Test Bank Ch 8-15

Question 1

Which of the following findings is an objective finding made during a patient assessment?

Answer 1

b. Blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg

Question 2

A nauseated patient’s report of abdominal pain should be documented:

Answer 2

b. as a subjective finding.

Question 3

A patient tells you that he has been feeling “very weak” for the past three days. In regards to the SOAP charting format, this information would be included under what heading?

Answer 3

a. S

Question 4

You have placed a 67-year-old female patient on high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather face mask. Following the acronym CHEATED where is it appropriate to document the information concerning the oxygen administration?

Answer 4

c. T

Question 5

When asked, an alert and oriented 44-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure reports that he called for help because “my chest is hurting.” He is diaphoretic and nauseated, has a pulse of 88 and a BP of 156/92, and says that his pain “feels just like my heart attack two years ago.” Based on this information, how would you document his chief complaint on the patient care report?

Answer 5

a. “My chest is hurting.”

Question 6

An intoxicated patient will not leave the oxygen mask on. You are aware that the acronym FACTUAL-OEC outlines the characteristics of good report writing. Based on these guidelines how would this best be documented on the prehospital care report (PCR)?

Answer 6

b. The patient continually removes the oxygen mask despite continued reapplication.

Question 7

A patient states that he has had a headache located in his forehead for three days. Utilizing the SOAP format you would document this piece of information as a(n):

Answer 7

a. subjective finding.

Question 8

When writing a prehospital care report, you accidentally document a laceration as being on the left side of a patient’s face when it was actually on the right side of the face. In addition to putting your initials and current date/time next to your correction, you would change your documentation in which of the following ways?

Answer 8

d. Draw a single line through the word “left” and write the word “right” next to it.

Question 9

Two days after a call, you realize that you forgot to document that you checked a patient’s pupils before the patient refused further treatment and signed a refusal form. Which of the following actions is your best course of action?

Answer 9

b. Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your signature.

Question 10

For which of the following patients must you provide care even if the patient refuses it?

Answer 10

d. A 29-year-old female who fell and cannot tell you what day it is

Question 11

You are alone responding to an alert and oriented male with chest discomfort who refuses treatment. He is angry with his family for calling for help and will not sign the refusal form despite several requests. In addition to documenting that the patient understands and accepts the risks of refusing care, you would:

Answer 11

b. have a family member sign as a witness to the man’s refusal.

Question 12

When getting a refusal from a patient who does not want treatment, it is critical that you do which of the following things?

Answer 12

a. Ensure that the patient understands the risks of refusing care.

Question 13

Which of the following statements about prehospital care reports is accurate?

Answer 13

a. They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record.

Question 14

The goal of effective communication is to:

Answer 14

b. deliver information in a manner that is understood by the recipient.

Question 15

Written medical communications are generally used for all of the following except:

Answer 15

c. when giving press releases about mountain accidents.

Question 16

Communication is defined as the process by which:

Answer 16

a. a message is transmitted from a sender to a receiver.

Question 17

The three forms of communication are:

Answer 17

c. oral, nonverbal, and written.

Question 18

Medical responders need to be proficient in which two types of medical communication?

Answer 18

d. Written documentation and oral communication

Question 19

You are the lead responder at a serious accident. After the accident you can provide patient care information to all of the following except:

Answer 19

a. a reporter who is writing a news story.

Question 20

After your initial evaluation of the patient you would communicate by radio with patrol base. Following the acronym SAILER, what information would you include?

Answer 20

b. Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed

Question 21

The three types of written medical communication OEC Technicians may encounter are:

Answer 21

a. field care notes, patient care reports, and incident report forms.

Question 22

In the CHEATED acronym, the letter T stands for:

Answer 22

d. treatment.

Question 23

You are completing your patient care report and are using the acronym CHEATED to guide you. In this acronym, the letter A indicates:

Answer 23

c. assessment.

Question 24

The characteristics of good report writing can easily be remembered by using mnemonic FACTUAL-OEC. Some of these acronym letters stand for:

Answer 24

a. facts, terms, unbiased, and legible.

Question 25

The acronym FACTUAL-OEC helps OEC Technicians remember that good report writing should include which of the following groups of characteristics?

Answer 25

d. Accurate information, complete details, written in black or blue ink

Question 26

In the acronym FACTUAL-OEC, the letters OEC stand for:

Answer 26

c. organized, error free, and checked.

Question 27

When patients refuse care, the most important thing to document is:

Answer 27

d. that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.

Question 28

An individual who is required to report cases of child abuse to the appropriate state agency is called a(n):

Answer 28

a. mandated reporter.

Question 29

Among the injuries or crimes that must be reported to an appropriate state agency are:

Answer 29

c. animal bites, physical assaults, and child abuse.

Question 30

Which of the following pairs are the best examples of the two main types of communication at which OEC Technicians must be proficient?

Answer 30

d. Radio communication and written communication

Question 31

In the acronym SAILER, the letter S stands for:

Answer 31

b. sex.

Question 32

You are caring for a patient that you realize will require ALS transport to the hospital. In the acronym SAILER, the letter that will assist you to remember to transmit this information during your radio call is:

Answer 32

d. R.

Question 33

Which of the following lists best describes the path that oxygen must travel to get from the air to body cells?

Answer 33

b. Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles

Question 34

You are assessing a patient who overdosed on a medication and is unresponsive. Given this situation, what is the great concern regarding potential airway occlusion?

Answer 34

d. Relaxation of the tongue

Question 35

Which of the following patients has an actual or potential occlusion of the upper airway?

Answer 35

a. A 3-year-old male with a fever and swelling of the larynx

Question 36

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an accurate understanding of breathing?

Answer 36

c. “Inhalation is an active process, whereas for most patients exhalation is a passive process.”

Question 37

Which of the following patients would benefit from the head tilt-chin lift maneuver?

Answer 37

A​ 27-year-old male with a suspected intravenous drug overdose and snoring respirations

Question 38

How is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury?

Answer 38

b. It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.

Question 39

Which of the following statements about airway management in trauma patients is correct?

Answer 39

c. Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient.

Question 40

The jaw-thrust maneuver is indicated in a(n):

Answer 40

d. unresponsive patient who fell from a porch.

Question 41

You are correctly performing the jaw-thrust maneuver when you:

Answer 41

a. use the thumbs as a lever to lift the patient’s mandible upward.

Question 42

You are caring for an unconscious patient who has vomited and appears to have a blocked airway. Using the crossed finger technique you open the patient’s mouth and can see a large piece of undigested food near the back of the throat. You would:

Answer 42

c. perform a finger sweep.

Question 43

You are assessing a young male patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and not breathing after a fall while rock climbing. His pulse is weak and thready, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. When addressing his airway and breathing, you must immediately:

Answer 43

b. perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing.

Question 44

Which of the following ventilation methods is recommended because it provides the most effective ventilations?

Answer 44

c. Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers

Question 45

You have arrived in the lodge with your airway and trauma pack to care for a patient who reportedly had a seizure. Assessment reveals him to be apneic with vomitus in the airway. He has a radial pulse, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

Answer 45

b. If available in your trauma pack, use a suction device to clear the airway; otherwise, turn him on his side and clean out the vomitus.

Question 46

Which of the following statements describes the correct positioning of a BVM on a patient’s face?

Answer 46

a. The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin.

