Gunnery Test Flashcards

1
Q

The real time accurate knowledge of ones own location and orientation, as well as the location of friendly forces, enemy forces, and non-combatants. It includes awareness of METT-T conditions that affect the operation

A

Situational awareness

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2
Q

What are the frequent situational awareness breakdown categories?

A

Direct fire control, Nav, reporting, crosstalk, battle tracking, and weapons errors

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3
Q

What are the negative affects of fratricide? Hesitation to conduct___, loss of ___, increase in leader___, hesitation to use____, over supervision of___, loss of ____, loss of ___, disrupted ___, needless loss of__, general degradation of ____

A

Limited vis ops
Confidence in unit leadership
Self doubt
Supporting combat systems
Units
Initiative
Aggressiveness during fire and maneuver
Operations
Combat power
Cohesion and morale

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4
Q

What types of control measures may be employed to prevent fratricide?

A

Direct fire weapon control measures, indirect fire control measures, rehearsals, graphics, and ROC-V

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5
Q

___ problems can cause units to stray out of sector, report wrong location…..

A

Navigation

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6
Q

___training focuses on collective situational awareness, particularly at___. It includes….

A

Crew
Night

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7
Q

If several projectiles are fired from the same weapon with the same elevation and deflection settings the individual points of impact will be scattered around the aim point, this is called?

A

Dispersion

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8
Q

The altitude from which the projectile is fired and range to target determines_____

A

Impact and fragmentation pattern

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9
Q

Fragmentation pattern length _____ with high angle impacts.

A

Decreases

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10
Q

What are the interior ballistics? (BPPLT)

A

Barrel wear, propellant charges, projectile weight, launcher tube and rocket pod alignment, and thrust misalignment

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11
Q

What are the exterior ballistics? (PAGYW)

A

Air resistance, gravity, yaw, projectile drift, and wind drift

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12
Q

What are the aerial ballistics? (RATPCRTPP)

A

Rotor down wash, angular rate, turning bank, propellant force, center of gravity, relative wind effect, trajectory shift, port starboard effect, and projectile jump.

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13
Q

What are terminal ballistics? (BHF influenced by FWIS)

A

Blast, head, and fragmentation influenced by fuze and warhead functioning, impact angle, and surface conditions

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14
Q

Max effective range: distance at which there is a ____ probability of both_____&___.

A

50%
Hitting and defeating a target

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15
Q

Definition of ballistics? The science of___

A

Projectile motion and conditions that affect that motion

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16
Q

4 types of ballistics?

A

Interior, exterior, aerial, and terminal

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17
Q

What interior ballistics characteristics can the aircrew compensate for?

A

They cannot compensate for interior ballistics when firing free flight projectiles

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18
Q

What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets?

A

Inherent thrust misalignment

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19
Q

Which exterior ballistic is not compensated for by the WP/MP?

A

Yaw

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20
Q

What exterior ballistic causes clockwise spinning of projectile and movement to the right?

A

Projectile drift

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21
Q

Why is the aerial rocket system more accurate when fired from OGE vs IGE?

A

Greater dispersion at IGE because a/c cannot apply appropriate downwash compensation due to random induced flow patterns.

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22
Q

What is angular rate error and how compensate?

A

Error induced by pitch, roll and yaw of the launch platform as projectile leaves weapon. Compensate for with stable platform.

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23
Q

What are the aerial ballistic characteristics affecting fin stabilized projectiles?

A

Propellant force, CG, and relative wind

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24
Q

What causes a rocket to seek into a crosswind or impact past the target when fired during an accelerative climb?

