more fucking gunnery Flashcards
1
Q
What is the Max PRF lzr freq that may be entered?
A
1788
2
Q
Squeezing the trigger to the 2nd detent provides____
A
Ranging and designation
3
Q
When initiating Intrnl B/sght the sight is auto set to ____ and sensor will be set to ___ and ____ FOV
A
TADS
DTV
NARROW
4
Q
During the TADS drift null the aim point should remain within the _______
A
TDV NFOV for 30 sec
5
Q
The initial auto int b/sght process takes apxmtly _____ due to the cue search process and subsequent b/sghts take apprxmtly ____ as the use AZ and EL data from initial b/sght
A
2 min
30 sec
6
Q
if the FLIR not cooled when DTV is b/sghtd the FLIR b/sght will _____. however the DTV b/sght is _____
A
Fail
valid
7
Q
When should you perform internal b/sght for TADS?
A
before use of laser or weapons with TADS
8
Q
max allowable regisration error is ___ @ ___ which can be estimated by using the open area of the LOS reticle which is equivalent to ____
A
2-5 ft @ 90 ft
2ft @ 90 ft
9
Q
Will the FLIR b/sight be performed if the DTV b/sght fails?
A
No
10
Q
To check the b/sight correctors the Plt/CPG must access the _____ pg initially then ___ and appropriate system
A
DMS
Boresight
11
Q
What 3 things will cause the LOS reticle on flight smbology to flash?
A
LOS invalid/selected
NVS at its limits
Gun is selected wpn and has failed/not following crew head
12
Q
RGHT TEDAC
LFT TEDAC
Collective switches
A
sght select swtch
FCR scan size swtch
WPN action swtch
13
Q
high action display fields
A
know them
14
Q
FCR icons
A
know them
15
Q
Missile display icons on WPN pgs
A
know them
16
Q
Internal b/sght aligns the TADS ____ to the Laser LOS and the ____ to the____ LOS
A
aligns TADS DTV to laser, and FLIR to the DTV LOS
17
Q
Internal b/sght shall B performed as part of preflight procedures prior to _____ when the TADS is the LOS
A
use of laser weapons
18
Q
_____ b/sght must be performed successfully before FLIR b/sght can be performed.
A
DTV
19
Q
What does a solid asterisk displayed in front of range indicate? Flashing asterisk?
A
valid range
multiple range returns
20
Q
what is min distance for range focus of the MTADS?
A
10ft in FLIR
21
Q
How many bursts of laser energy are fired when pulling the RH ORT grip trigger to the first detent?
A
3
22
Q
____ FOV are normally used for tgt acq, while ____ are used for tgt id and engagment
A
M & N
N & Z
23
Q
the LMC requires an accurate _____ while maneuvering
A
range
24
Q
when storing a TGT w/the TADS using UPDT/ST swtch on the ORT Lft Hnd grp, a TGT XX msg will display where and for how long?
A
WPNS inhibit field
4 sec
25
with 1,000 database the shared points are stored in locations _____-____
100-950
26
TADS footprint symbol on TSD will change from_____ to ____ when TADS lasing.
Green to white
27
What do teh TADS FOV brackets sorounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if they're not present?
what's displayed in next FOV
you're in zoom
28
When operating in the TESS/wpns TNG mode, what is displayed in the wpns inhibit sctn. of the HAD when the system is armed?
Training
29
Min alt. for auto ranging is apx. ___ with a ____lookdown angle
5 m w/.1 deg lookdown angle
30
Can you override "NAV DATA INVALID" in sight status field, or "ACCEL LIMIT" in wpn inhibit status field?
no
31
CNTRL msrs are numbered ______ & ____
51-99 & 100-950
32
During rapid fire engagement the max seperation btwen tgts should not exceed ____ M with atleast a ____sec seperation betwen missile launches
100m w/ atleast 8 sec between missile launches
33
On the COORD pg the _____ VABs are used to make a WP, CM, or TGT and ACQ source.
L1-L6
34
When you WAS a wpn system, that wpn sys ICON (top lvl wpns pg) will turn_____
inverse
35
Describe the crewmembers priority for WAS logic? What is the one exception____?
COOP
describe WAS logic??????
36
How many PF zones can be displayed on TSD? How many active? Same question w/NF zone?
PF 8 dsplyd, 1 actv
NF 8 8
37
What is the max range that can be entered manually?
50k in 1m increments
38
What does the cross-hatch symbol coding on the A/S status window indicate?
WPN actioned
39
What happens if you place the SYMB bttn (B2) to the BOOST position?
