gunnery test part tres Flashcards

1
Q

what is min cloud ceiling to fire “R” model missile in any mode?

A

1,500 ft

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2
Q

ripple fire mode requires atleast 2 ___ which allow the a/crw to employ ____. RIPL alows for firing of missiles coded to both the _____&____

A

designators

multiple missiles on different codes

priority and alternate channel

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3
Q

what symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the tgt?

A

R

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4
Q

When the RF missile training mode is enabled what symbol will be displayed on all tactical missile icons?

A

N/A

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5
Q

what does TME emulate and replicate? capability to simulate ___. TRAIN mode enables a _____TME loaded in the _____ that provides the capability of simulating_____

A

RF MSL ops

Training mode emulator

Missile launcher

RF missile ops

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6
Q

How long is the allowable training mode, missile elapsed on time?

A

30 min

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7
Q

what symbol will appear on the RF missile icon if the maximum allowable elapsed ON time is exceeded?

A

OT

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8
Q

what are the safety considerations that ensure operations in the TRAIN mode while loaded with live ordinance can be conducted?

A

application of ARM power to wpn stations is inhibited by MPs when TRAIN mode is selected

BIT algorithms ensure arm power and discrete fire commands are absent

Launch events are simulated

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9
Q

what is “transfer alignment”? ____ receiving updated ____ data from a/c to update ____. it occurs ____ at _____ and is not _____

A

MSL rcvng

INU data

to update IMU

it occurs automtcly @ missile pwr up and requires no P action

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10
Q

What are the 3 ACQ sources that may provide TGT information for an RF missile handover?

A

FCR
TADS
IDM

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11
Q

what does T displayed in missiel constraints box indicate?

A

Training mode

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12
Q

why would you enable the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option?

A

to prevent missile from radiating energy

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13
Q

Can the crew ARM a hellfire launcher without pressing the master “arm/safe” button and how?

A

yes

WPN UTIL pg and the ARM/SAFE switch on HELLFIRE launcher

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14
Q

Can the BACKSCATTER inhibit be overridden by the trigger second detent?

A

no

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15
Q

At what time and for how long is the message “LASE NN TRGT” displayed in the High action display during LOAL SAL missile launches?

A

for 4 sec at 12 sec TOF

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16
Q

How long must you lase a TGT before the message “TARGET DATA?” blanks in HAD?

A

3-5 sec

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17
Q

to enable missile to fly an arc outside the TADS tgt LOS and prevent degredation of TADS video the a/c should be rotated _______ in the direction of missiel to be launched.

A

3-5 deg

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18
Q

An RF middle will arm only after launch when acceleration exceeds ______ apx _____ in front of A/C

A

10 Gs aprx. 181m in front of a/c

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19
Q

What causes backscatter? A portion of the ____ r___ off _____ in___ back____ while___ penetrates_____

A

Laser beams energy reflected off atmospheric particles in the laser beams path back towards the designator while the remainder of the laser energy penetrates towards the tgt

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20
Q

What are the laser related missile performance detractors? USABOBBEP

A

Underspill, spot jitter, attenuation, B/S error, Overspill, Bem divergence, Bcksctter, Entrapment, Podium effect

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21
Q

2nd trgr inhibit button is used to prevent secondary tgt info from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during______

A

FCR tgt handover engagements

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22
Q

Doppler beam sharperning: uses a ____ to induce___ between a ____ and ___ by flying an___ to the tgt

A

Curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary tgt and its background by flying an off axis flight path to the tgt.

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23
Q

What kind of DBS trajectory will a missile fly if the tgt is to the left of centerline?