Question 47

Which of the following statements is the best tip for artificially ventilating a patient using a bag-valve mask?

Answer 47

b. It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient.

Question 48

While a 61-year-old female in cardiac arrest receives emergency care you note that her abdomen grows larger with each ventilation provided from a bag-valve mask. What instructions should you provide?

Answer 48

c. “ Let’s slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each breath.”

Question 49

You arrive to assist another rescuer with a patient in cardiac arrest. As you enter the room, a brand new OEC Technician informs you that he is having difficulty maintaining the mask seal to the patient’s face while ventilating with the BVM. Which one of the following responses shows that you understand and can help with the problem?

Answer 49

d. “Let me maintain the face-to-mask seal while you squeeze the bag.”

Question 50

By placing an oropharyngeal airway in a patient, you have:

Answer 50

b. kept the tongue away from the airway.

Question 51

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands how and when to use an oropharyngeal airway?

Answer 51

I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper​ insertion.

Question 52

For which of the following patients is placement of an oropharyngeal airway indicated?

Answer 52

c. An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex

Question 53

You are observing a rescuer insert an oropharyngeal airway into the airway of a 36-year-old male who has overdosed. Which one of the following observations indicates correct technique?

Answer 53

a. The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient’s mouth upside down and then turns it 180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth.

Question 54

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker knows how to properly size an oral airway before its placement?

Answer 54

c. “The length of the airway should approximate the distance from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw.”

Question 55

ou recognize that the an oropharyngeal airway has been appropriately inserted when:

Answer 55

d. air moves freely in and out of the airway.

Question 56

If a patient gags while you are inserting an oropharyngeal airway, you should:

Answer 56

a. remove the airway and maintain the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

Question 57

You have been ventilating the patient with an oropharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask. Suddenly the patient regains consciousness and starts to gag. Your immediate action should be to:

Answer 57

b. remove the airway.

Question 58

You appropriately size a nasopharyngeal airway by measuring the:

Answer 58

c. distance from the patient’s nose to the earlobe.

Question 59

Which of the following phrases best describes oxygen?

Answer 59

a. An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas

Question 60

You arrive at the aid room and note that portable oxygen tanks are now yellow instead of green as during your previous shift. As a knowledgeable OEC Technician you should:

Answer 60

a. not use the yellow tank and instead retrieve a green cylinder.

Question 61

To ensure an oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM to a patient using a nonrebreather mask, you should:

Answer 61

d. select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.

Question 62

If while checking a size D oxygen tank you notice that the reading on the pressure regulator is 1000 psi, you should recognize that the tank is:

Answer 62

c. half full.

Question 63

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has a correct understanding of the use of oxygen in a prehospital setting?

Answer 63

c. “Oxygen should be administered to anyone who is short of breath.”

Question 64

Which of the following actions is part of the correct use of a nonrebreather mask on an adult patient?

Answer 64

d. Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient.

Question 65

Which of the following occurs during the proper use of a nonrebreather mask?

Answer 65

c. The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen.

Question 66

Despite coaching and explaining the benefits of a nonrebreather face mask, a female patient with chest pain panics and states that she cannot tolerate the mask over her face. The more that she panics, the worse the chest pain becomes. Your best course of action is to:

Answer 66

c. disconnect the nonrebreather and replace it with a nasal cannula.

Question 67

What is the most common oxygen delivery device used by OEC Technicians?

Answer 67

b. A nonrebreather mask

Question 68

When monitoring a patient receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula, which of the following observations warrants immediate intervention?

Answer 68

a. An oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM

Question 69

Which of the following statements about a nasal cannula is true?

Answer 69

b. When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24–44 percent oxygen.

Question 70

Which of the following statements shows that the speaker understands how to suction patients properly in a field setting?

Answer 70

d. I activate the suction device only when I am withdrawing the suction catheter.”

Question 71

The lower airway consists of which of the following structures?

Answer 71

c. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli

Question 72

The most commonly used method for opening a patient’s mouth to suction the oropharynx, to perform a finger sweep, or to insert an oral airway is:

Answer 72

b. the crossed finger technique.

Question 73

You have opened and cleared your patient’s airway. While waiting for other equipment or personnel, the easiest way to maintain this state and ensure adequate breathing is to:

Answer 73

a. place the patient in the lateral recumbent (recovery) position.

Question 74

Your patrol director has asked you to check the oxygen tanks and let her know how long they will last at an accident. To calculate this information you would use which of the following formulas?

Answer 74

a. (Gauge pressure in psi minus safe residual pressure) times cylinder size constant divided by flow rate in LPM

Question 75

A time-honored technique that may be used on conscious or unconscious patients to quickly remove fluid and solids from the airway is:

Answer 75

d. gravity.

Question 76

Which of the following statements shows that the speaker understands how to properly store an oxygen tank after use?

Answer 76

d. “I’ll place the oxygen tank in its protective case until we need to use it again.”

Question 77

You are checking equipment at the beginning of your shift. The D size oxygen cylinder measures 1000 psi. You calculate that if you needed to use this tank at 15 LPM it would last:

Answer 77

a. 8.5 minutes.

Question 78

You have been asked to teach a new patroller how to put a patient in the recovery position. Which of the following statements about the recovery position would be correct?

Answer 78

d. “Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side.”

Question 79

What does the letter S in the acronym SLIC stand for?

Answer 79

b. Size

Question 80

To clear an airway of fluid and debris, suctioning should be applied:

Answer 80

b. for no more than 10–15 seconds at a time.

Question 81

You have been asked to put a patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM. After you have finished attaching the regulator to the oxygen cylinder, your next step is to:

Answer 81

a. turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.

Question 82

Which of the following statements shows an understanding by the speaker of the use of a pocket mask?

Answer 82

b. “A pocket mask must be securely placed over the patient’s mouth and nose.”

Question 83

You hear a candidate OEC Technician explaining the use of a barrier shield to another candidate. Which of the following statements would indicate that he does not fully understand its purpose or how to use it?

Answer 83

a. “A barrier shield is as good as any of the other airway adjuncts for delivering oxygen.”

Question 84

A patient in early shock informs you that he has had severe diarrhea and vomiting over the past four days. Given this history, you would recognize the pathophysiology of the shock is probably related to:

Answer 84

d. the loss of plasma volume.

Question 85

A patient with severe gastrointestinal bleeding is in shock. This type of shock is known as:

Answer 85

a. hypovolemic.

Question 86

Which of the following conditions is the most probable cause of cardiogenic shock?

Answer 86

a. Myocardial infarction

Question 87

The four major categories of shock are:

Answer 87

d. hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive.

Question 88

Which of the following statements made by a patient’s family member would lead you to suspect that the patient is suffering from hypovolemic shock?

Answer 88

b. “He cannot stop throwing up.”

Question 89

The underlying cause of distributive shock is:

Answer 89

d. dilation of blood vessels.

Question 90

Which of the following conditions could be responsible for causing obstructive shock?

Answer 90

c. Blood clots in the lungs

Question 91

A patient in shock with abdominal pain indicates he noticed lots of blood in the toilet after having a bowel movement this morning. You would recognize the possibility of what type of shock?

Answer 91

b. Hypovolemic

Question 92

You are treating a patient with severe chest pain and believe she is in cardiogenic shock. One of your first treatments would be:

Answer 92

a. high-flow oxygen.

Question 93

You approach a patient and notice a large amount of blood on the ground. The patient appears confused, pale, and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do first?