A

Relative wind effect

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25
Projectile jump occurs when___. When does the jump occur?
A crew fires a weapon from an a/c in flight and the weapons muzzle is pointed in any direction other than into the relative wind. It occurs when the projectile experiences an initial yaw as it leaves the muzzle. The jump occurs due to the precession (change in axis of rotation) induced by crosswind and is proportional to projectiles initial yaw.
26
Is projectile jump compensated by WP/MP?
No
27
What determines amount of lead required when firing off axis L or R? (AARP)
A/C A/S, Angle of deflection, range (tgt), projectile velocity
28
When Projectile drift and trajectory shift combine with each other?
Port starboard effect
29
3 factors that that affect dispersion discussed in conjunction with terminal ballistics?
Vibration, sights, and boresights
30
An additional type of fragmentation produced by target structure itself?
Spall
31
At approximately ____ kts IAS, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher bulkhead, thus reducing downwash to ___
33 kts Zero
32
With the ____ selected sight, lead angle compensation is not computed or added to the gun turret or rocket pylon position, not is the target state estimator employed
IHADSS
33
What is gunners triangle? (THRS)
Tgt ID, HDG, RNG, Store
34
What are the 2 types of fire?
Direct and indirect
35
5 modes of fire per TC 3-04.3? (HMRD RD)
Hover, Moving, running, diving, and running diving
36
5 techniques of fire IAW D-ATM? (HRDLowDR)
Hover, running, diving, low alt bump, diving/running
37
Running fire performed at A/s ___ will offer a mix of _____
Above ETL A/C survival and weapons accuracy
38
What are the inherent advantages of diving fire? (Decrease, increase, smaller)
Decreased vulnerability to small arms, increased accuracy, and smaller beaten zone.
39
Low altitude bump maximizes benefits of running and diving fire: low altitude run in with a ______ ft bump about ______ m prior to TGT
300-1,000 ft bump 1.5-2K
40
4 Ts
TGT, TRQ, TRM, TGT
41
Techniques for applying burst on tgt include? (RML)
Recognition (ky wind), MIL Rad, and LZR
42
3 types of pull off per the ATM?
Descending, level, and climbing
43
What is the purpose of a pull off?
It is employed to enable the AH the safest possible departure from the TGT area.
44
What are the benefits of bump technique?
Maximizes advantage of running and diving fire
45
Describe MIL-relationship method of burst TGT engagement. (Fire, sense, using, make, continue)
Fire a burst at tgt Sense the impact of the rounds measure distance between point of impact and tgt, Using the known mail radian values determine weapon impact distance from tgt in range and deflection, Make appropriate change in range azimuth and adjust desired point of impact (DMPI), Continue engagement.
46
Why is TGT fixation a problem?
TGT fixation may cause the pilot to fly the a/c into the ground.
47
What firing technique is used in a medium to high threat environment?
Bump technique
48
Neutralization knocks out a tgt_____
Temporarily
49
Fragmentation effects can be expected from M789 HEDP 30mm round within _____ radius.
4 meter
50
What are the visual markings of M789 30 MM HEDP? Black and yellow!!
Black with yellow band
51
What are the visual makings of M788 30 mm TP round?
Blue with white stripes.
52
Aiming of the hellfire missies is based on a ____ acceleration and occurs ______ meters after launch (legacy and enhance)
10g Legacy 150-300 Enhance 375-500
53
During running rocket fire align the helo into firing constraints with the ______ while maintaining____
Cyclic Trim
54
When rockets are selected in the FXD mode the pylons are commanded to the fixed position of ______
3.48 degrees
55
The bursting radius of the M151 HD “10lber” is ____ and can produce a lethality radius in excess of_____
10m 50m
56
M789 HEDP can penetrate in excess of ____ of RHA at ____
2in of RHA at 2.5k
57
If your fire a burst of 30mm at a tgt, which misses left 10m, you then adjust your light of sight right…
Recognition method (ky windage)
58
Airspeed over _____ eliminates rotor downwash error
33 kts
59
When conducting AWS harmonization the tgt should be located ______ in from of a/c
500-1500m
60
What is the capacity of the 30mm ammo handling system?
1,200 rds max
61
30 mm gun turret azm and elev limits, opp crew not actioned on Grnd.
- 86 deg L/R of a/c center line - +9 deg w/in 10 deg L/R a/c centerline - +11 deg from 10 deg L/R of a/c centerline to 86 deg L/R of depression - -6.45 deg within 86 deg L/R of a/c centerline
62
Gun duty cycle: ____ rd bursts with ___ between bursts, followed by a ____ cooling period. Burst settings other than___ the duty cycle can be generalized to mean that no more than ____ are fired within ____ before allowing gun to cool for _____ after which cycle may be repeated.
6x 50 rd bursts 5 sec 10 min 50 300 rds 60 sec 10 min
63
Gun duty cycle warning: if ____ have been fired in the preceding ___ and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain ______. A/c crew should remain in the a/c and continue positive gun cntrl.
300 or more rds. 10 min Clear of a/c for 30 min
64
Gun duty cycle warning: failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in__________
Catastrophic failure, loss of a/c, injury, or death
65
Software limits of 30 mm is?
4,200 m
66
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to____ elevation to prevent _____ into ground during landing.
+11 deg Digging
67
The M789 30 mm rd is a ____ rd and will penetrate more than ____ of RHA (____) at ____m
High explosive 2 in Rolled homogenous armor 2,500 m