test versions Flashcards by Joe L

The real time accurate knowledge of ones own location and orientation, as well as the location of friendly forces, enemy forces, and non-combatants. It includes awareness of METT-T conditions that affect the operation

Situational awareness

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What are the negative affects of fratricide? Hesitation to conduct___, loss of ___, increase in leader___, hesitation to use____, over supervision of___, loss of ____, loss of ___, disrupted ___, needless loss of__, general degradation of ____

Limited vis ops
Loss ofConfidence in unit leadership
Self doubt
Supporting combat systems
Oversupervision of Units
Loss of Initiative
Loss of Aggressiveness during fire and maneuver
Disrupted Operations
Loss of Combat power
Cohesion and morale

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What types of control measures may be employed to prevent fratricide?

Direct fire weapon control measures, indirect fire control measures, rehearsals, graphics, and ROC-V

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If several projectiles are fired from the same weapon with the same elevation and deflection settings the individual points of impact will be scattered around the aim point, this is called?

Dispersion

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Fragmentation pattern length _____ with high angle impacts.

Decreases

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What are the interior ballistics? (BPPLT)

Barrel wear, propellant charges, projectile weight, launcher tube and rocket pod alignment, and thrust misalignment

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What are the exterior ballistics? (GAYPW)

Air resistance, gravity, yaw, projectile drift, and wind drift

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Max effective range: distance at which there is a ____ probability of both_____&___.

50%
Hitting and defeating a target

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4 types of ballistics?

Interior, exterior, aerial, and terminal

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What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets?

Inherent thrust misalignment

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When Projectile drift and trajectory shift combine with each other?

Port starboard effect

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With the ____ selected sight, lead angle compensation is not computed or added to the gun turret or rocket pylon position, nor is the target state estimator employed

IHADSS

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What is gunners triangle? (THRS)

Tgt ID, HDG, RNG, Store, wpn emplymnt

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What are the 2 types of fire?

Direct and indirect

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5 modes of fire per TC 3-04.3? (HMRD RD)

Hover, Moving, running, diving, and running diving

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5 techniques of fire IAW D-ATM? (HRDLowDR)

Hover, running, diving, low alt bump, diving/running

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What are the inherent advantages of diving fire? (Decrease, increase, smaller)

Decreased vulnerability to small arms, increased accuracy, and smaller beaten zone.

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Low altitude bump maximizes benefits of running and diving fire: low altitude run in with a ______ ft bump about ______ m prior to TGT

300-1,000 ft bump

1.5-2K

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4 Ts

TGT, TRQ, TRM, TGT

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Neutralization

temporay, 10%

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Neutralization requires ____ to hit the target and ____. Neutralization damage to a target can ____

weapons efects, cause damage to it, temporarily remove it from battlefield

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Fragmentation effects can be expected from M789 HEDP 30mm round within _____ radius.

4 meter

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What are the visual markings of M789 30 MM HEDP? Black and yellow!!

Black with yellow band

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During running rocket fire align the helo into firing constraints with the ______ while maintaining____

Cyclic

Trim

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When rockets are selected in the FXD mode the pylons are commanded to the fixed position of ______

3.48 degrees

The bursting radius of the M151 HD 10lber� is ____ and can produce a lethality radius in excess of_____

10m 50m

When conducting AWS harmonization the tgt should be located ______ in from of a/c

500-1500m

Gun duty cycle: ____ rd bursts with ___ between bursts, followed by a ____ cooling period. Burst settings other than___ the duty cycle can be generalized to mean that no more than ____ are fired within ____ before allowing gun to cool for _____ after which cycle may be repeated.

6x 50 rd bursts 5 sec 10 min 50 300 rds 60 sec 10 min

Gun duty cycle warning: if ____ have been fired in the preceding ___ and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain ______. A/c crew should remain in the a/c and continue positive gun cntrl.

300 or more rds. 10 min Clear of a/c for 30 min

Software limits of 30 mm is?