Answer 93

c. Ensure that the​ patient’s airway is open and clear

Question 94

Which of the following situations is occurring in the body of a person in shock?

Answer 94

d. The cells are not getting enough oxygen, and waste products are accumulating.

Question 95

When performing a primary assessment, the first evidence that the body may be in shock is:

Answer 95

b. a radial pulse of 100 beats per minute.

Question 96

Which of the following statements best indicates that the speaker has an understanding of the role of caring for a patient in shock in a prehospital setting?

Answer 96

d. “Because shock is best treated in the hospital, one should provide care to correct problems affecting ABCDs and then rapidly transport the patient.”

Question 97

A 56-year-old female has struck a tree. Your assessment reveals gurgling respirations, rapid breathing, and cool, diaphoretic skin. You also observe bruising to the chest and abdomen. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

Answer 97

d. Open and maintain her airway

Question 98

A patient who sustained blunt trauma to the abdominal and pelvic areas in a very serious collision is probably in which type of shock?

Answer 98

d. Hypovolemic

Question 99

Septic shock is caused by:

Answer 99

c. an infection

Question 100

Which of the following lists of assessment findings indicates that a trauma patient may be in compensated shock?

Answer 100

a. Anxious, pulse 104, BP 134/88 mmHg, pale and cool skin

Question 101

You are reassessing a patient who has sustained an open femoral shaft​ fracture, which has been appropriately treated with bandaging and a traction splint. It has been 10 minutes since the initial evaluation. Which of the following reassessment findings best indicates that the patient is deteriorating and is in the decompensating phase of​ shock?

Answer 101

b. Blood pressure of 88/50

Question 102

Which of the following statements about irreversible shock is correct?

Answer 102

a. Even with treatment, death will result.

Question 103

Shock is defined as:

Answer 103

d. a state of inadequate tissue perfusion.

Question 104

The cardiovascular system is composed of the:

Answer 104

c. heart, blood vessels, and blood.

Question 105

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the heart?

Answer 105

b. It pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs through the pulmonary veins.

Question 106

Which of the following statements correctly describes cardiac output?

Answer 106

a. It is the combination of stroke volume and heart rate.

Question 107

The key components of blood are:

Answer 107

c. red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma.

Question 108

The degree to which hemoglobin is full of oxygen is called:

Answer 108

b. oxygen saturation.

Question 109

Hemorrhage can result in all of the following except:

Answer 109

a. decreased respirations.

Question 110

In shock, the body’s reactions to a decreased amount of oxygen reaching the cells include:

Answer 110

b. increased stroke volume, increased heart rate, and increased peripheral resistance.

Question 111

In decompensated shock, the failure of body systems in spite of the body’s attempt to oxygenate vital organs becomes apparent as:

Answer 111

c. increased pulse rate and decreased blood pressure.

Question 112

You are caring for a 55-year-old man with significant trauma. His medical history reveals high blood pressure for which he takes a beta blocker. You realize that this group of drugs may:

Answer 112

a. inhibit his heart’s ability to beat faster.

Question 113

Which of the following factors must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external bleeding?

Answer 113

b. A person in poor health cannot tolerate the same amount of blood loss as a healthier person.

Question 114

You get a call for a “serious” injury on the expert trail. As you are skiing up to the patient your first priority is:

Answer 114

c. assessing the scene for rescuer safety.

Question 115

The smaller branches of the arterial tree that contain a muscular layer that enables changes in vessel diameter are called _______; these vessels ________.

Answer 115

a. resistance vessels; enable the body to control

Question 116

In a healthy adult male, the hematocrit—the amount of red blood cells in the blood—should be:

Answer 116

d. 42–54 percent.

Question 117

You are treating a 42-year-old female exhibiting signs of shock. You do not suspect a spinal injury. To try to improve blood flow to the heart, you should position the patient:

Answer 117

a. supine with her feet elevated 8–12 inches above the level of the heart.

Question 118

When assessing a patient with a possible stroke, the priority of care is:

Answer 118

c. recognizing the signs of a stroke.

Question 119

Which of the following is the best answer to the question, “Are all stroke patients paralyzed on one side of their bodies?”

Answer 119

d. “No. Some stroke patients may have only slight weakness on one side of their bodies.”

Question 120

When assessing a patient for abnormal speech, you should:

Answer 120

b. ask the patient to repeat a common phrase.

Question 121

When assessing a patient for a facial droop, you should:

Answer 121

c. ask the patient to show you his teeth or to smile.

Question 122

Which of the following instructions to a possible stroke patient describes the proper procedure for assessing an arm drift?

Answer 122

d. “Hold your arms straight out for 10 to 15 seconds.”

Question 123

Which of the following questions is critical for establishing a window of treatment for a patient who is weak and dizzy and may have suffered a stroke?

Answer 123

b. “What time did the weakness and dizziness start?”

Question 124

Which of the following pieces of information is assessed by the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

Answer 124

b. Presence or absence of facial droop

Question 125

You have assessed a patient and found a patent airway, adequate breathing, and a strong radial pulse. The patient is having no difficulty speaking and no facial droop, but exhibits a slight left arm drift. You should interpret these findings as:

Answer 125

d. suggestive that a stroke may be occurring.

Question 126

Which of the following statements shows that the speaker has an accurate understanding of assessment findings related to stroke?

Answer 126

b. “If one arm is weak, a stroke should be suspected.”

Question 127

The family of a​ 75-year-old man has called you to evaluate the​ patient’s slurred speech and right arm weakness. When you arrive 10 minutes​ later, you find that the symptoms have completely resolved. What should you do​ next?

Answer 127

d. Strongly advise the patient to seek urgent medical attention in a hospital setting

Question 128

Your assessment reveals a drooling 48-year-old male to have gurgling speech and left arm paralysis. Which of the following would be your priority?

Answer 128

a. Suction the patient’s airway.

Question 129

Which of the following events best describes an ischemic stroke?

Answer 129

d. A blood clot has obstructed a blood vessel in the brain.

Question 130

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands hemorrhagic strokes?

Answer 130

b. “They occur when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures.”

Question 131

The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA):

Answer 131

a. are temporary and resolve within 24 hours.

Question 132

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker an accurate understanding of altered mental status?

Answer 132

a. “It describes any abnormal change in a person’s level of awareness.”

Question 133

Your patient is a 78-year-old male who was found lying on the beginner slope. The patient is unresponsive with unequal pupils and vital signs as follows: pulse 78, respirations 20 and deep. The patient has a hematoma on the back of his head. Which one of the following would you do first?

Answer 133

c. Ensure an open airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver.

Question 134

Your patient is unresponsive. Which piece of information given to you by the patient’s family is most important in relation to the treatment of a possible stroke?

Answer 134

c. “We noticed him acting oddly about 7 p.m. last night.”

Question 135

The benefit of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is that it:

Answer 135

d. helps you identify the probability that your patient is having a stroke.

Question 136

You have been called for a seizure emergency. You find an adult female actively seizing with a bystander attempting to place a spoon between her teeth. The bystander tells you that he is trying to keep the person from biting her tongue. Which one of the following would be an appropriate response?

Answer 136

b. Turn the patient onto her side to facilitate the drainage of oral secretions.

Question 137

A young boy tells you that his twin brother suffers from seizures and asks what he can do if he sees his brother convulsing. You should give him which one of the following instructions?