Darken video underlay to boost the apparent video brightness
40
Pressing the ZOOM VIEW on th evideo pg will result in?
2x original view
41
The TSD FCR footpring will change from ____ to ____ lines whent the FCR is scalling.
Green to White
42
What are the available size selections for a TRP PF zone? what is default?
1,2, and 3K
2k def
43
label missile icons: OT, R, CT, MF
over temp
ready
tracking
missile failed
44
Can a tgt or a threat be added to a route on the TSD?
yes
45
What is the max laser delay time for a 8K SAL enhanced missile engagment?
NORM 15
FLAT 12
46
Default range CPG____ and PLT____
CPG 3k
plt 1.5k
47
The ____ is used for the transmision of the FCR NTS via the IDS to another longbow.
RFHO
48
FCR scan wiper symbol will be _____ ss
and cs will be _____
White SS
Green CS
49
FCR pg will display _____ tgt symbols. these tgts represent ____ tgts detected and classified
16
highest priority
50
Is the LST capable of tracking PIM coded laser energy?
yes, needs appropriate key word
51
Will FCR tgts detected within an active NF zone be prioritized?
No
52
What 2 conditions must be met to enter and exit trn mode?
safe & no WAS (TESS disabled??)
53
the internal aux fuel syst (IAFS) incorporates a 100 gal fuel tank and ammo storage mag capable of holding appx ____rds and ____ in the AHS allowing for appx. a ____rd capability.
300 rds total
58 in AHS
242 in MAG
54
when ammo is loaded using side loader there is apx. _____ rd space between the sie loader and gun
40
55
What is the color of the M788 TP (tgt prctc) rd?
blue w/white stripe
56
What is the depression limit of the gun turret assembly while on the ground with the GND ORIDE button selected on?
-6.45
57
WPN perf. and safety inhibits are controlled by the ______
MP
58
For dynamic harmonization the A/C hdg to the tgt will be _____
+- 5 deg
59
What is turret bending and will MP compensate for this phenomenon
airframe and and gun turret experiening flexure in response to sustained recoil
yes
60
The gunner must compensate for lead angle compensation when using which of the available sights?
HMD
61
the TSE (tgt state est.) will nominall take ____ for altorithims to settle to provide a proper lead angle
10 sec
62
the ground stow mode commands the pylons to a stow position of ____ so that the wing stores are level with the terrain
-5 deg
63
During preflight and all live fires when AWS has been used, the _____ will be inspected by the crew for cracks
barrel
64
at APX ____ frwrd sped (indicated) the rotor disk is pitched forward so that the influence vector is just aft of the rocket launcher front bulkhead, thus reducing downwash to zero
33 kts
65
If you have FCR as your selected sight what message will be displayed if there is no NTS tgt?
NAV DATA INVALID
66
Live fire testing shows tht most rockets achieve best effects between _______
3-5k
67
Min range to tgt firing Flechette rockets is _____m. The effective range with MK 66 rkt motors is ______
800m
1-3k
68
T/F the MP assigns a default of 3 SAL missiles for both channels if sufficient missiles are available in the NORM mode with SAL SEL.
True
69
____ is the mode of fire which involves firing multiple SAL missiles withe the same laser code of multiple RF missiles
Rapid fire
70
____ is the mode of fire that employs multiple missiles launched with two or more unique laser channel codes
Ripple fire
71
SAL LOBL missile constraints box is driven by the ______
missile seeker
72
SAL LOAL DIR mode the missile constraints box is being driven by_____
LOS
73
For a 4.5k SAL HF engagement the last ____ needs to be steady on tgt time (terminal guidance)
6 sec
74
What are the 3 phases of gunnery program?
individual, aircrew, and collective phases
75
What is the capacity of the ammunication storage magazine?
max 1,110 rds
76
the IAFS incorporates a 100 gal fuel tank and ammo storage magazine capable of holding _____ and ____ in AHS totaling 300 rds
242
58
77
The ammo can be loaded through the sideloader in bulk individual rounds or _____ rd strips
11 rd strips
78
When ammo is loades using the sideloader, there is approximately _____ rd space between the sideloader and the gun
40
79
30mm M789 HEDP color?
blck w/ylw band
80
fragmentation radius of 30mm M789 HEDP?
4m
81
30mm M789 HEDP shaped charge liner can penetrate exces of ____ of RHA at ____
2in at 2,500m
82
30mm M788 TP color
Blue w/white stripe
83
what are the 3 types of 30mm used for firing
M788
M789
M848
84
In the event of low hydraulic pressure and or loss of electrical power the stow spring will position the gun cradle in elevation of_____
+11
85
What are AZ and EL limits of the gun turret assembly while on the ground with the grnd ovrde button selected on?
