromosomal syndrome?

A

Down’s

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31
Q

The form of DNA described in Watson‐Crick model was the _____ form

A

Beta (β)

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32
Q

In deoxyribose, the 2’ C has a(n) ____ attached to it.

A

H

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33
Q

Using the rules established in the Watson‐Crick model, a dsDNA fragment that contains 3000 base pairs would be ____________ nm long.

A

1020

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34
Q

Complementarity in DNA structure describes ____________

A

hydrogen bonding between bases

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35
Q

When in an electrical field, DNA will travel toward the ____ charged electrode because DNA is ________ charged.

A

positively / negatively

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36
Q

DNAase, RNAse and Protease were key components of the genetic experiments conducted by?

A

Avery, MacLeod and McCarty

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37
Q

If a DNA molecule of 80 base pairs contains 15 cytosines (C), how many Thymines (T) will it have?

A

65

38
Q

Phosphodiester bonds connect nucleotides at the _____________________

A

3’ and 5’ carbons

39
Q

A fragment of dsDNA that is 3000 base pairs long would have __________ Phosphodiester bonds

A

5998

40
Q

Research by ________ provided the first strong evidence that the Tetranucleotide Hypothesis of DNA structure was not correct.

A

Chargaff

41
Q

The core structure of Ribose is a ring containing 1 Oxygen and ____ Carbons

A

4

42
Q

The enzyme that helps break dsDNA into the ssDNA form needed for replication is referred to as _

A

Helicase

43
Q

In eukaryotic cells, replication only occurs once at each replication start site because ___ attach to the DNA early in the cell cycle

A

Licensing factors

44
Q

Immediately following replication, how many dsDNA molecules would be present in a somatic cell of a human?

A

92

45
Q

The lagging strand produced during DNA replication is caused by?

A

the 5’ to 3’ polarity restriction of DNA polymerase

46
Q

Replication begins at specific sequences called ________

A

origins

47
Q

During replication, ________ binds to an RNA primer and catalyzes the formation of new DNA Strands. It also exhibits exonuclease activity.

A

DNA Pol

48
Q

The essential, base material required for DNA synthesis is:

A

dNTP

49
Q

What would be the result if an organism’s telomerase were mutated and nonfunctional?

A

Chromosomes would shorten each generation

50
Q

Which of following enzymes replaces RNA primers with DNA fragments?

A

DNA polymerase

51
Q

DNA binds to nucleosomes because the outside of histones are ___________

A

positively charged

52
Q

The model hypothesized to explain the condensation of DNA into chromosomes is termed the __________________ model

A

folded fiber

53
Q

If a gene were to contain 8,000 base pairs, approximately how many nucleosomes would be present in this DNA region?

A

40

54
Q

Researchers can usually detect that a cell is very close to entering Mitosis or Meiosis by the appearance of a highly specialized protein that is involved in condensation. This protein is?

A

lamin

55
Q

A species of fish is found to have 10X more DNA than a closely related species. This finding would represent an example of the ________________

A

C-value paradox

56
Q

Centromeres and Telomeres are frequently used as examples of _____

A

constitutive heterochromatin

57
Q

The “Type of Nucleotides” found in a region of a chromosome produce its __________

A

banding pattern

58
Q

The genotypes you generated as data in the Molecular Genotyping laboratory exercise were produced from Microsatellite regions of the DNA. Microsatellites are usually considered to represent what class of nucleotides found on Cot curves ?

A

highly repetitive (HR)

59
Q

Regions of DNA that comprise what are traditionally called Genes are most commonly associated with _____

A

unique DNA

60
Q

Unique DNA accounts for approximately _____ percent of the Human genome

A

5%

61
Q

Degradation of a eukaryotic mRNA is generally protected by ___

A

Poly(A) tail

62
Q

The first posttranscriptional modification during the maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes is:

A

G-capping

63
Q

In a Consensus Model of a Eukaryotic Gene, specific regions found upstream of a gene which control the RATE and COPY NUMBER of transcription are termed _____

A

CCAAT Box

64
Q

RNA is transcribed from ssDNA in a 5’ – 3’ direction. (True / False)

A

True

65
Q

___contain short sequences (motifs) critical in regulating the binding of RNA Pol to the
DNA strand

A

Promoters

66
Q

Termination site of transcription usually is

A

GC rich

67
Q

Lariat structure are often associated with _________

A

spliceosomes

68
Q

A locus in the mitochondria of a fruit fly is found to code for a protein of 600 amino acids. What is the minimum number of nucleotides that would be needed to efficiently code for this peptide?

A

1804

69
Q

The _____ site of the ______ is where the first tRNA inserts during Translation.

A

P / small subunit

70
Q

Some amino acids could be coded by more one codon. The term associated with this property of the genetic code is:

A

degenerate

71
Q

Each of the following are Stop / Term codons except?

A

UCA

72
Q

Which of following activities occurs in the cytoplasm:

A

Translation

73
Q

Peptidyl transferase is active during____ and is a _____:

A

Translation, protein

74
Q

If a point mutation occurs where A replaces C, this would be a ______ mutation

A

transversion

75
Q

The insertion of a retro-transposon near the VvmybA1 gene is one mutation producing __

A

white grapes

76
Q

A change at the nucleotide level that results in a change in an amino acid?

A

missense

77
Q

Depurination and Deamination based mutations are generally considered ____ mutations?

A

spontaneous

78
Q

The oxidative modification of G in DNA leads to the formation of 8-oxodG, which pairs with ____ resulting in mutation

A

T

79
Q

The most common form of Sickle Cell Anemia is an example of ____ mutation

A

point mutation

80
Q

Usually, ______ sequences are part of and at both ends of most transposable elements

A

Terminal inverted repeat

81
Q

The most cost efficient (in terms of energy) place for a cell to regulate gene expression is:

A

Transcription

82
Q

If you were asked to describe how “genes” are distributed on chromosomes, the best answer
would be: Genes are __________________________

A

concentrated in random, separated areas

83
Q

A Constitutive “gene” is one that is _______ and a good example would be ________

A

always on / tRNA

84
Q

Removal (disassociation) of a Repressor protein from a gene’s Promoter region by the formation of a Repressor / Activator complex is one example of _____ Gene Regulation

A

Negative

85
Q

A Glucocorticoid Response Element is a ____________________

A

a DNA region that is attached to by a receptor protein

86
Q

While there may be reasons that someone might not want to drink cows’ milk containing the hormone rBGH, the amount of hormone in the milk is generally not a direct problem for humans because ______________

A

human cells do not generally have receptor proteins that recognize rBGH

87
Q

Acetylation and De-Acetylation of ________ is one way that transcription of DNA is commonly regulated. Acetylation generally permits transcription while De-Acetylation blocks transcription.

A

Histone “tails”

88
Q

Fruit flies exhibit the ______ Mode of Sex Determination with _______ of the mRNA from the tra gene being responsible for development of the gender phenotype

A

Lygaeus / alternate splicing

89
Q

In mammals, only the paternal allele for the Insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF2) locus is active. This occurs because the _____ on the homolog provided by the male is methylated.

A

Insulator

90
Q

Loci were the expression of alleles is determined by the parent that contributed the allele as in the example given in Question 49 above are examples of _____

A

Genetic Imprinting