Answer 137

a. “Move any moveable objects and furniture away from him.”

Question 138

As a general rule, a seizing patient should be transported in what position?

Answer 138

c. Lateral recumbent

Question 139

After a delayed response, you arrive in the lodge and find a 62-year-old female is still seizing. Which one of the following should you do first?

Answer 139

a. Assess her airway and breathing.

Question 140

You are called the lodge to assess a 3-year-old boy. The parents state that their son was playing with his brother and “blanked out” and “stared off into space” for several seconds. They deny any convulsing-like movement. Based on this description, you would suspect what type of seizure?

Answer 140

d. An absence seizure

Question 141

When performing a secondary assessment on a confused patient, which of the following signs is most suggestive of a seizure?

Answer 141

b. A bitten tongue

Question 142

You have been called to the lodge for a behavioral emergency. When you arrive, you find a disheveled male in his forties sitting up against a wall. He is confused and incontinent. Bystanders state that he suddenly began to stumble around and then fell to the ground and was grunting and shaking. From this description, you would be suspicious of what condition?

Answer 142

a. A generalized seizure

Question 143

Status epilepticus is best differentiated from a generalized seizure by:

Answer 143

a. the duration of the seizure.

Question 144

During the initial part of a generalized seizure, some patients experience a(n):

Answer 144

b. aura.

Question 145

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands the danger posed by status epilepticus?

Answer 145

c. “The longer the seizure continues, the greater the likelihood of permanent brain damage.”

Question 146

Which of the following statements concerning the pathophysiology of seizures is correct?

Answer 146

d. A seizure occurs when there is an electrical disturbance in the brain.

Question 147

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the A stands for:

Answer 147

b. alcohol and acidosis.

Question 148

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the E stands for:

Answer 148

a. epilepsy, environment, and electrolyte imbalance.

Question 149

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the first I stands for:

Answer 149

c. insulin.

Question 150

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the O stands for:

Answer 150

b. oxygen and overdose.

Question 151

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the U stands for:

Answer 151

d. uremia.

Question 152

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the T stands for:

Answer 152

b. trauma and tumors.

Question 153

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the second I stands for:

Answer 153

d. infection.

Question 154

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the P stands for:

Answer 154

d. poisoning and psychiatric conditions.

Question 155

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the S stands for:

Answer 155

b. seizure, stroke, and syncope.

Question 156

The part of the brain that is responsible for emotion, thought, speech, integration, and memory is the:

Answer 156

c. cerebrum.

Question 157

The part of the brain that controls basic functions necessary for life is the:

Answer 157

a. brain stem.

Question 158

The part of the brain that controls balance and coordination is the:

Answer 158

b. cerebellum.

Question 159

Insulin:

Answer 159

a. is a catalyst for driving glucose into cells.

Question 160

The primary problem in Type II diabetes is that:

Answer 160

b. cells exhibit resistance to insulin.

Question 161

Which of the following actions may result in hypoglycemia in a diabetes patient?

Answer 161

c. Missing a meal

Question 162

Hyperglycemia:

Answer 162

a. has a more gradual onset than hypoglycemia.

Question 163

Glucose:

Answer 163

b. is an energy source for brain cells and other cells in the body.

Question 164

Which of the following statements regarding poisonings is true?

Answer 164

a. A poison is any substance that causes harmful effects when introduced into the body.

Question 165

Which of the following terms does not indicate a route of absorption in the body?

Answer 165

c. Distribution

Question 166

A 44-year-old patient was found at home unresponsive. Based on his clinical presentation and the fact that he was burning a kerosene heater in an enclosed room, you determine that he is suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning. Based on this information, which route of exposure would you recognize as responsible for the poisoning?

Answer 166

b. Inhalation

Question 167

Distribution of a poisonous substance in the body occurs primarily through the:

Answer 167

b. circulatory system.

Question 168

The process by which the body breaks down a substance is known as:

Answer 168

c. metabolism.

Question 169

The speed at which a toxin is distributed in the body is affected by:

Answer 169

a. the heart rate.

Question 170

Anything that has mass and occupies space is known as a:

Answer 170

d. substance.

Question 171

A 15-year-old admits to taking “a bunch” of extra strength Tylenol tablets. Her mother states it’s nothing to worry about because it was just Tylenol. Based on your training you recognize that this ingestion could have serious consequences. It is because toxic amounts acetaminophen can cause irreversible:

Answer 171

a. liver damage.

Question 172

You are visiting a friend’s home and suddenly hear a child crying out in the kitchen. As you assess the scene you note kitchen cabinets are open with bottles tossed around. The child is holding her hand to her mouth. Your friend tells you that the child must have tasted something that she didn’t like. Based on your scene assessment, you would:

Answer 172

c. call 911 and try to identify which bottle the child may have been drinking from.

Question 173

You are assisting a paramedic in the aid room to care for a patient who has ingested a toxin. The paramedic states she wants to give the patient activated charcoal. Based on your training you recall that there are specific criteria that should be met before charcoal is administered. Which of the following criteria is not one of the criteria for administering activated charcoal?

Answer 173

a. The patient ingested the poison less than three hours ago.

Question 174

It is late Friday evening and you are joining your friends at a cabin for a winter weekend camping trip. When you open the door you notice how nice and warm it is inside. Your friends though are not very welcoming. They tell you they are not feeling well and complain of being lightheaded and nauseated. Based on their symptoms, you are concerned they may be suffering from:

Answer 174

d. carbon monoxide poisoning.

Question 175

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands inhalation poisonings?

Answer 175

a. “They can occur from inhaling common household products.”

Question 176

You are driving on the highway and see an overturned tanker. A fluid is spilling from the tanker rapidly covering the ground around the driver’s door. The driver appears to be unresponsive. The only marking on the tanker seems to be the name of the tanker company and hazard symbol. Your initial action should be:

Answer 176

c. remain at a safe distance while calling 911 for assistance.

Question 177

You are helping a friend change the battery in his truck when acid from the old battery splashes in his eye. He is complaining of pain in his right eye and is having a hard time keeping it open. He has no problems with airway, breathing, or circulation. What should you do?

Answer 177

d. Immediately irrigate the eye with copious amounts of water.

Question 178

You are at a party and are called to assist a young female college student who is unresponsive. Friends say that she is not a heavy drinker, but tonight she drank an excessive amount of alcohol. She responds only to painful stimuli and has snoring respirations. Her respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute and her radial pulse is weak. Based on your OEC training your first action would be would be:

Answer 178

c. perform the jaw thrust-head tilt maneuver.

Question 179

You are teaching a class about drug-related emergencies, specifically opiate overdose. Which of the following statements made by students indicates an understanding of possible signs of opiate overdose?

Answer 179

b. “When assessing a patient, you must be alert for respiratory depression.”

Question 180

Agitation, elevated heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are signs of intoxication with which of the following types of substances?

Answer 180

a. Cocaine and hallucinogens

Question 181

Substance abuse is defined as:

Answer 181

d. the intentional misuse of a substance that results in significant impairment or distress.

Question 182

A patient in the third day of withdrawal from alcohol could develop all of the following conditions except:

Answer 182

a. rash.

Question 183

Which of the following parts of the body is least often affected by substances?

Answer 183

c. The lymphatic vessels

Question 184

A poisonous substance that comes from a living organism is known as a(n):

Answer 184

b. toxin.