AZ 86 d L/R
EL +9 within 10 d of the nose +11 to 86 d depression
86
If missiles are selected and the priority missile is on the inboard launcher the MP or WP limits the guns azimuth to _____ on that side
52d
87
If rockets are selected and the selected rocket type is on the inboard launcher the MP or WP limites the gun azimuth to ____
60 d
88
Max eff rng of the M230E1 auto gun?
1,500-1,700m
89
what component drives the gun bold assembly to the open bold position after firing using dynamic braking?
Drive motor
90
What is the max ballistic solution of the M230E1 auto gun?
4,200m
91
What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M230E1 auto gun?
625 +/- 25
92
which component of the AWS performs the functions of turret cueing control and serves as a MUX remote terminal under the MP control?
GSC
93
You are in the pilot crewstation and the CPG actions GUN: what will you see in your HAD and what status field?
C-GUN
WPN control status field
94
You are in the CPG crewstation and you action GUN will the checkerboard pattern be aplied to the PLT WPN pg arm/safe status window?
no
95
fixed mode places gun in ____
0 deg in AZ
+.87 deg EL
96
If the round count in the GUN icon is incorrect how do you input the proper round count?
WPNS----UTIL-----LOAD
97
Can you confirm your selected sight on the wpn pg?
yes
98
Can you confirm your selected sight on the FCR page?
yes
99
trn mode: What message will be displayed in HAD?
Gun will simulate wpn inventor of _____rds?
Training
888
100
Gun dynamic harm is available to the CPG to improve the accuracy of the 30mm, the CPG places the TADS NFOV on a tgt between _____
500-1,500m
101
Laser pointer should only be used for tgt _____ and pointing
illumination
102
to distinguish on elaser pointer using HGH or LOW from another pointer ____ can be selected.
Pulse
103
T/F when laser pointer b/sght fail status window appears the crew shold repeat steps?
True
104
Whe wpn trigger is activated the laser pointer is deactivated adn gunfire could be delayed as much as _____
.75s
105
t/f sunburst symbol is displayed to both crew upon activation of laser pointer?
TRue
106
4 types of ballistics that affect a/c fired wpns?
Interior
exterior
aerial
terminal
107
What is turret bending?
Will MP compensat for this phenomenon
flexure in response to sustained recoil
yes
108
gunner must comensate for lead angle compensation when using what sight?
why?
HMD
TSE is not computed for it
109
What effect does teh combo of trajector shift and projectile drit produce?
port starboard effect
110
How much compensation is requried for projectile jump when firing from a hover?
zero
none
111
the gun is inhibited for ____ after a missile or rocket launch
2 sec
112
rocket pylons are independently controlled through a range of _____ in elevation
+4 to -15 deg
113
the ____ provides interface between MP or WP and pylon discrete signals
PIU
114
the flight mode is auto commanded to takeoff when the squat switche indicated airborne for more than _____
5 sec
115
The stores jettison panel allows for ____ jett of wing stores while emer jett bttn will jettison _____
Individual-strs jett panel
all-emr jett bttn
116
the pylons are positioned to grnd stow (wpn util pg) which commands the pylons to _____
-5 deg
117
M151 warhead has a burst radius of ____ and a lethal radius of ____
10
50
118
the total rockets status window is displayed when there is a difference between the # of rockets available for firing and _____
number of rockets actually selected for firing
119
the PEN bttn will display when the ____ fuze is loaded and can defeat bunkers up to ____
6 RC wrhd
3m thic bunkers
120
the M261 MPSM wrhd contains _____ M73 submunitions that will produce 195 (10 grn) high verocity fragments that travel up to 5,000 ft per sec and the shaped charge can penetrate more than ____ armor
m261 contains 9 M73 subs
penetrate more than 4 in or armor
121
due to possibility of surging engines do not fire rockets from the _____ stations. fire no more than ____ with two outboard launchers every ___ sec
inboard
pairs
3 sec
122
when the independent mode is used only the ____ crew trigger is active
actioning
123
coop mode is only active when rkt systm is actioned via____
cpg tedac and plt cyclic
124
ballistic that describes the characteristics and effects of projectiles at the tgt?
terminal
125
Thrust misalighment is a characteristic of ____ ballistics
interior
126
Interior ballistics deals with characteristics that affect projectile motion inside the ______
gun barrel or rkt tube
127
the plt may have to pitch nose of a/c up when firing rkts beyond _____
pylons will articulate up to _____ to compensate
4500m
10dg/sec
128
2 types of rkt inhibits?
safety
performance
129
what does ALT LAUNCH msg indicate?
hellfire shot in progress
130
what msg will display when the action crew selected sight is FCR and ther is no NTS?