4,200 m

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to____ elevation to prevent _____ into ground during landing.

plus 11 digging

The M789 30 mm rd is a ____ rd and will penetrate more than ____ of RHA (____) at ____m

High explosive 2 in Rolled homogenous armor 2,500 m

Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating NVS fixed mode?

Yes

Where will the AWS be positioned in Fixed mode?

Gun = 0 deg azm and +.87 deg elvtn.

In the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight the gun will remain in ____ , gun firing ___. When the gun is de-actioned it will ____

In the LAST COMMAND position Inhibited Return to STOW

What is the caution associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch on the load maint. Panel?

No indication in cockpit if in AIR position.

What 3 types of rounds can 30mm accommodate?

M848 dummy M788 tgt prctc M789 HEDP

What is the rate of fire for 30mm cannon?

625 +/- 25

Wing stores pylons are commanded to single fixed position of ____ when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than _____.

pos 4 deg >5 sec

The PEN button on the rocket control page may be used to defeat bunkers up to _____ thick when the BNK is selected.

3 m

With Hellfire rails on pylons 2 and 3 and rockets on 1 and 4 what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?

A x 24 B x 8 E x 6

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to teh ARS pg when in co-op mode?

Yes

Due to the possibility of surging the engines fire no more than ___ with ___ launchers every ___ or fire with only ____ outboard launcher installed w/o restrictions.

Pairs 2 outboard launchers 3 sec One

Max range for MK66 rockets?

7,500 m

Aerial rocket subsystem can be employed independently by either crew with the active sight is ____&___; _____CPG only

HMD, FCR, and MTADS (CPG only)

Rocket Pylons articulate independently through a range of _____

+4 to -15 deg

During live fire testing shows that rockets achieve their best effectiveness between _______

3-5k

What are the different modes pylons can operate in? (GFAF)

Ground stow, flight stow, articulation, and fixed

On pre-flight the jettison plunger should be checked for proper gap to ensure____

Jettison will occur properly

The RKT pg is crew station independent pg for independent engagements

True

M151 warhead HE is _____ and referred to as _____

Anti-personnel & anti-material The 10lber

M274 warhead is the smoke signature training rocket which will match the ballistic settings of the _____

M151 warhead

A HF-II that does receive a R09 msg from the firing a/c is considerd a _____

Enhanced HF-II

When offset laser designating a target what is the recommended terminal laser time?

6 sec for grnd rng up to 5 km, 2 additional sec for each additional KM

Define the 60 deg, preferably 45 deg, designator offset angle.

the angle between the GTL and LTL

for each _____ increase in launcher alt above RMIN/RMAX must be adjusted IAW ____

1,000 ft increase IAW table 14 hellfire supplement

what are the 4 sections/assemblies of the hellfire missile (GWCP)

guidance warhead control propulsion

when firing a SAL missile autonomously an offset of ______ deg should be used to preclude missile flying through TADS FOV and preventing_____

3-5 deg the video being obscured by missile exhaust

trajectory: cnstrnts bx drvr: LOBL ? LOAL DIR ? LOAL FLAT/LOFT ?

LOBL Missile Seeker LOAL DIR Selctd LOS (HMD or TADS) FLAT/LOFT ACQ wndw or selected LOS

for P+ and Romeo SAL missiles the allowable angle is _____ for LOBL and _____for LOAL

20 deg LOBL 30 deg LOAL

what is min cloud ceiling to fire "R" model missile in any mode?

1,500 ft

what does TME emulate and replicate? capability to simulate ___. TRAIN mode enables a _____TME loaded in the _____ that provides the capability of simulating_____

RF MSL ops Training mode emulator Missile launcher RF missile ops

what symbol will appear on the RF missile icon if the maximum allowable elapsed ON time is exceeded?

OT 30min (max time)

what is "transfer alignment"? ____ receiving updated ____ data from a/c to update ____. it occurs ____ at _____ and requires____

MSL rcvng INU data to update Missile inertial platform it occurs automtcly @ missile pwr up and requires no P action

What are the 3 ACQ sources that may provide TGT information for an RF missile handover?