Question 185

As a whole, the least toxic of all accidental ingestion-related poisonings involve:

Answer 185

c. toxic plants.

Question 186

For children, the three deadliest poisons are:

Answer 186

b. aspirin, acetaminophen, and iron.

Question 187

The most commonly abused drug in the world is:

Answer 187

d. alcohol.

Question 188

In the United States, poison-related information is available 24 hours a day by contacting the:

Answer 188

c. National Poison Center at 1-800-222-1222.

Question 189

he mnemonic DUMBELS and the acronym SLUDGE can help identify specific signs and symptoms associated with:

Answer 189

a. exposure to nerve agents.

Question 190

A passive process whereby compounds move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called:

Answer 190

a. diffusion.

Question 191

Which of the following lists best represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs once it passes the pharynx?

Answer 191

d. Larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

Question 192

When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which of the following events occurs?

Answer 192

d. Exhalation

Question 193

The most important muscle of respiration is the:

Answer 193

c. diaphragm.

Question 194

Which of the following actions causes an individual to inhale?

Answer 194

c. The diaphragm contracts and flattens.

Question 195

A tachypneic patient is breathing:

Answer 195

c. more rapidly than normal.

Question 196

During a scene size-up, which of the following observations most strongly suggests that your adult patient is suffering from an acute respiratory emergency?

Answer 196

b. The patient is in the tripod position.

Question 197

In an adult, the most common cause of airway obstruction is:

Answer 197

a. the tongue.

Question 198

When using a metered-dose inhaler, it is important that right after inhaling patients:

Answer 198

d. hold their breath for 10 seconds.

Question 199

What is the minimum time a patient should wait before taking a second dose from a metered-dose inhaler?

Answer 199

a. 30 seconds

Question 200

A patient whose lungs alveoli are filled with fluid and pus secondary to pneumonia is at risk of:

Answer 200

c. decreased absorption of oxygen into the body.

Question 201

Your friend tells you that his doctor just prescribed medication for him that he takes with a metered dose inhaler. He says he was nervous and is not sure he remembers his physician’s directions. Which one of the following statements would be correct?

Answer 201

d. “Call your doctor and ask her again how you should use it.”

Question 202

Involuntary breathing is controlled by:

Answer 202

a. the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the blood.

Question 203

You are documenting your assessment of the patient who just left in an ambulance. The patient told you that he felt short of breath. You would document this as:

Answer 203

c. dyspnea.

Question 204

Which of the following conditions is responsible for a finding of wheezing accompanying shortness of breath?

Answer 204

b. Bronchiole constriction

Question 205

The normal range for respiratory rate in children is:

Answer 205

b. 15–20 breaths per minute.

Question 206

You receive a call that there is an infant in the lodge who seems to be having difficulty breathing. As you are approaching the scene with a new candidate patroller, you ask him what is the normal respiratory rate for an infant. The candidate would be correct if he told you the rate should be:

Answer 206

c. 25–50 breaths per minute.

Question 207

You and your OEC candidate are evaluating a 67-year-old patient with respiratory distress. You tell the candidate to document that the patient complains of dyspnea. The candidate asks you what “dyspnea” means. You explain that dyspnea is:

Answer 207

b. a subjective complaint of shortness of breath.

Question 208

Which of the following statements about respiratory accessory muscles is not correct?

Answer 208

d. They decrease negative internal chest pressure to draw more air into the lungs.

Question 209

Which of the following signs would you recognize as an early sign of respiratory distress in a 7-year-old boy who complains of difficulty breathing?

Answer 209

b. Nasal flaring

Question 210

You are having a hard time getting the medical history of a patient who is short of breath. Which one of the following pieces of information would lead you to believe that the patient has a history of a chronic lung disease such as chronic emphysema?

Answer 210

b. Her chest is barrel shaped.

Question 211

A 71-year-old woman is complaining of the sudden onset of shortness of breath. She is cyanotic and appears somewhat panicked. Her respirations are rapid and deep. Her husband tells you that she had knee surgery about one week ago. Based on your assessment and the patient’s history, you suspect that the patient is suffering from:

Answer 211

d. a pulmonary embolus.

Question 212

You are called to aid a 65-year-old man who is having difficulty breathing. When you arrive, you find that he is sitting upright in a chair and is in obvious respiratory distress. His airway is open and his respirations are 28 per minute. At this time you would:

Answer 212

a. provide him oxygen with a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.

Question 213

A 30-year-old male arrives in the aid room complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following actions would you perform first?

Answer 213

b. Assess the adequacy of his breathing.

Question 214

You are in the cafeteria and suddenly hear someone calling for help because her friend is choking. Which of the following signs would tell you that you need to intervene immediately?

Answer 214

b. The patient cannot speak.

Question 215

You arrive on scene where an unresponsive patient is being treated. The OEC Technician on scene tells you that she thinks the patient may have had a stroke. You suggest to the patroller to first:

Answer 215

c. apply a nonrebreather mask and provide oxygen.

Question 216

A 74-year-old male with a history of chronic emphysema is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. He appears to be in acute respiratory distress. Physical exam of the anterior chest wall reveals crepitus. Based on the patient’s history and physical exam, you would suspect which of the following conditions?

Answer 216

a. Spontaneous pneumothorax

Question 217

You are assessing a 34-year-old man who is complaining of “not feeling well.” He is alert and pale. His respirations are regular at 20 per minute. Based on your training, you recognize that his respirations are:

Answer 217

a. normal for an adult.

Question 218

Hyperventilation syndrome is a common psychological condition that:

Answer 218

d. results in abnormally low blood carbon dioxide levels.

Question 219

Several abnormal lung sounds can be helpful in understanding what condition may be affecting a patient. One such sound is wheezing. Which of the following statements about wheezing is false?

Answer 219

d. It can be heard only with a stethoscope.

Question 220

You are assessing a 24-year-old skier who is anxious and complaining of shortness of breath. She tells you that this sometimes happens when she is exercising. Her respirations are rapid and shallow. Based on this information, you suspect the patient is suffering from:

Answer 220

b. asthma.

Question 221

You are called to assist a 16-year-old female who is reportedly having trouble breathing. Your assessment reveals an anxious female with rapid respirations who is complaining of pins and needles around her lips. Based on your training you suspect that:

Answer 221

b. these findings will disappear if she slows her rate of breathing.

Question 222

Which of the following respiratory rates may signify significant respiratory issues in an adult?

Answer 222

a. Fewer than 8 respirations per minute

Question 223

A patient tells you that he is allergic to poison ivy and that while burning it yesterday he accidentally inhaled some of the smoke. He awoke today to find a red rash on the back of his left hand and is concerned. Assessment reveals him to be alert and oriented, with easy respirations and a blood pressure of 128/70 mm/Hg. Which of the following actions should you take next?

Answer 223

c. Obtain a medical history using the SAMPLE acronym.

Question 224

Which of the following statements best suggests that the speaker may be having a mild allergic reaction?

Answer 224

d. “I have a rash on my face and neck.”

Question 225

A patient who is responsive only to painful stimuli is covered with hives. He has labored respirations and a weak and tachycardic pulse. His vital signs are pulse 128, respirations 24, and blood pressure 80/50 mmHg. Given this presentation, you would suspect:

Answer 225

b. an anaphylactic reaction.

Question 226

During a primary assessment, which of the following findings would most lead you to suspect an allergic reaction?

