Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ff 1 > test quiz questions got wrong > Flashcards

test quiz questions got wrong Flashcards

1
Q

Which basic management principle says that each fire fighter should answer to only one supervisor?

a- Span of control

b- Organizational accountability

c- Unity of command

d- Division of labor

A

Unity of command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which are developed to provide definitive guidelines for present and future actions?

a- Regulations
b- Policies
c- Standard operating procedures
d- Tactical objectives

A

Policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Specific information on the actions to be taken to accomplish a certain task is provided by:

a- standard operating procedures.
b- policies.
c- rules and regulations.
d- incident action plans.

A

standard operating procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which position specializes in reviewing plans for fire detection and suppression systems for functionality and code compliance?

a- Fire systems specialist
b- Fire prevention officer
c- Fire safety educator
d- Fire protection engineer

A

Fire protection engineer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which is one of the four basic management principles used by fire departments?

a- Division of labor
b- Management by objective
c- Common terminology
d- Delegation of authority

A

Division of labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The highest number of fire fighter injuries occur during which one of the activities listed below?

a- Responding to or returning from an alarm
b- Non-fire emergencies
c-Fireground operations
d- Training

A

Fireground operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which is the correct term for taking a brief break to rest, hydrate, and change the SCBA bottle?

a- Rehabilitation
b- Reload
c- Recycling
d- Breather

A

Recycling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the “buddy system” refer to?

a- The passport personnel accountability system
b- A team of at least two members who maintain constant contact
c- The tradition of “No one left behind”
d- Two-in, two-out

A

A team of at least two members who maintain constant contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Health and safety programs for fire fighters are the subject of NFPA:

a- 1001
b- 1021
c- 1500
d- 1901

A

1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Current NFPA standards require an SCBA EOSTI to sound when cylinder pressure drops to _____ percent of capacity.

a- 20
b- 25
c- 30
d- 35

A

35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the “A” stand for in “CAD”?

a- Aided
b- Automatic
c- Auxiliary
d- Ancillary

A

Aided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the lowest temperature at which a fuel-air mixture will ignite in the presence of air and continue to burn?

a- Fire point
b- Ignition temperature
c- Flash point
d- Specific heat

A

Ignition temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fire-retardant wood is treated with:

a- aluminum oxide.
b- mineral salts.
c- calcium sulfate.
d- urea.

A

mineral salts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which construction feature is most commonly found in Type V buildings?

a- Pre-stressed concrete
b- Treated lumber
c- Platform-frame construction
d- Bar joists

A

Platform-frame construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is another term for gypsum board?

a- Lath
b- OSB
c- Drywall
d- Stucco

A

Drywall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The rate of combustion of wood is most directly related to which factor?

a- Use of adhesives
b- Age
c- Surface area
d- Volatility

A

Surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the lower structural member of a truss called?

a- Chord
b- Beam
c- Girder
d- Cantilever

A

Chord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which is one of the four key characteristics affecting the behavior of building materials under fire conditions?

a- Surface area/mass ratio
b- Thermal conductivity
c- Porosity
d- Density

A

Thermal conductivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a bar joist?

a- A truss with steel parallel members and wood diagonals

b- Any engineered component with steel load-bearing members

c- An open-web steel truss
d- A steel I-beam used to support a floor or roof

A

An open-web steel truss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A potential problem with application of a multipurpose dry chemical agent to a Class K fire is:

a- spitting and splattering of fuel.

b- production of toxic gas.

c- counteraction of other agents applied to the fire.

d- sudden flare-up of the fire.

A

counteraction of other agents applied to the fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The “P” in the acronym PASS, used in reference to fire extinguisher operation, stands for:

a- point.
b- pause.
c- pull.
d- pick.

A

pull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which tool has two retractable blades?

a- Plaster hook
b- Ceiling hook
c- A tool
d- Shove knife

A

Plaster hook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To force an inward-opening door, which part of the Halligan bar is inserted between the door and the jamb?

a- Fork
b- Adze
c- Pick
d- Blade

A

Adze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which tool is best for breaching a floor?

a- Rotary saw
b- Air chisel
c- Reciprocating saw
d- Flat-head axe

A

Rotary saw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which type of lock is surface-mounted on the interior of the door frame?

a- Mortise
b- Cylindrical
c- Cam
d- Rim

A

Rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The two-fire fighter shoulder carry can be used with extension ladders up to _____ long.

a- 24 ft (7.5 m)
b- 30 ft (9 m)
c- 35 ft (11 m)
d- 40 ft (12 m)

A

35 ft (11 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When should the building be used to anchor the butt during a ladder raise?