LOS invalid
131
max range for MK66?
7,500m
132
difference between SAL and RF missiles?
guidance
133
when M36 trng misslile is detected in launcher all live missiles on board the a/c display _____
n/a in missile icon
134
fuze arms missile when its launch acelleration exceeds apx _____
10 gs
135
AGM-114R min arm distance is ____
375m
136
AGM-114K2 typicaly arms_____ from launching a/c
182 m
137
when thrust of a missile exceeds _____ it will launch from rail
600-830lbs
138
AGM-114R missile thrust duration is appx ____ and reaches a max velocity of ____
2.5-3.5 sec
845 K (1.32mach)
139
Which component of the M299 launcher contains the trng missil emulator (TME) which replicates RF missile ops?
LEA
140
Which MPD pg allows arcrw to electronically arm M299 missile launcher?
WPN UTIL pg
141
wat are normal pylon articuation limits when missile or rkts are actioned?
+4 to -15
142
Min alt to launch SAL missile?
32 ft
143
ALT channel only available after____
PRIM channel selected
144
missile quantity defaults to ___for both channels if sufficient missiles are availble of the selected warhead
3
145
______ bttn is used to maintain AGM-114R missiel in LOAL flight trajectory
LOBL INHIBIT
146
what is tri service PRF code range?
1111-1178
147
Laser detractor during tgt illumination will cause lser energy to be masked within the tgt?
entrapment
148
3 LOAL traj modes in which AGM-114R missile can be deployed?
DIR
FLAT
LOFT
149
When TADS LOS and missile seeker los differ more than ____ BACKSCATTER msg wil display in wpn inhibit section of HAD
2 deg
150
msg BACKSCATTER displayed in wpns inhibit section of HAD is a safety inhibit and the missile cannot be launched by suqeezing the wpn trigger to the second detent.
True
151
range to fire AGM-114K or AGM-114R missile employing LOBL traj is
min: 500m
max: 1200m
152
When lzr designating a 5000m tgt for Romeo missle the last ____ TOF is required to be on tgt
6 sec
2 additional sec for every 1k
153
Romeo LOFT cnstrnts box driven by
LOFT and FLAT: coord data in ACQ
LOS when stored coord not in ACQ
154
Remote designator should not be displaced more than ____ in azm from launch a/c to tgt line.
43 deg legacy missile
Romeo 30 deg
155
max autonomous designation range is limited by_____
designator's ability to accurately maintain laser spot on tgt
156
during remote designation employing Kilo remote designator must be positioned _____
outside +43 d of GSL (gunner shot line) and inside +60 deg designator inclusion angle
157
in ripple mode after prim channel missile is launched, alt channel missile may be launched after ____
1.5 sec separation
158
for autonomous eng. a/c should be oriented ____ to the sie from missile will be launched
3-5 deg
159
AGM 114L missile mode selections are _____ in each crewstation
common in each crewstation
160
In the Auto power mode the missiles are powered up at ______
10 min intervals
161
2nd tgt inhibit is used for eng against _____
stationary tgts only
162
RF missiels can overheat (OT) if it is radiating (tracking) more than ______
3 min
163
3 RF missile modes?
stand-by
pre-launch
post-launch
164
in pre-launch mode what are the 3 methods of tgt H/O to rf missile?
FCR
TADS
IDM
165
DBS, dplr bm, uses a curved trajectory to induce a relative motion for stationary (STI) tgts to enhance the probability of detection and tracking between _____
2.5-8k
166
at a range of ______ tgts are to close for LOAL and must be LOBL or "NO ACQUIRE" msg will be displayed
500-1000m
167
3 RF misile acquisition modes are?
TTA
PTA
MTA
terminal track acq
preterminal track acq
moving tgt acq
168
"BACKSCATTER" safety or perf inhibit?
safety
169
RF missile radiation hazard area?
from missile nose out 1m and 45 deg polar from missile centerline
170
When in trn mode all tactical missile icons will display _____
N/A in missile icon
171
TME allows for thermal managment of the missles by allowing for a cumulative time of of _____
30 min
172
With teh TRAIN mode selected when a wpn systm is actioned the wpns inhibit field will display_____
SAFE when a/c in safe mode
173
which radar factor does a narrower radar beam width improve?
amount of power
174
a/c uses what type of radar systm?
pulse radar
175
during the periods btwn xmissions of pulsed radar syst, what is radar doing?
listening
176
what are the 3 major components of longbow fcr?