Answer 226

a. Hives on the face and neck

Question 227

A patient who is severely short of breath and covered with hives states that she is very allergic to crab. She admits to trying some seafood dip about 10 minutes ago. Which of the following questions should you ask her first?

Answer 227

d. “Do you have an epinephrine auto-injector?”

Question 228

The patient has swollen lips and hives. Which of the following scene size-up observations supports your suspicion that the patient is having an allergic reaction?

Answer 228

b. He has a new container of antibiotics with only two pills missing.

Question 229

The most severe form of an allergic reaction is called:

Answer 229

b. anaphylaxis.

Question 230

When the respiratory effects of an allergic reaction are obvious within a few seconds to minutes:

Answer 230

a. the reaction tends to be more severe.

Question 231

On scene you assisted a patient with his epinephrine auto-injector after he was stung multiple times by bees. You are now transporting him to the first aid room. As you reassess him, which of the following signs best indicates that the epinephrine is benefiting him?

Answer 231

c. Decreasing wheezing

Question 232

A patient who is allergic to peanuts was just exposed to peanut butter. Assessment reveals her to be alert and oriented, with swollen lips and hives on her face. She states that she is lightly short of breath; her respiratory rate is 20 per minute. She has a heart rate of 82 and a blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg. She states that she is nauseated and has a headache. Which of the following actions is your immediate treatment for this patient?

Answer 232

b. Provide oxygen via nonrebreather mask.

Question 233

You have arrived by the side of a patient who is allergic to latex and was exposed to it when she spilled a latex-containing powder on her right hand. Assessment reveals her to be lethargic and panicked. She is able to speak only a few words with each breath. Her tongue is swollen and her respirations are rapid, labored, and noisy. Which of the following actions should be your priority?

Answer 233

b. Wash the latex powder off of the hand.

Question 234

You are responding to a call for a patient with an allergic reaction. Your partner is a new OEC Technician, and this is his first call. Which of the following instructions to him about assessment and treatment of an allergic reaction would be correct?

Answer 234

c. “Our first priority is to treat the patient’s ABCDs.”

Question 235

A patient informs you that any time she uses a particular soap, she experiences a mild allergic reaction. You recognize that:

Answer 235

a. the soap contains an allergen.

Question 236

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands allergic reactions and anaphylaxis?

Answer 236

c. “Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that will lead to death without emergency care.”

Question 237

Which of the following foods most commonly causes an allergic reaction?

Answer 237

c. Peanuts

Question 238

You are called to the lodge to help a patient who has developed an allergic reaction after taking an antibiotic medication. You would describe this route of exposure as:

Answer 238

c. ingestion.

Question 239

Which of the following statements explains why patients experiencing a moderate or severe allergic reaction have difficulty breathing?

Answer 239

c. The bronchioles constrict and are clogged by thick secretions.

Question 240

Which of the following statements made by the patient after you assist him with his epinephrine auto-injector best indicates that the epinephrine is working and that the patient is improving?

Answer 240

a. “My breathing feels a lot easier.”

Question 241

Five minutes after you assist a patient with her epinephrine auto-injector, she states that she feels much better and would like to refuse additional care. What of the following statements would be most appropriate given the situation?

Answer 241

b. “Now that you have taken your epinephrine, you should to go to the hospital for additional care.”

Question 242

After assisting a patient with his epinephrine auto-injector, you note that his blood pressure has improved. You realize that this finding probably resulted from epinephrine’s ability to:

Answer 242

b. constrict blood vessels.

Question 243

Your patient is having an allergic reaction and needs to use his epinephrine auto-injector. He is concerned that he does not recall the correct way to do it. Which of the following things would you tell him?

Answer 243

a. “Press the injector onto the outer thigh, push the tip against the thigh until the needle deploys, and wait for it to automatically inject.”

Question 244

You are staffing a first-aid booth at a mountain bike event. A mother approaches you with her 15-year-old son and informs you that her son is severely allergic to bees. Although he hasn’t been stung, she is concerned about the auto-injector he carries. The mother states that it was prescribed when her son was 13 years old. She shows you the 0.15 mg auto-injector, and you note that it expired about 12 months ago. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate for you to make?

Answer 244

a. “Call your doctor’s office for a new prescription because this auto-injector is out of date.”

Question 245

Which of the following findings would be a contraindication to the administration of epinephrine for a patient suffering an anaphylactic reaction?

Answer 245

c. The name on the injector is not the patient’s name.

Question 246

When administering epinephrine to an infant or child, the injector should be placed at what location?

Answer 246

d. The lateral thigh

Question 247

A patient experiencing an allergic reaction tells you that it is easier to breathe following administration of epinephrine. Which of the following effects is an effect of epinephrine that would be responsible for this improvement?

Answer 247

b. Dilation of the bronchioles

Question 248

Which of the following findings is present in anaphylaxis but occurs much less frequently during a mild allergic reaction?

Answer 248

d. Hypotension

Question 249

An acquired, abnormal immune response to a substance that does not normally cause a reaction is known as:

Answer 249

b. an allergy.

Question 250

A foreign substance that triggers an allergic response in the body is known as:

Answer 250

a. an antigen.

Question 251

A patient can have an allergic reaction caused by intramuscular administration of a medication. This method by which an allergen enters the body is called:

Answer 251

b. injection.

Question 252

The overreaction of the immune system to a substance that is otherwise harmless is known as:

Answer 252

a. hypersensitivity.

Question 253

Which of the following statements concerning allergies is true?

Answer 253

b. An allergic reaction to a substance can occur minutes, hours, or even days after exposure to the substance.

Question 254

The approach allergists recommend to allergies is called “Triple A,” which refers to:

Answer 254

a. awareness, avoidance, and action.

Question 255

You are teaching a class on cardiovascular disease and need to describe what atherosclerosis is. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate explanation?

Answer 255

c. “Cholesterol and lipid material accumulate within the walls of arteries.”

Question 256

You are called to assist a 62-year-old female who is complaining of fatigue, jaw discomfort, and diaphoresis. When asked, she denies having chest pain or shortness of breath. She tells you that she has a history of hypertension and takes a blood pressure pill. She also has nitroglycerin. Which of the following statements made by your assistant would require intervention on your part?

Answer 256

b. “She is not short of breath, so we don’t need to transport her.”

Question 257

You have been called to treat a 47-year-old man complaining of chest pain. He is alert, oriented, and complaining of pain in his chest that came on suddenly about 15 minutes ago. His skin is diaphoretic and cool. Which of the following actions should you take first?

Answer 257

a. Apply oxygen at 15 LPM through a nonrebreather mask.

Question 258

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an understanding of chest pain and acute myocardial infarction?

Answer 258

d. “Some patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction do not have actual chest pain; instead, they experience a sensation of ‘severe heartburn.’ ”

Question 259

A patient with chest pain informs you that he has a bad heart. You think he may have congestive heart failure. When performing your secondary assessment, which of the following signs or symptoms does not indicate that the patient is in congestive heart failure?

Answer 259

b. Bradycardia

Question 260

Aspirin may be used in a patient who has chest pain suggestive of a heart attack because aspirin may:

Answer 260

c. decrease the ability of platelets to form clots.