a- For any single-fire-fighter ladder raise
b- When laddering a building without eaves
c- When sending a roof ladder aloft
d- When a single fire fighter raises an extension ladder

A

When a single fire fighter raises an extension ladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Exposure of a metal ladder to a minimum temperature of approximately __________ will cause a heat sensor label to change color.

a- 150°F (65°C)
b- 212°F (100°C)
c- 250°F (120°C)
d- 300°F (150°C)

A

300°F (150°C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a ladder I-beam usually made of?

a- Fiberglass
b- Alloy
c- Truss blocks
d- Wood

A

Fiberglass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The top and bottom rails of a trussed beam are joined by:

a- tie rods.
b- truss blocks.
c- A-plates.
d- I-beams.

A

truss blocks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

At a minimum, how often should ground ladders be visually inspected?

a- Monthly
b- Quarterly
c- Annually
d- Biannually

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the maximum length of a straight or roof ladder that can be carried safely by one fire fighter?

a- 12 ft (3.65 m)
b- 14 ft (4.25 m)
c- 16 ft (4.8 m)
d- 18 ft (5.5 m)

A

18 ft (5.5 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which term describes the top or bottom component of a trussed beam?

a- Dog
b- Rail
c- Block
d- Rung

A

Rail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which NFPA standard sets minimum performance standards for aerial ladders and elevating platforms?

a- 1450
b- 1724
c- 1901
d- 1932

A

1901

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which NFPA standard deals with use, maintenance, and service testing of in-service fire department ground ladders?

a- 1401
b- 4560
c- 1875
d- 1932

A

1932

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When raising a ladder, it should be kept a minimum of _____ from power lines.

a- 5 ft (1.5 m)
b- 15 ft (4.5 m)
c- 10 ft (3 m)
d- 20 ft (6 m)

A

10 ft (3 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When lowering an unconscious victim down a ladder, what is the position of the victim?

a- Upright with back toward the ladder
b- Horizontal, facing the ladder
c- Upright, facing the ladder
d- Horizontal, facing the rescuer

A

Horizontal, facing the rescuer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does a neutral plane at a vent opening indicate?

a- Equal pressure inside and outside the structure
b- Fuel-limited stage fire
c- Stack effect
d- Pre-flashover conditions

A

Equal pressure inside and outside the structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does fast-moving smoke indicate?

a- Poorly ventilated ventilation-controlled fire
b- Very hot fire
c- High synthetic fuel content
d- Incomplete combustion

A

Very hot fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

For natural ventilation, which window should be opened first?

a- The highest window
b- Windows opening directly into the fire room
c- The downwind window
d- The upwind window

A

The downwind window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In ordinary construction, exterior walls are made of __________ materials.

a- noncombustible or limited-combustible
b- any standard load-bearing
c- fire-resistive
d- non-rated

A

noncombustible or limited-combustible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which condition will most likely cause smoke to stratify in a large building?

a- Decay phase fire
b- Winter stack effect
c- Sprinkler system activation
d- Ventilation controlled fire

A

Sprinkler system activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pressure in a water distribution system during average consumption is __________ pressure.

a residual
b mean
c normal operating
d static

A

normal operating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which pressure measurement provides the best indicator of how much more water is available in the system?

a Residual
b Static
c Normal operating
d Flow

A

Residual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which pressure must be measured to calculate the quantity of water flowing through a hydrant discharge?

a Head
b Operating
c Flow
d Residual

A

Residual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The quantity of water that is being moved through a pipe or hose is termed the:

a pressure
b flow
c throughput
d stream

A

flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which term means the amount of energy in water?

a Flow
b Watts
c Volume
d Pressure

A

Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which is the function of lugs found on couplings?

a Align the threads during coupling
b Aid in coupling and uncoupling hose
c Help the coupling slide over obstructions
d Strengthen the coupling

A

Aid in coupling and uncoupling hose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which type of valve is opened or closed by rotating a handle a quarter turn?

a Gate
b Siamese
c Butterfly
d Slide

A

Butterfly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which type of valve is typically used on engine discharges?

a Butterfly
b Gate
c Clapper
d Ball

A

Ball

52
Q

Which type of adaptor is used to connect two female couplings to each other?

a Wye
b Double female
c Siamese
d Double male

A

Double male

53
Q

During annual testing, attack hose is tested at what pressure?

a 200 psi (1379 kPa)
b 300 psi (2068 kPa)
c 400 psi (2757 kPa)
d 500 psi (3447 kPa)

A

300 psi (2068 kPa)

54
Q

Generally speaking, a 1¾” (44-mm) attack hose can flow:

a 60 to 125 gpm (227 to 473 lpm).
b 75 to 150 gpm (284 to 566 lpm).
c 100 to 160 gpm (379 to 606 lpm).
d 120 to 180 gpm (454 to 681 lpm).

