Gunnery Test Part Duex

Question 1

Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating NVS fixed mode?

Answer 1

Yes

Question 2

Where will the AWS be positioned in Fixed mode?

Answer 2

Gun = 0 deg azm and +.87 deg elvtn.

Question 3

In the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight the gun will remain in ____ , gun firing ___. When the gun is de-actioned it will ____

Answer 3

In the LAST COMMAND position

Inhibited

Return to STOW

Question 4

The 30 mm AWS is limited to _____ with rockets actioned and ___ on the side of the next missile to be fired with missiles actioned on the ____ pylon

Answer 4

60 degrees

52 degrees

Inboard pylon

Question 5

What is the elevation of the gun in the fixed mode?

Answer 5

+ .87

Question 6

What is the caution associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch on the load maint. Panel?

Answer 6

No indication in cockpit if in AIR position.

Question 7

What 3 types of rounds can 30mm accommodate?

Answer 7

M848 dummy
M788 tgt prctc
M789 HEDP

Question 8

What is the rate of fire for 30mm cannon?

Answer 8

625 +/- 25

Question 9

How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in training mode?

Answer 9

888

Question 10

Engagements > _____ can be heard by dismounted personnel before the first rounds impact.

Answer 10

2,000 m

Question 11

Max ammo with 100 gal fuel cell integrated storage magazine for approximately ____

Answer 11

300 rds

Question 12

Wing stores pylons are commanded to single fixed position of ____ when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than _____.

Answer 12

+4 deg

> 5 sec

Question 13

The PEN button on the rocket control page may be used to defeat bunkers up to _____ thick when the BNK is selected.

Answer 13

3 m

Question 14

With Hellfire rails on pylons 2 and 3 and rockets on 1 and 4 what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?

Answer 14

A B E, quantities ??

Question 15

When rockets are in co-op mode the LOS will be?

Answer 15

TADS/FCR???

Question 16

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to teh ARS pg when in co-op mode?

Answer 16

Yes

Question 17

Due to the possibility of surging the engines… fire no more than ___ with ___ launchers every ___ or fire with only ____ outboard launcher installed w/o restrictions.

Answer 17

Pairs

2 outboard launchers

3 sec

One

Question 18

Max range for MK66 rockets?

Answer 18

7,500 m

Question 19

There is an increased risk of ______ and care should be taken near other a/c and firing over the heads of friendly…

Answer 19

Premature fuse function (inadvertent air burst)

Question 20

Aerial rocket subsystem can be employed independently by either crew with the active sight is ____&___; _____CPG only

Answer 20

HMD, FCR, and MTADS (CPG only)

Question 21

How can crew check rkt type w/in each zone and amount of gun ammo loaded on preflight?

Can settings be changed on MPD load pg?

Answer 21

LMP (LD mntnc pnl)

Yes

Question 22

Rocket Pylons articulate independently through a range of _____

Answer 22

+4 to -15 deg

Question 23

During live fire testing shows that rockets achieve their best effectiveness between _______

Answer 23

3-5k

Question 24

What are the different modes pylons can operate in? (GFAF)

Answer 24

Ground stow, flight stow, articulation, and fixed

Question 25

The PIUs perform?

Answer 25

Rocket fusing and squib ignition

Question 26

The two electrical connectors on the top of the launcher provide fusing and firing interface. Forward connector provides____ and aft connector provides______

Answer 26

The Fuzing The firing circuit

Question 27

On pre-flight the jettison plunger should be checked for proper gap to ensure____

Answer 27

Jettison will occur properly

Question 28

At a/c power up the MP will read a the rocket zone inventory from the LMP?

Answer 28

True

Question 29

The RKT pg is crew station independent pg for independent engagements

Answer 29

True

Question 30

If aircrew enters co-op mode the rckt pg displayed is the _____ for both crew. Either crew can make changes to the _____ in co-op mode

Answer 30

CPGs CPGs rkt pg

Question 31

The aircrew cannon edit utilizing the weapons load pg

Answer 31

False

Question 32

The total rockets status window will be displayed when ____

Answer 32

There is a difference between the # of rkts available for firing and the # of rkts actually for selected type

Question 33

If a selected rocket fails to launch the MP will not allow the operator to fire the selected rocket again until the rocket system is re-inventoried ______

Answer 33

On the squat switch

Question 34

M151 warhead HE is _____ and referred to as _____

Answer 34

Anti-personnel & anti-material The 10lber

Question 35

The M151 warhead HE contains 2.3 lbs of comp B with a bursting radius of ____ and lethality radius of ____

Answer 35

Burst radi= 10m Lethality= >50m

Question 36

M229 warhead HE is _____, and referred to as _____. This warhead is an elongated version of ____.

Answer 36

Anti-personnel and anti-material 17lber M151

Question 37

M229 warhead contains 4.8lbs of comp B, with a bursting radius of _____ and a lethality radius of _____

Answer 37

14m burst radius >75m lethality radius

Question 38

M274 warhead is the smoke signature training rocket which will match the ballistic settings of the _____

Answer 38

M151 warhead

Question 39

The **M261** warhead contains _____ M73 SMS with the M230 omnidirectional fuse with a M55 detonator used on each SM and functions regardless of impact

Answer 39

9

Question 40

The M261 warhead will land ____ off center ____of the time, which has a _____ probability of producing casualties against prone exposed personnel within a ___radius. A SM will land ___ off center ____ of the time which has a _____ probability of producing casualties against prone exposed personnel within a ____ radius.

Answer 40

M261 warhead: 5 deg, 66%, 90%, 20 m radius SMs: 30 deg, 33%, 90%, 5m Radius

Question 41

M257 was designed for battlefield illum. Candle descents 15ft/ sec and provides ____ candlepower for_____. Preset to deploy approximately _____ down range. It can illuminate aprx 1 square mile.

Answer 41

1 million x candlepower 120 sec (2 min) 3,500m (3.5k)

Question 42

M278 puts out ______ of IR illum. Preset to deploy aprx _____ down range

Answer 42

X 1million candlepower 3,500m (3.5K)

Question 43

the M264 Phosphorus (RP) is a _____. the smoke generated by 14 rockets will obscure a _____ front in less than _____.

Answer 43

smoke screen warhead 300-400 m front 60 sec for 5 min

Question 44

HELLFIRE SAL 1 designation includes:

Answer 44

AGM-114A AGM-114B AGM-114F/FA older model and older K model missiles

Question 45

HELLFIRE SAL 2 designation includes:

Answer 45

AGM-114K AGM-114M AGM-114N AGM-114P+ AGM-114R K model missiles and newer

Question 46

A HF-II that does not receive an R09 msg from the firing a/c is considered a _____

Answer 46

Legacy HF-II

Question 47

A HF-II that does receive a R09 msg from the firing a/c is considerd a _____

Answer 47

Enhanced HF-II

Question 48

When offset laser designating a target what is the recommended terminal laser time?

Answer 48

6 sec for grnd rng up to 5 km, 2 additional sec for each additional KM

Question 49

Legacy HF-II designator exclusion zone: ____ deg vertical exclusion zone above the ____ and the ___ deg ____ to either side of the ____ originates at the ____ and extends to the ____

Answer 49

34 deg shooter to designator line 43 deg horizontal exclusion zone GSL firing a/c max range of the missile

Question 50

Enhanced Hellfire Romeo designator exclusion zone: same _____. Target offset dependent_____. Target side ___+____. non target side____

Answer 50

34 deg vertical exclusion zone horizontal exclusion zone 30 deg + offset angle 30 deg

Question 51

Define the 60 deg, preferably 45 deg, designator offset angle.

Answer 51

the angle between the GTL and LTL

Question 52

Define fuze same seperation distance

Answer 52

min. arming distance that would result in less than 1 in 1million chance of loss of a/c and crew

Question 53

fuze seperation distances

Answer 53

HF-I: 150m HF-II: 182m Romeo: 375m

Question 54

for each _____ increase in launcher alt above RMIN/RMAX must be adjusted IAW ____

Answer 54

1,000 ft increase IAW table 14 hellfire supplement

Question 55

what are the different sections/assemblies of the hellfire missile GWCP

Answer 55

guidance warhead control propulsion

Question 56

when firing a SAL missile autonomously an offset of ______ deg should be used to preclude missile flying through TADS FOV and preventing_____

Answer 56

3-5 deg the video being obscured by missile exhaust

Question 57

the LOBL missile in constraints (solid) box is only displayed when the next missile to be fired is ______ it was coded with from _____ and when the a/crw aligns the a/c centerline within _____ deg of the designated tgt.

Answer 57

tracking laser energy the priority channel 20 deg

Question 58

Trajectories: cnstrnts bx drvr: LOAL FLAT ? LOAL LOFT ?

Answer 58

ACQ WINDOW (R6) or selected LOS

Question 59

trajectory: cnstrnts bx drvr: LOBL ? LOAL DIR ?

Answer 59

LOBL Missile Seeker LOAL DIR Selctd LOS (HMD or TADS)

Question 60

For SAL 1 or 2 missiles the allowable angle is larger for LOBL _____ than for LOAL_____

Answer 60

LOBL 20 deg LOAL 7.5 deg

Question 61

for P+ and Romeo SAL missiles the allowable angle is _____ for LOBL and _____for LOAL

Answer 61

20 deg LOBL 30 deg LOAL

Question 62

for RF missiles in either LOAL or LOBL, allowable angle is ____. except when the missile is tracking and the tgt range is _____ then the allowable range is ____

Answer 62

20 deg tgts <1km angle is 5 deg