FCR TADS IDM

Can the BACKSCATTER inhibit be overridden by the trigger second detent?

How long must you lase a TGT before the message "TARGET DATA?" blanks in HAD?

3-5 sec

Doppler beam sharperning: uses a ____ to induce___ between a ____ and ___ by flying an___ to the tgt

Curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary tgt and its background by flying an off axis flight path to the tgt.

What kind of DBS trajectory will a missile fly if the tgt is to the left of centerline?

To the right

What is min eff rng of an ENHANCED 'R' LOBL engagement with a 0 deg and 20 deg offset from the ADL?

0 deg=500 20 deg=1,200

What are the 3 modes the RF missile operates in?

STTBY PRE LAUNCH POST LAUNCH

The FCR will provide reliable data while maneuvering up to _____ roll, ___ to ___ in pitch.

20 roll 20 to -15 in pitch

GTM/RMAP FOV=

W=90 M=45 N= 30 Z=15

Which priority scheme emphasizes only stationary and grnd tgts?

Moving and stationary tgts become stale after?

moving=5 sec stationary=30 sec

single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV gives you___

3 scans

When the FCR detects a moving tgt at distances _____the RF missile will always default to____

500m - 8k LOBL

____ improves STI detecetion and classification and moving tgt indicator (MTI) classification

scan to scan

The ____ is used to rapidly position the FCR centerline to the line of bearing of an emitting threat as detected by RFI

Cued search switch

How many RFI emitters can be tacked and displayed?

40 tracked 10 displayed

How is the #1 home plate emitter displayed?

Home plate

The RFI can detect and process pulse, pulse dopler, and continuous wave radar signals.

True

When receiving a RFHO the a/c must accept it within _____ min. If the crew has not accepted the RFHO within time the crew will observe a ______ msg in the wpn status inhibit section.

6 min DATA INVALID msg 5-7sec to fire????

What is the Max PRF lzr freq that may be entered?

1788

Squeezing the trigger to the 2nd detent provides____

Ranging and designation

When initiating Intrnl B/sght the sight is auto set to ____ and sensor will be set to ___ and ____ FOV

TADS DTV NARROW

if the FLIR not cooled when DTV is b/sghtd the FLIR b/sght will _____. however the DTV b/sght is _____

Fail valid

Will the FLIR b/sight be performed if the DTV b/sght fails?

What 3 things will cause the LOS reticle on flight smbology to flash?

LOS invalid/selected NVS at its limits Gun is selected wpn and has failed/not following crew head

RGHT TEDAC LFT TEDAC Collective switches

sght select swtch FCR scan size swtch WPN action swtch

high action display fields

know them

FCR icons

know them

Missile display icons on WPN pgs

know them

Internal b/sght shall B performed as part of preflight procedures prior to _____ when the TADS is the LOS

use of laser or weapons

What does a solid asterisk displayed in front of range indicate? Flashing asterisk?

valid range multiple range returns

Can you override "NAV DATA INVALID" in sight status field, or "ACCEL LIMIT" in wpn inhibit status field?

How many PF zones can be displayed on TSD? How many active? Same question w/NF zone?

PF 8 dsplyd, 1 actv NF 8 8

Default range CPG____ and PLT____

CPG 3k plt 1.5k

For dynamic harmonization the A/C hdg to the tgt will be _____

0 deg +/- 5

____ is the mode of fire that employs multiple missiles launched with two or more unique laser channel codes

Ripple fire

When TADS LOS and missile seeker los differ more than ____ BACKSCATTER msg wil display in wpn inhibit section of HAD

2 deg

DBS, dplr bm, uses a curved trajectory to induce a relative motion for stationary (STI) tgts to enhance the probability of detection and tracking between _____

2.5-8k

TME allows for thermal managment of the missles by allowing for a cumulative time of of _____

30 min

min eng rng LOAL DIR SAL "R (R09 msg)" missile offset, 0 deg____ 30 deg___

0 deg= 1500 30 deg= 2000