A

120 to 180 gpm (454 to 681 lpm).

55
Q

Generally speaking, a 1” (25-cm) booster hose can flow:

a 15 to 30 gpm (57 to 114 lpm).
b 20 to 40 gpm (76 to 151 lpm).
c 40 to 50 gpm (151 to 189 lpm).
d 50 to 75 gpm (189 to 284 lpm).

A

40 to 50 gpm (151 to 189 lpm).

56
Q

A 50’ (15 m) section of charged 2½” (65-mm) hose weighs approximately:

a 100 lb (45 kg).
b 125 lb (57 kg).
c 140 lb (64 kg).
d 200 lb (91 kg).

A

140 lb (64 kg).

57
Q

Master streams flow a minimum of:

a 350 gpm (1325 lpm).
b 400 gpm (1514 lpm).
c 450 gpm (1703 lpm).
d 500 gpm (1893 lpm).

A

350 gpm (1325 lpm).

58
Q

Which is an advantage of a smooth-bore nozzle?

a Greater heat absorption per gallon discharged
b Operation at a higher nozzle pressure
c Greater disruption of thermal layering
d Longer stream reach

A

Longer stream reach

59
Q

Most smooth-bore nozzles are designed to operate at which pressure?

a 50 psi (345 kPa)
b 75 psi (517 kPa)
c 100 psi (690 kPa)
d 125 psi (862 kPa)

A

50 psi (345 kPa)

60
Q

Hose on an apparatus that has not been used should be unloaded, inspected, and reloaded every:

a 30 days.
b 3 months.
c 6 months.
d year.

A

30 days.

61
Q

When using a standpipe connection in a stairwell, how should the hose be arranged?

a Up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire
b Back and forth on the landing
c Down the stairwell toward the floor below the fire floor
d In large coils on the landing nearest the fire floor

A

Up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire

62
Q

What is the correct procedure for a burst hose line?

a Use two lengths of hose to replace a single burst length.
b Leave the burst section in operation unless the water loss is affecting nozzle flow.
c Place the clamp as far from the burst section of hose as possible.
d Shut the line down at the pump panel only as last resort.

A

Use two lengths of hose to replace a single burst length.

63
Q

When should the fire fighter at the hydrant charge the supply line?

a As soon as it is connected to the hydrant
b Upon receiving a signal from the driver/operator
c After the supply line is connected to the pump intake
d After placing the hose clamp

A

Upon receiving a signal from the driver/operator

64
Q

Which supply line load is capable of laying both single and dual supply lines?

a Twin
b Detroit
c Horseshoe
d Combination

A

Combination

65
Q

When charging a supply line at a hydrant, the fire fighter should:

a place the hose clamp before opening the hydrant.
b avoid standing between the hose line and the hydrant
c check that the hydrant strap is secure.
d fully open the stem and then back it off one full turn.

A

avoid standing between the hose line and the hydrant

66
Q

The end of the hose bed closest to the apparatus cab is the:

a front.
b bulkhead.
c partition.
d back.

A

front.

67
Q

Which hose lay is performed by two engine companies when hose must be laid in two different directions to establish a water supply?

a Reverse
b Combination
c Relay
d Split

A

Split

68
Q

As a general guideline, a pumper should supply a sprinkler system at:

a 100 psi (689 kPa).
b 125 psi (861 kPa).
c 150 psi (1034 kPa).
d 175 psi (1206 kPa).

A

150 psi (1034 kPa).

69
Q

Which is a feature of the triple-layer hose load?

a Works well with multistory buildings
b Minimizes the need to drag hose
c Suitable for companies with minimal personnel
d Simple to load

A

Suitable for companies with minimal personnel

70
Q

Which is an example of a hose friction point?

a Doorway
b Kink
c Appliance
d Hose bed cover

A

Doorway

71
Q

Which is the purpose of creating a bight in an attack line during interior attack?

a Make surplus hose available if needed
b Reduce the number of friction points
c Reduce the likelihood of kinks
d Absorb the nozzle reaction

A

Make surplus hose available if needed

72
Q

Which firefighting attack, if successful, will result in the least amount of property damage?

a Offensive
b Transitional
c Indirect
d Defensive

A

Offensive

73
Q

What it the maximum diameter of a small handline?