MMA (Mst mntd assmbly)
REU (radar electronic unit)
RFI processor
177
How is MMA (fcr) cooled?
cooling fan
178
How are components of FCR cooled? other than MMA.
ECS
179
Can u initiate PBIT of FCR if it has timed out under extreme cold?
Yes
180
4 things u must ensure before FCR power up
MMA unpinned
Verify BPS b/sight offset value
HDG tape present, indicating INU alignment
EFAB temp < 63 deg
181
How many scan sizes available in FCR TGT modes?
4
182
Priority schemes w/in REU: A,B, C
B=?
Stationary
183
How can PLT and CPG move FCR?
PLT: ACQ, L/R arrows, & cued search
CPG: all above plus thumb force cntrllr
184
What does it mean if L/R arrows barrier on FCR?
FCR is slaved to ACQ source
185
What is max amount of detected tats that can be displayed on TSD pg?
NAV 16
ATK 256
186
Max tgts that can b displayed on FCR pg?
16
187
How many tgts FCR capable of detecting?
1,023
188
Full intensity FCR tgts indicate what?
Updated/new
189
FCR scan moving tgts will go stale after how long?
5 sec
190
When is NTS tgt establishe?
Completion of scan
191
4 ways to change the NTS
a) Cursor selection.
b) Selecting the NTS option at L1
c) RFHO
d) Firing an RF missile
192
When is NTS dashed?
A/c not armed
Not WASED
FCR not your sight
193
What FCR mode is displayed in a B scope/rectilinear format?
RMAP
194
What symbols will be available when changing between GTM and RMAP?
RMAP displays info that is not geometrically accurate. Grid related info will not be displayed
195
What is max detect range for stationary tgts displayed on FCR pg?
6k
196
What are the 2 STT requirements?
Zoom scan and continuous scan
197
Link is turned off if:
1) LINK mode is toggled off via a reselection of the LINK.
2) Change your selected Sight.
3) Change your Acquisition Source selection.
4) NVS mode switch is placed to NORM or FIXED with TADS as the selected Sensor.
The LINK mode is ignored when:
1) The crewmember’s selected sight is HMD.
2) No NTS target exists if linking the TADS to the FCR.
3) Either crew station is currently using the M-TADS as a sensor (NVS MODE switch is either NORM or FXD with TADS as the selected sensor).
4) Proper equipment not installed/operational. Both TADS and FCR must be operational in order for a link reference to occur.
5) FCR is selected sight and TADS is the Acquisition Source or TADS is the Sight and the FCR is the Acquisition Source.
198
If CPG has TADS linked to FCR NTS and pilot sight selects FCR what sight will MP assign CPG?
HMD
199
What are the 2 ways crew can store tgts when FCR pg tgt option is selected?
Individual or
All
200
What will happein of ALL option is selected from FCR TGT pg?
will store in sequence top 16 tgts
201
what happens if crew cursor selects a tgt icon when the tgt option is selected from FCR pg?
store it individually
202
How can crew store an FCR tgt from TSD pg and where will tgt B stored?
CAQ
stored in T50
203
who can send RFHO?
anyone
sight select FCR, NTS, IDM to Lngbw net
204
How long is RFHO timeout?
6 min
205
What does "NAV DATA INVALID" indicate?
FCR has been selected as the sight and RFHO data has been detected as outside optimum nav parameters for weapons engagement
206
when a RFHO is received what must you do to get infor in MP/WP?
select FCR
207
once a nts tgt has been accepted (RFHO?) what is the time limit to engage tgt?
no time limit
208
what classifications of FCR tgt icons can be displayed in ATM?
airborne?
209
What is the FCR symbol that will be presented when radar scan is conducted or the tail or attitude causes tail to interfere?
Blanking symbol
210
When operating the FCR is ATM, med, narrow, or zoom, can FCR centerline be repositioned to rear of a/c?
yes
211
what does TRN PRFL MD provide?
aid to navigaion
212
What controls scan size when operating in TPM?
ground speed
213
ground speed in TPM from wide to narrow and narrow to wide?
wide to narrow: exceeding 55k
narrow to wide: below 45k
214
How many obstacles can be displayed in TPM?
max 64
215
where can crew access info as to status of sight system?
fault pg
216
if FCR is shut down auto due to overheat, where will msg display and what is it?
DMS
FCR SHUTDOWN HOT
217
What does FCR MTI DEGR indicate?
FCR STI FAIL?
moving tgts, tgts may not be detected
stationary tgts, tgts may not be detected
218
what must crew do to use RFI if FCR fails or is not powered?
mechanically pin MMA