A

To the right

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24
Q

The Auto button will enable automatic missile power management, this prevents____

A

Overtemp of missile

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25
At 20 deg offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use maximum cross range of ______ at 8km
100m at 8k
26
T/F the LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is always driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window
False
27
What is the min engmnt rng for a LOAL LEGACY DIR SAL "R" missile at 0 deg and 7.5 deg offset?
0 deg=1,500 7.5 deg=1,700
28
What is min eff rng of an ENHANCED 'R' LOBL engagement with a 0 deg and 20 deg offset from the ADL?
0 deg=500 20 deg=1,200
29
The LOBL missile constraint box is ______ when the missile is actively trackng the designated tgt
+/- 20 deg from center
30
the LOAL missile constraint box is _____ when the missile is not tracking the tgt?
+/- 7.5 deg from center
31
If the RF missile is tracking and the tgt range is >= ____ the allowable constraint angle is _____
range>=1km allowable cnstrnt angle is 20 deg
32
If the RF missile is tracking and the TGT range is <=___ the allowable constraint angle is _____
range<=1km allowable cnstrnt angle is 5 deg
33
Define these missile mssgs: OT MU SF
Over Temp Missile Unlatched Station Fail
34
What is the min range of an ENHANCED 'R' LOAL FLAT engagement with a 0 deg and 30 deg offset angle from the ADL?
1,500=0 deg offset 2,000= 30 deg offset
35
What is the min rng of an ENHANCED 'R' LOAL HI LOFT engagment with 0 deg and 30 deg offset?
2,000=0 deg 2,500=30 deg
36
What is the radiation hazard area for an AGM-114L missile?
1 meter 45 deg
37
What are the 3 modes the RF missile operates in?
STTBY PRE LAUNCH POST LAUNCH
38
What are the max mask height and min standoff distance for K model missile fired LOAL LO?
260 ft 600m
39
The FCR will provide reliable data while maneuvering up to _____ roll, ___ to ___ in pitch.
20 roll 20 to -15 in pitch
40
GTM/RMAP FOV=
W=90 M=45 N= 30 Z=15
41
Which priority scheme emphasizes only stationary and grnd tgts?
B
42
Moving and stationary tgts become stale after?
moving=5 sec stationary=30 sec
43
single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV gives you___
3 scans
44
When the FCR detects a moving tgt at distances _____the RF missile will always default to____
500m - 8k LOBL
45
____ improves STI detecetion and classification and moving tgt indicator (MTI) classification
scan to scan
46
what does a flashing (3 sec) ANTS symbol indicate?
out priotized NTS
47
The ____ is used to rapidly position the FCR centerline to the line of bearing of an emitting threat as detected by RFI
Cued search switch
48
A cued search may be performed on a fine detect or course detect region of the RFI to?
90 deg to the ADL
49
How many RFI emitters can be tacked and displayed?
40 tracked 10 displayed
50
How is the #1 _____ emitter displayed?
Home plate
51
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for____ the symbols will change to partial intensity for_____
30 sec ceased radiating 60 sec change to partial intensity
52
Where does the TSD pg display ASE threats?
inside the ASE footprint
53
Where does TSD display RFI emitters?
outside the ASE footprint
54
What is the caution assiciated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE btn?
Continued use may cause damage to components
55
Which priority scheme woud you use if you expected to engage moving targets?
C
56
The RFI can detect and process pulse, pulse dopler, and continuous wave radar signals.
True
57
Which terrain sensitivity setting is optimized for open fields and wooded areas with loose detection thresholds?
Clustered trees
58
When will shot at symbols be displayed beneath target symbols?
During/after scan prior to HF launch
59
Selecting an RFI detected emitter using the cursor_____
makes it the ACQ source
60
Repeatedly pressing the cued search button will _____ orient the FCR centerline to the next priority emitter
continue to
61
Friendly emitters are displayed in ____ and enemy emitters are displayed in _____
Cyan (blue/green) yellow (ENMY)
62
What are the 4 ways to change the NTS Tgt?
Select NTS option CRSR select a new FCR tgt on FCR pg RFHO Shoot current NTS tgt
63
When receiving a RFHO the a/c must accept it within _____ min. If the crew has not accepted the RFHO within time the crew will observe a ______ msg in the wpn status inhibit section.
6 min DATA INVALID msg