a 1½” (38 mm)
b 1¾” (45 mm)
c 2” (50 mm)
d 2½” (65 mm)

A

2” (50 mm)

74
Q

Which is the minimum flow from a large handline?

a 150 gpm
b 200 gpm
c 250 gpm
d 350 gpm

A

250 gpm

75
Q

Which is an advantage of a straight stream over a fog stream?

a Greater heat absorption
b Longer reach
c Increased surface area of the stream
d Less nozzle reaction

A

Longer reach

76
Q

A combination fire attack begins with:

a an exterior attack
b an indirect attack
c exposure protection
d performing ventilation

A

an indirect attack

77
Q

When is an indirect attack indicated?

a The fire has vented prior to arrival of fire crews
b When exposures are immediately threatened
c With an incipient fire
d When flashover is likely

A

When flashover is likely

78
Q

What is an effect of a hose stream that consists of droplets with a large surface area?

a The stream carries over a longer distance.
b The stream resists breakup from the wind.
c Water in this pattern penetrates fuels better.
d Heat absorption is enhanced.

A

Heat absorption is enhanced.

79
Q

What does the E stand for in the acronym SLICE-RS?

a Establish command
b Evaluate the facts
c Evaluate extension
d Extinguish the fire

A

Extinguish the fire

80
Q

Which is another term for a deck gun?

a Deluge set
b Monitor
c Playpipe
d Turret pipe

A

Turret pipe

81
Q

Preventing the spread of fire is the primary objective of which fire attack?

a Defensive
b Offensive
c Direct
d Indirect

A

Defensive

82
Q

Which statement about an offensive exterior attack is correct?

a It pushes the fire into uninvolved portions of the structure.
b Its effects are short-lived.
c Its effect on the fire is minimal.
d It should not be initiated prior to establishing water supply.

A

Its effects are short-lived.

83
Q

What is the minimum number of fire fighters needed to advance and maneuver a 2½” (65-mm) handline inside a building?

a 1
b 2
c 3
d 4

A

2

84
Q

Peeling or bubbling paint is an indicator of:

a concealed fire
b impending building collapse
c the fire’s point of origin
d use of accelerants

A

concealed fire

85
Q

What is the best item to aid in the extinguishment of smoldering fires in tightly packed combustible materials?

a Class A foam
b Piercing nozzle
c Water fog
d Dry chemical

A

Class A foam

86
Q

Application of a fire stream to solar panels should be done from a distance of no less than:

a 10 ft
b 15 ft
c 20 ft
d 25 ft

A

20 ft

87
Q

Which type of stream may be safe for use on solar panels?

a Fog
b Straight
c Solid
d None of these is correct

A

Fog

88
Q

Ideally, which should be used to extinguish a chimney fire?

a CO2
b Dry chemical
c Class A foam
d Water

A

Dry chemical

89
Q

Which vehicle fuel or propulsion system presents the potential for BLEVE?

a Gasoline
b Hybrid/electric
c Diesel
d Compressed gas

A

Compressed gas

90
Q

What is the most important component of fire fighter survival?

a Maintaining team integrity
b Preincident planning
c Consistently applying safe operating procedures
d Establishment of RICs

A

Consistently applying safe operating procedures

91
Q

An RIC has reached a downed fire fighter in a hazardous area. What is the most critical question to answer at this point?

a How quickly can the victim be moved to safety?
b What is the expected duration of the victim’s air supply?
c What is the likely outcome of the victim’s injuries?
d What additional resources are needed?

A

What is the expected duration of the victim’s air supply?

92
Q

Which is a characteristic upon which wildland fuels are classified?

a Weight
b Diameter
c Slope aspect
d Composition

A

Diameter

93
Q

Which of the following is an example of a fine fuel?

a Root
b Stick
c Branch
d Grass

A

Grass

94
Q

What is usually the main type of fuel present in ground cover fires?

a Coarse
b Light
c Heavy
d Fine

A

Fine

95
Q

What is slash?

a Partially decomposed organic matter
b Debris from logging or clearing operations
c Seasonal ground cover
d Partially burned fuel

A

Debris from logging or clearing operations

96
Q

Aerial fuels are at least _____ above the ground.

a 4 ft (1.2 m)
b 6 ft (2 m)
c 8 ft (2.5 m)
d 10 ft (3 m)

A

6 ft (2 m)

97
Q

Fuels that are in contact with each other are described as:

a uninterrupted.
b continuous.
c compact.
d unbroken.

A

continuous.