Question 261

You are with a patient who is complaining of chest pain that radiates into his arm and neck. He is alert and oriented and has an open airway and adequate breathing. His pulse is strong and his skin is cool and slightly diaphoretic. His pulse is 84, his respirations are 18, and his blood pressure is 90/62 mmHg. Responses to SAMPLE questioning include a history of a previous heart attack and chronic lung disease; an allergy to aspirin; possession of nitroglycerin; and last ate about 6 hours ago. Based on this information, you would not:

Answer 261

a. assist the patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet.

Question 262

You are caring for a patient with chest pain who has just taken his nitroglycerin. The patient’s chest pain has been alleviated. You understand that nitroglycerin is effective in treating chest pain because it:

Answer 262

c. dilates the arteries and veins, which decreases the workload on the heart.

Question 263

When assisting a patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet, it is:

Answer 263

a. placed under the tongue.

Question 264

Before nitroglycerin is administered, you should ensure that:

Answer 264

a. nitroglycerin is in fact prescribed for the patient.

Question 265

Which of the following medications, if taken in the last 24 hours, would be a contraindication to administering nitroglycerin?

Answer 265

c. Viagra

Question 266

You are assisting a 67-year-old patient with chest pain. He has taken two nitroglycerin tablets but his pain remains a 7 out of 10. He is diaphoretic; his respirations are 18 per minute and adequate; his pulse is 72; and his blood pressure 80/62 mmHg. He is on a nonrebreather mask at 15L per minute. You would:

Answer 266

c. reassess his vital signs every 5 minutes and transfer him by ALS care.

Question 267

Which of the following actions is most important before assisting a patient to take prescribed nitroglycerin?

Answer 267

b. Evaluate the patient’s blood pressure.

Question 268

When obtaining a medical history, which of the following statement made by a patient is classic for a patient with stable angina?

Answer 268

b. “When I stopped exercising, the pain went away.”

Question 269

You are in the first-aid area assisting a patient who just arrived with chest pain. He relates a history of angina that usually resolves with nitroglycerin. The patient states that the pain started when he was skiing through the bumps. Over the last 20 minutes, he has taken three nitroglycerin tablets and rested, but the pain has not gone away. Your next action would be to:

Answer 269

c. place him on high-flow oxygen.

Question 270

An OEC Technician indicates that she understands the difference between stable angina and an acute myocardial infarction (MI) when she states:

Answer 270

d. “An acute myocardial infarction results in the death of cardiac tissue; stable angina causes ischemia to the heart muscle.”

Question 271

Which of the following signs or symptoms is suggestive of right-sided congestive heart failure?

Answer 271

b. Edema in the legs and feet

Question 272

An alert and oriented 65-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, noisy respirations, jugular vein distention, and edema in her feet and ankles. Her pulse is 132, her respirations are 24, and her blood pressure is 86/68. Based on these findings, you would suspect that the patient:

Answer 272

c. is undergoing right ventricular failure.

Question 273

You have just arrived with an AED at a scene where fellow OEC Technicians are treating a patient in cardiac arrest. ALS has been contacted and is about 1 minute away. Which of the following actions would you take?

Answer 273

b. Apply and use the AED.

Question 274

Which of the following statements made by a patient would cause you to suspect an aortic abdominal aneurysm?

Answer 274

a. “I have really bad belly pain that I also feel in my back.”

Question 275

You are assessing a 68-year-old man who is complaining of severe abdominal pain that radiates to his back. He tells you that he has a history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Based on this history and his complaints, on your physical exam you would look for:

Answer 275

b. a pulsating mass in his abdomen.

Question 276

Blood in the right ventricle is pumped into the:

Answer 276

b. pulmonary artery.

Question 277

Which of the following statements concerning arteries is true?

Answer 277

a. They carry blood away from the heart.

Question 278

Which of the following statements concerning the cardiovascular system is true?

Answer 278

c. An electrical impulse that starts in the right atrium stimulates contraction of the heart muscle.

Question 279

The largest artery in the body is the:

Answer 279

c. aorta.

Question 280

The walls of the capillaries are only one cell thick. This allows the exchange of nutrients and oxygen and waste products. The capillaries serve as the bridge between:

Answer 280

a. arterioles and venules.

Question 281

Which of the following statements concerning the flow of blood to and through the right side of the heart is correct?

Answer 281

d. Poorly oxygenated blood reaches the right atrium from the venae cavae, is pumped through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, and is then pumped through the pulmonic valve and on to the lungs through the pulmonary arteries.

Question 282

Which of the following structures help direct blood flow forward and prevent the backflow of blood within the heart?

Answer 282

c. The atrioventricular valves

Question 283

The left side of the heart:

Answer 283

b. pumps oxygenated blood to the body.

Question 284

A thickening and loss of elasticity of the arterial walls is known as:

Answer 284

a. arteriosclerosis.

Question 285

A patient tells you that he has been diagnosed with coronary artery disease. You recognize this diagnosis to mean that the patient has:

Answer 285

d. narrowing of the small arteries that supply blood and oxygen to the heart.

Question 286

You are preparing to teach a class on hypertension. Which of the following statements provides incorrect information that you would not include in your presentation?

Answer 286

b. There are no known treatable risk factors for hypertension.

Question 287

Which of the following statements about cardiovascular disease (CVD) is false?

Answer 287

c. Most cases of CVD are congenital and could be prevented with improved prenatal care.

Question 288

One complication of an acute myocardial infarction may be cardiogenic shock. Based on your training, you would define cardiogenic shock as a(n):

Answer 288

a. condition whereby tissues of the body are oxygen deprived due to the heart’s inability to adequately pump blood.

Question 289

Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled or distant heart tones in which the heartbeat is difficult to auscultate are hallmark signs of:

Answer 289

d. pericardial tamponade.

Question 290

A 62-year-old man presents with a complaint of abdominal pain radiating to his groin. He also complains of dizziness. On examination, his abdomen is tender and you feel a large pulsatile mass. His signs and symptoms are suggestive of:

Answer 290

b. an abdominal aortic aneurysm.

Question 291

Your neighbor tells you that he is concerned about his 70-year-old wife. She is at home recovering from a heart attack that occurred about 3 weeks ago. He explains that over the last few days her ankles and lower legs have been gradually swelling and are painful to touch. Today she seems to be a little short of breath. You recommend that your neighbor seek immediate medical attention because these findings are suggestive of:

Answer 291

a. congestive heart failure.

Question 292

You are out shopping when a middle-aged man suddenly falls to the ground. You quickly run to assist him and note that he is not breathing and does not have a carotid pulse. You begin CPR because you know that prompt intervention with an AED is needed. Which of the following statements is not a reason that prompt intervention with an AED is needed?

Answer 292

c. Asystole, which can accompany an acute MI, is often reversed by the use of an AED.

Question 293

When performing cardiac compressions on a 12-year-old child, you would:

Answer 293

a. administer cycles of 30 chest compressions followed by two breaths.

Question 294

Which of the following is not a reason to stop CPR?

Answer 294

c. It has been 25 minutes, so brain damage has occurred.

Question 295

In performing CPR on an infant:

Answer 295

a. place two fingers on the sternum just beneath an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are approximately one-third the depth of the chest.

Question 296

Three commonly used cardiac medications are:

Answer 296

b. Nitroglycerine, Coumadin, and Lasix.

Question 297

Which of the following actions is not an action you should take when using an AED?

Answer 297

c. Ascertain the patient’s age, because special cables are needed for anyone under age 8.

Question 298

You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who is complaining of the sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. She describes the pain as sharp and states that it increases when she takes a deep breath. You note that she is tachypneic. Her BP is 130/82 and her pulse is 100. Based on her presentation, you suspect that she may have:

Answer 298

a. pulmonary embolism.

Question 299

After jogging with your friend for about 30 minutes, she stops and asks why your heart rate increases and your heart feels like it is pumping harder after you exercise for a while. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, your best response would be which of the following statements?

Answer 299

b. “Exercise makes your body need more nutrients and oxygen; your heart pumps harder and faster to deliver more blood containing those things to your muscles.”

Question 300

Which statement about medical communication is NOT​ true?

Answer 300

Medical communication data flow has little or no effect on the safety of outdoor recreational activities.

Question 301

As an OEC technician you are more than likely considered a​ “mandated reporter.” Below is a list of the injuries or crimes the law requires you to report except.

Answer 301

Verbal aggressiveness

Question 302

Miscommunication can occur due to all but which of the following​ reasons?

Answer 302

Active listening with interactive feedback

Question 303

Your handwriting and spelling are terrible. Which of the following would be the best method for you to complete an incident form or SOAP​ report?

Answer 303

Ask a colleague to scribe the information for​ you, then both of you date and sign the form

Question 304

For which of the following could you be sued due to a HEPA​ violation?

Answer 304

Responding to a phone call from a​ patient’s employer that a patient was indeed sent to a local hospital in the aftermath of an accident

Question 305

An​ 18-year-old patient quietly tells you that she fears she may be​ pregnant, and you document this on the​ patient’s SOAP form. When the​ patient’s mother​ arrives, she demands to see the​ form, stating that she has a right to see it because she pays for her​ daughter’s health insurance. Your best response to the mother would be​ to:

Answer 305

Explain to her that HEPA privacy laws forbid your sharing this information with her.

Question 306

Shock can be described as a physiologic state in​ which:

Answer 306

The cells of all organs are not getting enough oxygen and waste products are accumulating.

Question 307

In your evaluation of a patient with chest pain and​ hyptotension, you come to the conclusion that he is likely experiencing cardiogenic shock. He has a palpable carotid pulse. Your most appropriate immediate action would be​ to:

Answer 307

Administer​ high-flow oxygen.

Question 308

A snowboarder has missed the correct landing area on a terrain feature and has impacted at high speed the flat runout zone from an estimated height of 25 feet. You cannot feel radial​ pulses, the carotid pulse is weakly palpable at 125 beats per​ minute, he is​ anxious, and the skin is pale and sweaty. His abdomen is exquisitely tender to palpation. What best describes this​ situation?

Answer 308

Hypovolemic shock from internal bleeding

Question 309

A commonly used position in which to transport a postictal patient following a seizure​ is:

Answer 309

Lateral recumbent position.

Question 310

Multiple family members are frantically and simultaneously telling you everything they think might be helpful as you evaluate your patient for unresponsiveness. Of the​ following, which nugget of history carries the most​ import?

Answer 310

He was acting oddly and was confused last night at 11 P.M. and then went to bedHe was acting oddly and was confused last night at 11 P.M. and then went to bed.

Question 311

You have arrived on scene to care for an elderly woman who has fallen on the ice. She is now unresponsive. Her pupils are​ unequal, there is a palpable radial pulse at​ 74, and respirations are 14 with some grunting sounds with inspiration. What is your first​ action?

Answer 311

Perform a​ jaw-thrust maneuver

Question 312

Which of the following lists the anatomical structures of the upper​ airway?

Answer 312

a. Nasopharynx, Oropharynx,​ larynx, epiglottis

Question 313

Which one of the following best describes the path that carbon dioxide must travel to get from the lungs to the outside​ air?

Answer 313

a. Alveoli, bronchioles,​ bronchi, trachea,​ larynx, oropharynx

Question 314

Correctly​ applied, what is the device most likely to deliver the maximum amount of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing​ patient?

Answer 314

Nonrebreather face mask

Question 315

Administration of activated charcoal is useful in the management of ingested​ (swallowed) poisons​ because:

Answer 315

t binds many toxins to the​ charcoal, which is then eliminated in the stool.

Question 316

The most important principle in the management of a suspected poisoning scene​ is:

Answer 316

Personal and team safety.

Question 317

The most commonly abused drug in the world​ is:

Answer 317

alcohol

Question 318

A Tylenol overdose primarily affects​ the:

Answer 318

liver

Question 319

What is the most expedient way to obtain assistance from the nearest poison control​ center?

Answer 319

Dial​ 1-800-222-1222 or​ 9-1-1

Question 320

Signs of opiate overdose can include all of the following​ EXCEPT:

Answer 320

Hypertension.

Question 321

Signs and symptoms of an abdominal aortic aneurysm can include all of the following​ EXCEPT:

Answer 321

Blood pressure that is higher in the right arm than left.

Question 322

You have assisted a patient with a history of stable angina to correctly take the third of three nitroglycerin tablets that he has been taking for chest pain over the last 15 minutes. Five minutes later his chest pain is unchanged. What do you think may be​ happening?

Answer 322

He may be experiencing a myocardial infarction

Question 323

Two OECTs observe a skier collapse in the lift​ line, determine cardiac​ arrest, and begin correctly performing​ two-rescuer CPR. You arrive 3 minutes later with the AED and are informed by radio that there is an ALS unit less than 1 minute away. You​ should:

Answer 323

Apply and use the AED.

Question 324

You are attending a​ 58-year-old overweight gentleman in the lodge cafeteria who is rubbing his left shoulder and complaining of a​ “squeezing” pain in his chest. He is​ sweating, has cool​ skin, and a palpable radial pulse at 82 beats per minute. Your first action should be​ to:

Answer 324

Administer oxygen with an NRB at 15 lpm.

Question 325

What is an​ OECT’s primary goal in the prehospital care of a chest pain​ patient?

Answer 325

To recognize that the pain may be due to a cardiac event and provide proper care

Question 326

You find that you have made an error on a patient report form. How do you best handle​ this?

Answer 326

Draw a single line through the​ error, and then initial and date it

Question 327

A spontaneously breathing patient has just had his airway opened and cleared. While waiting for additional equipment to​ arrive, an easy way to help maintain this airway is​ to:

Answer 327

Place the patient in the lateral recovery position.

Question 328

A​ jaw-thrust maneuver would be best applied in which of the following​ circumstances?

Answer 328

An unresponsive patient with snoring sounds after falling from a ski lift.

Question 329

You want to open your​ patient’s mouth to check for obstruction with the​ cross-finger technique. Which of the following describes the best way to accomplish the​ cross-finger technique?

Answer 329

Place your index finger on the upper teeth and thumb on the lower teeth. Then spread your finger and thumb apart opening the mouth.

Question 330

You have opened and cleared your unresponsive​ patient’s airway and there is no evidence of head or spinal injury. While waiting for other equipment or​ personnel, the easiest way to maintain this state and ensure adequate breathing is to put this patient into the recovery position. Which of the following best describe this​ position?

Answer 330

Place the patient onto his left side

Question 331

Which of the following occurs during the proper application and use of a nasal cannula is​ true?

Answer 331

Patients often prefer a nasal cannula over a​ non-rebreather because it is less restrictive.

Question 332

To clear an airway of fluid and​ debris:

Answer 332

Insert the tip of the suction catheter only as far as you can see