98
Q

What is the ratio of water in air compared to the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold at a given temperature?

a Saturation index
b Relative humidity
c Barometric pressure
d Moisture ratio

A

Relative humidity

99
Q

Which condition will generally result in lower relative humidity?

a Higher fuel moisture
b Precipitation
c Nighttime
d Increasing temperature

A

Increasing temperature

100
Q

What is the term for the natural and human-made features of land?

a Cartography
b Geography
c Topography
d Geology

A

Topography

101
Q

What is the term for a long, narrow extension of fire projecting out from the main body of a wildland fire?

a Island
b Spot
c Run
d Finger

A

Finger

102
Q

What is the term for the burned area of a wildland fire?

a Black
b Body
c Island
d Heel

A

Black

103
Q

Which tool is a combination of hoe and rake?

a Pulaski
b Forestry hoe
c Combination
d McLeod

A

McLeod

104
Q

Which type of wildland fire attack is made on the fire’s burning edge?

a Direct
b Offensive
c Frontal
d Indirect

A

Direct

105
Q

A safety zone should be large enough:

a to fit apparatus as well as personnel.
b to be accessible by rotary-winged aircraft.
c that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury.
d to accommodate an entire division.

A

that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury.

106
Q

What is the term for the partly decomposed organic material on a forest floor?

a Understory
b Litter
c Surface compost
d Ground duff

A

Ground duff

107
Q

In which type of fuel will a fire spread the most rapidly?

a Compacted
b Brush
c Slash
d Fine

A

Fine

108
Q

Which fuel classification includes large brush?

a Ground
b Moderate
c Median
d Heavy

A

Heavy

109
Q

What is another term for aerial fuels?

a Raised
b Ladder
c Canopy
d Elevated

A

Canopy

110
Q

The quantity of wildland fuel available in a specific area is fuel:

a loading.
b volume.
c continuity.
d density.

A

volume.

111
Q

What is dry lightning?

a A lightning strike that does not cause fire
b Lightning without rain
c Lightning occurring in otherwise fair weather d
d Lightning that does not contact the ground

A

Lightning without rain

112
Q

As a basic guideline, the distance between fire fighters in a safety zone and the flames should be a minimum of _____ times the flame height.

a two
b three
c four
d five

A

four

113
Q

Which fuel is the most susceptible to changes in relative humidity?

a Compacted
b Brush
c Aerial
d Grass

A

Grass

114
Q

The unburned part of a wildland fire area is the:

a island.
b clear.
c perimeter.
d green.

A

green.

115
Q

Which tool combines an axe with an adze?

a Brush hook
b Pulaski
c McLeod
d Council rake

A

Pulaski

116
Q

What is one of the two primary methods of direct attack on a wildland fire?

a Pinch
b Frontal
c Backfire
d Aerial

A

Pinch

117
Q

Which is one of the three causes of wildland fire ignition?

a Spontaneous
b Criminal
c Intentional
d Conditional

A

Intentional

118
Q

The location near the area of origin of a wildland fire began is the:

a source.
b heel.
c launch.
d origin.

A

heel.

119
Q

Which is one of the eighteen watch out situations?

a In country not seen in daylight
b Span of control exceeded
c Multiple escape routes available
d Constructing control line uphill

A

In country not seen in daylight

120
Q

Which extinguishing agent is commonly used in wildland fire operations?

a Compressed air foam
b AFFF
c Dry chemical
d Carbon dioxide

A

Compressed air foam

121
Q

If a wildland or ground cover fire is too dangerous for a direct attack, which type of fire attack should be used?

a Head
b Pinch
c Indirect
d Flanking

A

Indirect

122
Q

Which NFPA standard covers wildland fire fighter professional qualifications?

a 1051
b 1041
c 1031
d 1021

A

1051

123
Q

The maximum diameter of a fine fuel is:

a ¼” (6 mm).
b ½” (13 mm).
c ¾” (19 mm).
d 1” (25 mm).

A

¼” (6 mm).

124
Q

Which is one of the ten standard wildland firefighting orders?

a Base all actions on current and expected fire behavior
b Do not attempt to outrun a fire uphill
c Focus on what is not burning, rather than what is burning
d Attack the flanks of the fire, not the head

A

Base all actions on current and expected fire behavior

125
Q

What does the “E” in LCES stand for?

a Establish lookouts
b Expect surprises
c Establish accountability
d Escape routes

A

Escape routes

126
Q

A fire fighter should reconsider accepting an assignment if it involves _____ or more of the eighteen watch out situations.

a one
b two
c three
d five

A

five

127
Q

Which is the safest and most reliable type of wildland fire attack?

a Flanking
b Pinch
c Parallel
d Tandem

A

Pinch

ff 1 (61 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions