Test Bank Ch 16-23

Question 1

A patient complains of severe and sharp pain in the right lower abdominal quadrant. Based on the location, what organ or structure is most likely involved?

Answer 1

d. The appendix

Question 2

Because the spleen is a solid organ, the primary threat to life when it is ruptured is:

Answer 2

a. blood loss.

Question 3

The pancreas is best described as a(n):

Answer 3

c. solid organ.

Question 4

Which of the following statements is most likely to be said by a patient with parietal pain?

Answer 4

c. “It hurts right here.”

Question 5

A middle aged female patient informs you that she has a bad gallbladder and that it has been increasingly bothering her. Your assessment reveals tenderness and mild discomfort in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. She also states that her right shoulder is aching. Given her history and complaint, you would recognize her shoulder pain as:

Answer 5

a. referred pain.

Question 6

6. Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician understands the goal of assessing a patient with abdominal pain?

Answer 6

c. “It is more important to recognize a possible abdominal emergency than to determine its exact cause.”

Question 7

7. You are called to aid a patient complaining of abdominal pain. When you arrive, you find him lying supine complaining of pain in his lower abdomen. He is pale and has a look of distress on his face. Which of the following actions should you take first?

Answer 7

c. Assess his ABCDs.

Question 8

A 43-year-old woman who is crying states that she has sharp abdominal pain that is localized to her right lower quadrant. When assessing her abdomen, you would:

Answer 8

a. start by palpating the left upper quadrant.

Question 9

While providing an in-service on abdominal pain, your medical director states that there are several different categories of pain and asks if anyone can identify and describe visceral pain. Which of the following responses is correct?

Answer 9

d. “A patient with visceral pain typically describes the pain as ‘aching’ and has a difficult time identifying its exact location.”

Question 10

Which of the following assessment findings would increase your suspicion of gastrointestinal bleeding?

Answer 10

c. Tarry, black stool

Question 11

Assessment of a 21-year-old woman reveals that she has severe abdominal pain localized to her right upper quadrant. She is alert and oriented and has stable vital signs. After placing her supine on a stretcher, she quickly assumes a lateral recumbent position with her knees drawn up to her chest. Which of the following responses from you would be appropriate?

Answer 11

d. “Are you more comfortable in that position? If you are, then you should stay on your side.”

Question 12

You are called to assist a woman complaining of abdominal pain. Assessment reveals her to be nauseated and to have pain that is localized to the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. She states that she was not able to take her blood pressure medication this morning, and that she wants to take it now with a small glass of juice. Until she receives a further medical evaluation, you would encourage her to:

Answer 12

c. not take her medication or drink juice.

Question 13

You suspect that a man experiencing right lower quadrant pain has appendicitis. He states that he has no health insurance and wants to refuse care. He asks you what can happen if he has appendicitis but does not go to the hospital. Which of the following statements would you make in reply?

Answer 13

a. “Your appendix could rupture, causing a major infection, shock, and possible death.”

Question 14

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal pain would lead you to suspect appendicitis?

Answer 14

c. “The pain started around my belly button and slowly spread down to the right side of my belly.”

Question 15

When you are obtaining information for a medical history, which of the following items would be significant for a patient with suspected cholecystitis?

Answer 15

d. The patient ate fried chicken and potato salad for dinner.

Question 16

14-year-old girl sitting in the lodge is complaining of severe abdominal and flank pain. She tells you that her symptoms started a couple of days ago but have worsened over the last few hours. She has chills and thinks she might have a fever. Based on her complaints, you are concerned that she may have:

Answer 16

b. pyelonephritis.

Question 17

Which of the following statements is false?

Answer 17

c. Assessment of abdominal complaints is straightforward because the organs are specifically located and easily palpated.

Question 18

Colic is best described as:

Answer 18

a. intermittent severe abdominal pain caused by the obstruction and distension of a hollow organ.

Question 19

Which of the following statements regarding acute abdomen is false?

Answer 19

a. OEC Technicians need to be able to pinpoint the source of an acute abdomen.

Question 20

Rebound tenderness is best described as:

Answer 20

b. severe pain that occurs after the sudden release of abdominal palpation pressure during an examination of the abdomen.

Question 21

A conscious patient with a GI/GU complaint is most often comfortable in:

Answer 21

a. a supine position with the knees slightly flexed.

Question 22

An infection involving one or both kidneys and ureters is called:

Answer 22

c. pyelonephritis.

Question 23

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a true emergency because it can lead to:

Answer 23

a. sudden death.

Question 24

The most common GI problem that OEC Technicians encounter is:

Answer 24

d. gastroenteritis.

Question 25

A 49-year-old man has been stabbed in the lower right chest. After assessing him, you suspect that the knife punctured the lung and is causing internal bleeding. In this situation, the mechanism of injury would be:

Answer 25

a. a penetrating injury.

Question 26

A patient involved in an altercation was struck in the ribs with a baseball bat. Your assessment reveals intact skin with significant bruising to the right lateral chest. When palpating this area you note instability and crepitus to the rib cage. An OEC Technician would recognize a:

Answer 26

b. chest injury caused by blunt trauma.

Question 27

A heavy-set snowboarder was critically injured when he crashed into a tree on a Friday night. It was reported that he was clearly out of control while traveling at a high rate of speed down the expert trail. Which of the following factors had the greatest impact on the extent of his injuries?

Answer 27

d. The speed the skier was going

Question 28

A 23-year-old skier falls about 20 feet from the chairlift. Aside from his complaints of soreness, you don’t see any obvious injuries. The skier states that as long as his legs aren’t broken, he’s going to continue skiing. Which of the following statements would be your best response to him?

Answer 28

b. “From a fall of that height you may have hurt some internal organs. You really should be examined.”

Question 29

Your friends are discussing a hunting accident they heard about on the news. A hunter was shot with a high-powered rifle, and the report indicated that he had damage to several internal organs. From your knowledge of mechanisms of injury, you can tell your friends that this type of injury is called a:

Answer 29

b. high-velocity penetrating injury.

Question 30

You are called to the vehicle maintenance department on the mountain, where a fairly large explosion has occurred. The first injured person you talk to tells you that he is having excruciating ear pain. You recognize that his ear pain may be caused by:

Answer 30

b. a primary blast injury to the inner ear.

Question 31

The term golden hour refers to the:

Answer 31

The time after injury in which timely interventions are critical to survival.

Question 32

Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician understands the importance of evaluating the mechanism of injury?

Answer 32

d. “The mechanism of injury can give valuable clues about the source of injury and how seriously a patient is injured.”

Question 33

Which of the following statements best describes the capabilities of a Level III trauma center?

Answer 33

d. The hospital has some surgical capabilities to help trauma patients but does not have every subspecialist available.

Question 34

Which of the following characteristics is not one of the five levels upon which trauma center designations are based?

Answer 34

c. Age of the patient

Question 35

Trauma centers are specifically designed to:

Answer 35

b. manage patients with multi-system trauma.

Question 36

Which of the following descriptions describes a patient suffering from multi-system trauma?

Answer 36

b. A 67-year-old male who fell down a flight of stairs, has an open fracture of the left lower leg, and is complaining of severe abdominal pain

Question 37

You arrive alone at a scene at which a 16-year-old skier has collided with a tree. He is unresponsive and has blood flowing from his ears and nose. He was not wearing a helmet. Which of the following lists reflects the most appropriate care of this patient?

Answer 37

a. Primary assessment, airway management, immobilization, transport as soon as possible

Question 38

Which of the following factors does not directly relate to the severity of bodily injury?

Answer 38

c. The size of the injured person

Question 39

Kinetic energy is absorbed based on the density of the structure/organ involved. Which of the following lists places the organs in the order of their “threshold for injury”?

Answer 39

c. Kidneys, lungs, femur

Question 40

Which of the following terms is not a “mechanism of injury”?

Answer 40

c. Stabbing injury

Question 41

Dislocating a shoulder after catching a ski pole on a tree branch is an example of an injury caused by which MOI?

Answer 41

a. Rotational injury

Question 42

Which of the following injuries is an example of a tertiary blast injury?

Answer 42

a. A fracture caused by the body being thrown to the ground

Question 43

The group of signs and symptoms that are often seen during the initial stages of patient blast management, which is known as the “blast pattern triad,” includes:

Answer 43

c. apnea, hypotension, and bradycardia.

Question 44

A trauma assessment should be completed within 1–2 minutes and includes all of the following tasks except:

Answer 44

d. performing a detailed physical exam.

Question 45

High-velocity injuries and low-velocity injuries are two types of which mechanism of injury?

Answer 45

b. Penetrating injury

Question 46

High-velocity injuries are usually the result of:

Answer 46

b. the impact of a bullet from a high-powered rifle.

Question 47

Tissue damage caused by low-velocity injuries is usually:

Answer 47

c. limited to the path of the object.

Question 48

A patient has a laceration on his arm from a table saw. Assessment reveals dark red blood flowing steadily from the wound. You would recognize this type of bleeding as:

Answer 48

c. venous bleeding.

Question 49

You are responding to a call to aid a patient who has cut himself with a knife. Reportedly arterial bleeding is involved. Given this information, which of the following findings do you expect?

Answer 49

d. Bright-red blood that is spurting with each beat of the heart

Question 50

You arrive at a scene at which a 16-year-old girl has cut her wrist with a knife. She appears to be pale, and blood is spurting from the cut. Which of the following actions should you take first?

Answer 50

b. Apply direct pressure to the cut.

Question 51

Severe external bleeding should be controlled during what phase of a patient assessment?

Answer 51

a. The primary assessment

Question 52

You are treating a patient who has cut herself while working in the lodge kitchen. She has a jagged laceration on her left forearm that is bleeding steadily and heavily. While attempting to control the bleeding, you should first:

Answer 52

c. place a sterile dressing over the site and hold steady pressure on the dressing with your hand.

Question 53

Which of the following actions should you take next when direct pressure, elevation, and femoral artery pressure have failed to control arterial bleeding on a patient’s leg?

Answer 53

b. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury.

Question 54

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands the application of a tourniquet?

Answer 54

a. “A tourniquet should be applied tightly enough so that arterial blood flow distal to the tourniquet is completely stopped.”

Question 55

You have just arrived on scene, where a young girl has pushed her arm through a plate glass window. She is responsive and has a patent airway. Bright red blood is spurting from a large laceration on her right upper arm. When your partner tells you to apply direct pressure to the laceration to prevent the further blood loss, you would:

Answer 55

b. put gloves on before applying direct pressure over the injury site.

Question 56

You are having a difficult time controlling bleeding from a small skin avulsion on a patient’s ankle. Which of the following statements made by the patient best explains why the bleeding has been so difficult to control?

Answer 56

a. “I take Coumadin for my irregular heartbeat.”

Question 57

The skin performs which of the following functions?

Answer 57

a. Regulation of temperature

Question 58

A patient has suffered abrasions to the legs after falling on a moving treadmill. In treating this injury you would be most concerned about:

Answer 58

b. the risk of infection.

Question 59

Which of the following lists correctly names the layers of the skin?

Answer 59

d. Subcutaneous, epidermis, dermis

Question 60

When managing a patient with soft-tissue injuries, it is essential that you:

Answer 60

c. use the appropriate personal protective equipment.

Question 61

Assessment of a patient who fell reveals bruising to her right buttock. Her skin is intact and she complains of tenderness in the area when you palpate it. You would recognize which of the following types of injury?

Answer 61

d. A contusion

Question 62

When assessing a patient you note a bruise on the chest. Another word for documenting a bruise is:

Answer 62

a. ecchymosis.

Question 63

Which of the following assessment findings best indicates that a patient’s injury should be classified as an abrasion?

Answer 63

d. Red scrapes involving the outermost layer of skin only

Question 64

You respond to a patient who has an avulsion on the left arm. When you assess this patient, you would expect to find:

Answer 64

a. a loose flap of torn skin on the left arm.

Question 65

A 49-year-old man was climbing on rocks when he fell backward to the ground. He presents with a two-inch linear wound on the top of his head. Bleeding has been controlled. You would document this type of injury as a(n):

Answer 65

d. laceration.

Question 66

You are assessing a patient who received multiple injuries in a fight. Which of the following injuries would present the greatest danger for infection?

Answer 66

c. An abrasion on the right side of the face

Question 67

Which of the following instructions is appropriate for helping a new patroller care for a patient with a large abrasion on his arm?

Answer 67

c. “Don’t worry about cleaning the wound. The patient is going to the hospital, which is only 30 minutes away.”

Question 68

A young boy was out riding his bike in the neighborhood when he fell onto a stick protruding from the ground. The stick impaled him in the neck. The boy immediately pulled the stick out. Assessment reveals a gaping wound to the boy’s right neck. Which of the following types of dressing would you use on this injury?

Answer 68

b. An occlusive dressing that is taped on all sides

Question 69

A patient has had part of his right thumb amputated in an accident. Friends have retrieved the thumb and wrapped it in a towel. When you arrive, you would demonstrate appropriate handling of the amputated part by:

Answer 69

d. wrapping the thumb in a moist sterile dressing and keeping it cool.

Question 70

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands bandaging?

Answer 70

b. “Bandaging material is used to secure a dressing in place.”

Question 71

You have applied a pressure dressing to the calf of a woman who suffered a deep laceration from a piece of broken glass. Which of the following actions should you take next?

Answer 71

d. Check CMS in the patient’s foot.

Question 72

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands dressing and bandaging a wound?

Answer 72

c. “Leave the tips of the fingers or toes exposed when bandaging an arm or a leg so you can continue to assess CMS.”

Question 73

Which of the following statements about pressure dressings and bandages is true?

Answer 73

b. Bandages should be applied in a distal-to-proximal manner.

Question 74

Which of the following injuries is most likely to result in capillary bleeding only?

Answer 74

b. An abrasion

Question 75

What is the function of subcutaneous fat?

Answer 75

d. It insulates the body and stores energy.

Question 76

Which of the following phrases best describes a closed-tissue injury?

Answer 76

d. A wound in which underlying tissues are damaged but the overlying skin remains intact

Question 77

Which of the following statements about impaled objects is true?

Answer 77

b. The impaled object should be left in place during transport.

Question 78

Which of the following statements about a high-pressure injection injury is false?

Answer 78

a. The presenting wound is typically large.

Question 79

Mechanical tattooing is defined as:

Answer 79

c. the introduction of foreign debris such as dirt, gunpowder, or small rocks into the skin

Question 80

A patient has been stabbed in the chest with a 6-inch-long ice pick. When you assess the wound you find it to be very small and insignificant in appearance, with minimal bleeding. Which of the following assumptions can you correctly make about this injury?

Answer 80

b. Damage to the underlying structures is likely.

Question 81

For which of the following injuries may elevation be used to control bleeding?

Answer 81

b. For no injuries; elevation is no longer used to control bleeding.

Question 82

Which of the following statements about the use of a tourniquet is true?

Answer 82

a. It should be placed as distal as possible but at least several inches proximal to the wound.

Question 83

Using a very narrow material such as wire or rope for a tourniquet can cause:

Answer 83

a. serious tissue damage.

Question 84

The most effective method for treating a contusion is to apply a(n):

Answer 84

d. ice pack.

Question 85

Which of the following statements about amputations is true?

Answer 85

d. All amputated body parts should be preserved and sent to the hospital with the patient.

Question 86

Which of the following statements about an impaled object is true?

Answer 86

a. The primary treatment goal in the field is to stabilize the object in the position found.

Question 87

During your secondary assessment, a patient with a stab wound to the abdomen tells you that he is taking Coumadin, a blood thinner. Which of the following implications would taking this medication have for this patient?

Answer 87

c. The medication could cause the patient to bleed more profusely.

Question 88

Which of the following statements concerning a patient who received electrical burns to his hand after grabbing a live wire is true?

Answer 88

c. The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface.

Question 89

Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who spilled a cup of hot coffee on herself two hours ago. An area on her right thigh that is about twice the size of the palm of her hand is red and painful but has no blisters. Which of the following actions would be appropriate for an OEC Technician to take?

Answer 89

b. Apply a sterile dressing.

Question 90

Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants while he was standing near the pilot light of his hot-water heater. He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees, circumferentially around both legs. According to the Rules of Nines, the man burned ____ of his body surface.

Answer 90

d. 18 percent

Question 91

Which of the following patients should be cared for in a burn center?

Answer 91

b. A 30-year-old woman who has deep partial-thickness burns on her hand and arm as a result of spilling hot cooking oil on herself

Question 92

Which of the following sentences best describes a partial-thickness burn?

Answer 92

a. The skin is red and moist, and blisters have formed.

Question 93

Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who was exposed to a dry chemical powder and is complaining of severe pain at the site of contact on both of his hands. There is no decontamination shower on site. Which of the following actions would be the best way to manage this situation?

Answer 93

a. Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or garden hose.

Question 94

Your patient is a 25-year-old man who has a reddened area with blisters across the palm of his hand after grabbing the handle of a very hot iron skillet. Which of the following actions must be avoided in the prehospital management of this wound?

Answer 94

c. Applying an antibiotic ointment

Question 95

A burn extending into the subcutaneous layer would be classified as a:

Answer 95

d. full-thickness burn.

Question 96

The largest organ of the human body is the:

Answer 96

d. skin.

Question 97

The top two layers of the skin are the:

Answer 97

a. epidermis and the dermis.

Question 98

Thermal burns:

Answer 98

b. are the most common type of burns.

Question 99

Chemical burns result from exposure to:

Answer 99

d. caustic substances.

Question 100

The most serious chemical burns could result from exposure to a solution with a pH of:

Answer 100

d. 13.

Question 101

Electrical injuries produce severe external and internal injuries because:

Answer 101

a. the skin is a poor conductor with a high resistance, and blood vessels are good conductors with low resistance.

Question 102

Thermal burns result from:

Answer 102

b. direct contact between a heat source and the skin.

Question 103

Which of the following substances cause the most serious chemical burns?

Answer 103

a. An acid with a pH of 1

Question 104

When treating electrical burns, OEC Technicians should always:

Answer 104

c. look for internal injuries.

Question 105

Three types of natural radiation are:

Answer 105

a. alpha, beta, and gamma.

Question 106

Hoarseness or voice changes in a burn patient should alert an OEC Technician that the:

Answer 106

b. heat source may have extended internally into the airway.

Question 107

Alternating current—current that pulses 60 times per second—is more dangerous than direct current because the pulses:

Answer 107

d. can cause the victim to remain in physical contact with the source of the current for a longer time.

Question 108

According to the Rule of Nines, the percentages of total body surface area that are taken up by the heads (front and back) of adults and children are:

Answer 108

a. 9 percent and 18 percent, respectively.

Question 109

Another simple method for estimating the total percentage of area burned is the ______ approach.

Answer 109

c. palm

Question 110

When treating a patient exposed to strong acids or bases, which of the following devices offers the least protection to an OEC Technician?

Answer 110

d. Exam gloves

Question 111

In treating a burn patient, you should cool and irrigate the burned tissue with:

Answer 111

a. room-temperature tap water for 15 minutes.

Question 112

When treating a patient burned by a dry chemical, it is important to brush away any dry residue before flushing with water because:

Answer 112

b. some dry chemicals are activated by water.

Question 113

The type of muscle found in the forearm is:

Answer 113

a. voluntary muscle.

Question 114

The closed fracture of which of the following bone(s) has the greatest potential for internal blood loss?

Answer 114

d. The pelvis

Question 115

Which of the following statements about voluntary muscles is true?

Answer 115

d. They generally connect to the skeletal system.

Question 116

During your SAMPLE inquiry, a patient reports that he had surgery to repair a torn ligament. Based on your training, you know that a ligament is:

Answer 116

b. a tissue that stabilizes two contiguous bone ends.

Question 117

Which of the following statements about musculoskeletal injuries is true?

Answer 117

a. A sprain is an injury to a joint that involves the stretching or tearing of ligaments.

Question 118

The _____________ can be injured when a hip is dislocated, resulting in numbness or paralysis of a lower extremity.

Answer 118

b. sciatic nerve

Question 119

You are assessing a 47-year-old woman who fell about 20 feet from a chair lift. When you palpate her pelvis you note instability, and she complains of pain. Which of the following is your primary concern for a patient who has a potential pelvic fracture?

Answer 119

b. Internal blood loss

Question 120

Which of the following signs has the potential for the most immediate life-threatening consequences?

Answer 120

a. Deformity of the femur

Question 121

You are treating a patient who is complaining of moderate pain in the right knee. The knee is swollen, ecchymotic, and flexed about 45 degrees. CMS is intact. How would you treat this patient?

Answer 121

c. Splint the knee in the position found before moving the patient.

Question 122

Your patient was struck in the right upper arm with a baseball bat. Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates the highest probability that the humerus has been fractured?

Answer 122

a. Crepitus felt on palpation

Question 123

Your secondary assessment of a patient who is complaining of pain in his right leg reveals an opening in the skin where the fractured tibia broke through the skin and retreated back into the leg. You would recognize this injury as a(n):

Answer 123

a. open fracture.

Question 124

You respond to a 9-year-old boy who was injured in the terrain park. He is complaining of pain in his right wrist. Upon examination you note deformity and swelling of the right wrist, pinkness of the right hand, and a strong radial pulse. Which of the following actions would be part of the proper care for this boy?

Answer 124

c. Apply a cold pack to the wrist to reduce swelling.

Question 125

A 42-year-old man has fallen 25 feet while rock climbing. He hit the ground feet first and suffered open fractures to both tibias, which are protruding through the skin. When you arrive, he is responding to painful stimuli. His airway is open, his breathing is adequate, and his radial pulse is strong and rapid. At this point in his care, it is a priority for you to:

Answer 125

b. look for other injuries.

Question 126

When placing a person in anatomic position using the principles of Pretzels and Jams, are the head, shoulders, and buttocks put into a straight line?

Answer 126

a. Yes

Question 127

A patient fell and sustained an open fracture of the left humerus. Assessment reveals that the bone has pulled back into the arm. Bleeding from the site is controlled. For which of the following reasons would splinting the left arm benefit this patient?

Answer 127

a. A splint decreases the likelihood of further injury to nerves and blood vessels.

Question 128

Which of the following emergency care measures for a patient with a possible bone fracture can be an effective way of reducing pain?

Answer 128

c. Splinting the fracture

Question 129

A patient has suffered an injury to his right leg, and deformity of the tibia-fibula region is obvious. After conducting a primary assessment and manually stabilizing the leg, which of the following actions should you take next?

Answer 129

c. Check for a pedal pulse.

Question 130

A patient with a closed fracture to the mid-forearm has been properly splinted when which of the following structures have been immobilized?

Answer 130

b. The wrist, forearm, and elbow

Question 131

You are called to treat a 27-year-old man who fell while snowboarding and struck his leg against a tree. The primary assessment shows no threats to his airway, breathing, or circulation. A secondary assessment reveals a severely deformed knee that is swollen and ecchymotic. The leg is pale and cool, and the patient cannot move the leg when asked to do so. In addition, you cannot palpate a pedal pulse. Which of the following actions should you take at this time?

Answer 131

d. Attempt to straighten the leg once to see if a pulse returns.

Question 132

A 60-year-old woman suffered an open tibial fracture when she stepped sideways on her foot while jogging. Which of the following interventions constitutes appropriate care for this injury?

Answer 132

d. Apply a sterile dressing to the bone end and to the soft-tissue wound.

Question 133

The benefit of applying a traction splint to a deformed femur fracture is that it:

Answer 133

b. decreases pain.

Question 134

You are watching an OEC candidate apply a splint to an injured patient. You note that the splint appears to be loose, and you assist the candidate in properly applying it. After you have delivered your patient to the aid room, you explain to the candidate that a splint applied too loosely could result in:

Answer 134

a. damage to muscles, nerves, and blood vessels.

Question 135

You and a fellow patroller respond to a snowboard injury in a 12-year-old boy who fell on his outstretched arm. His left wrist is swollen and ecchymotic. A radial pulse is readily palpated, and the skin on the hand is warm to the touch. Which of the following instructions to your partner indicates that you have a proper understanding of the care for this patient’s arm?

Answer 135

a. “After we splint his wrist, we will need to apply a sling and swathe to prevent further movement.”

Question 136

You are working in the first-aid room when a patient arrives with an open injury of the left lower leg. Which of the following observations would indicate that the extremity was improperly splinted?

Answer 136

c. The patient is able to flex her left ankle when directed to do so.

Question 137

A patient exhibits swelling and deformity to the wrist. Which of the following positions for the hand is most appropriate when splinting this injury?

Answer 137

a. Fingers curled slightly down around a roller bandage

Question 138

Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician has a good understanding of the proper care of a possible joint dislocation?

Answer 138

b. “The care for a patient with a joint injury is similar to that for a fracture.”

Question 139

Which of the following assessment findings contraindicates the use of a traction splint to treat a femur injury?

Answer 139

a. A gross deformity of the hip that indicates dislocation

Question 140

Which of the following statements about traction splints is correct?

Answer 140

c. Manual traction should be applied until the mechanical traction is at least equal to the manual traction.

Question 141

Which of the following functions is not one of the several functions of bones?

Answer 141

c. Responding to sensory nerve stimulation to protect skin and other tissues

Question 142

Displacement of the bones of a joint is known as:

Answer 142

a. a dislocation.

Question 143

You are discussing a sling and swathe while teaching an OEC class about splints. Which of the following statements regarding a sling and swathe is correct?

Answer 143

b. It provides a stable platform for the arm and can be used to immobilize either the arm alone or the arm with a separate splint in place.

Question 144

A patient for whom you recently provided care stops by to thank you. He reports that he was diagnosed with a strain to his lower right leg. Which of the following structures is the primary structure affected in that injury?

Answer 144

c. A muscle

Question 145

A fracture that has three or more fragments is called a(n):

Answer 145

b. comminuted fracture.

Question 146

The National Ski Patrol’s current recommendation regarding ski boot removal when applying a traction splint is:

Answer 146

d. to leave the boot on if the patient is to be placed in a traction splint in the outdoor environment, unless the local medical director approves doing otherwise.

Question 147

The inside layer of a joint capsule where cells make a viscous fluid for lubricating the joint is the:

Answer 147

a. synovium.

Question 148

Joints provide different degrees of movement. There are five different types of joints. An example of a “pivot” joints is the:

Answer 148

a. radio-ulnar joint of the elbow.

Question 149

You respond to an accident and find a young man lying prone but in a neutral, anatomic position, except that his head is turned to the side. Using the principles of Jams and Pretzels, you would say that this patient is in position:

Answer 149

c. 3.

Question 150

The most frequent injury in skiing is a:

Answer 150

b. knee sprain.

Question 151

The most commonly broken bone in the body is:

Answer 151

b. the clavicle.

Question 152

Your friend tells you that he wants to try snowboarding. He is concerned about his safety and asks you which type of fracture is most common in snowboarders. You learned in your OEC training that this injury involves the:

Answer 152

d. radius.

Question 153

Which of the following statements would you make to the parent of a 10-year-old snowboarder who took a hard fall and complains of some discomfort in a wrist that is slightly swollen but has no deformity?

Answer 153

b. “It could be a nondisplaced fracture.”

Question 154

A fracture of a bone will cause bleeding, and a hematoma forms around the fracture site. Over the next several weeks, this hematoma organizes into a substance called:

Answer 154

a. a callus.

Question 155

Which of the following musculoskeletal tissues does not heal?

Answer 155

d. A cartilage

Question 156

An airplane splint is useful for immobilizing certain types of musculoskeletal injuries. Which of the following statements concerning an airplane splint is not correct?

Answer 156

c. It is used only for injuries that must be maintained at a 90-degree angle.

Question 157

In order to make a SAM splint™ a “rigid” splint, you need to:

Answer 157

b. make a “T” shape lengthwise in its middle.

Question 158

You are demonstrating boot removal to a class of OEC candidates. While explaining Rescuer #1’s role, you indicate that his first task is to:

Answer 158

c. stabilize the patient’s leg and ankle.

Question 159

The structure responsible for transmitting the force of a contracting skeletal muscle to a bone is a:

Answer 159

a. tendon.

Question 160

While you are putting wood into your wood stove, your hand comes in contact with the hot surface. Your body responds by pulling your hand away from the heat. How is this action accomplished?

Answer 160

a. One or more skeletal muscles receive a signal from the brain to contract.

Question 161

The ideal position for patients before you transfer them to a long spine board for immobilization is:

Answer 161

d. supine, in a neutral anatomic position, with the back straight, the eyes facing forward, and the extremities straight with the palms against the thighs.

Question 162

You are working with a candidate OEC Technician who is practicing the application of splints. When checking the sling and swathe that the candidate applied to an upper extremity, you note that it is not applied correctly. You point this out to the candidate and tell him that the purpose of a sling and swathe is to:

Answer 162

b. prevent further movement of an injured extremity.

Question 163

An air splint is a dual-walled, tube-shaped device used to temporarily immobilize a long bone. Which of the following statements about air splints is false?

Answer 163

d. They are made of a tough fibrous material that is difficult to puncture.

Question 164

You are caring for a patient who has an angulated lower leg fracture. To splint this injury you should:

Answer 164

a. use gentle longitudinal tension to align the fracture.

Question 165

You are caring for a 26-year-old woman with a probable wrist fracture. Before applying a splint you ask her to remove her large engagement ring. She hesitates and asks why she should do this. Which of the following responses would be an OEC Technician’s best response?

Answer 165

c. “You should remove the ring now because your fingers may become very swollen.”

Question 166

One method for immobilizing a clavicle fracture is a figure eight splint. Which of the following statements about a figure eight splint is false?

Answer 166

d. This splint is useful for acromioclavicular (A/C) injuries.

Question 167

To properly apply a figure eight splint, an OEC Technician should:

Answer 167

a. tighten the cravats so that the position of the shoulders is the same as if the patient were sitting normally.

Question 168

You and a fellow patroller are applying a blanket roll to a 48-year-old patient with an anteriorly dislocated shoulder. While your partner holds the blanket roll in position under the affected shoulder, which of the following actions should you not take in securing the roll?

Answer 168

b. Tie one of the cravats over the affected shoulder.

Question 169

You are evaluating a new OEC instructor who is teaching a class on displaced humerus fractures. Which of the following statements by the instructor would require your correction?

Answer 169

c. “The fracture should be reduced to achieve better pain control and packaging.”

Question 170

When it becomes apparent that the arm distal to an elbow injury has a CMS deficit, OEC Technicians should:

Answer 170

d. make one attempt to realign and restore CMS before splinting.

Question 171

Which of the following splints should not be used to treat proximal forearm fractures?

Answer 171

d. A splint that does not immobilize the elbow

Question 172

Which of the following statements about the axial skeleton is true?

Answer 172

c. It has 80 bones consisting of the skull, vertebrae, and thoracic cage.

Question 173

61. Which of the following statements about the appendicular skeleton is true?

Answer 173

d. It has 126 bones consisting of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and legs.

Question 174

Which of the following terms does not describe a type of bone?

Answer 174

b. Short

Question 175

Which of the following splints should not be used for a wrist fracture?

Answer 175

a. A Thomas Splint

Question 176

The outermost part of a bone is a tough lining known as:

Answer 176

d. the periosteum.

Question 177

Which of the following terms does not describe a type of joint?

Answer 177

d. Post

Question 178

Which of the following pairs of proteins causes muscle tissue to shorten or contract?

Answer 178

b. Actin and myosin

Question 179

A sling and swathe can be used for a:

Answer 179

c. humerus fracture if combined with a separate splint.

Question 180

A vacuum splint works because:

Answer 180

a. the splint becomes rigid when air is sucked out of it.

Question 181

An airplane splint works well because:

Answer 181

d. it is a rigid, fixed stabilizing unit.

Question 182

Treatment of an anterior S/C dislocation is best managed using a:

Answer 182

d. sling and swathe.

Question 183

Should a fractured humerus be splinted using a soft splint and a sling and swathe?

Answer 183

b. No

Question 184

Because of the abundant blood vessels and nerves in the elbow, an injury to a child’s elbow should be splinted in:

Answer 184

a. the position found.

Question 185

The finding that upon muscle contraction the active motion of a joint is reduced or completely lost suggests:

Answer 185

d. a ruptured tendon.

Question 186

An injured forearm should be cradled in a sling:

Answer 186

b. with its weight evenly distributed.

Question 187

Care of an anterior dislocated shoulder:

Answer 187

c. requires patience and sometimes creativity.

Question 188

Can a Colles’ fracture or “silver fork” wrist fracture result from falling on a clenched fist?

Answer 188

b. No

Question 189

A common injury among snowboarders who fall forward on an outstretched hand is a fractured:

Answer 189

a. scaphoid.

Question 190

A snowboarder’s fall over the toe side of the board onto an outstretched hand is known as the

Answer 190

d. “mousetrap.”

Question 191

You are dispatched to aid a snowboarder who has sustained a shoulder injury. The injured man is sitting on the side of the trail and reports that because of past dislocations of the shoulder he has a subluxation, and that the shoulder is okay. Which of the following statements best describes his condition?

Answer 191

d. The shoulder joint partially dislocates and then returns to a normal anatomic position.

Question 192

A former patient returns to the Ski Patrol treatment room to thank you for the treatment he received. He informs you that he has a popiteal fossa injury. With your OEC knowledge, you realize that his injury is related to which of the following structures?

Answer 192

b. The back of the knee

Question 193

For a person to make a fist, which of the following must occur?

Answer 193

a. The central nervous system must send a message through the spinal cord and then through the peripheral nerves.

Question 194

Based on the structure of the nervous system, which of the following statements is true?

Answer 194

c. A deep laceration to an arm can sever peripheral nerves.

Question 195

Which of the following signs or symptoms might be evident for an injury to the autonomic nervous system?

Answer 195

b. Elevated heart rate

Question 196

You are notified that a patient is coming to the first-aid room with bruising to the lumbar area of the back. Based on this statement, you would expect to find bruising in which area?

Answer 196

c. The lower back

Question 197

You respond to an accident at which a male patient is complaining of severe back pain. He informs you that his back pain is coming from a recent fracture of his coccyx. Based on this information, what area of the back would the pain be emanating from?

Answer 197

c. The tailbone

Question 198

A patient involved in a motor-vehicle collision has suffered the separation of a rib from a spinal vertebra. Based on the anatomy of the spine, where has this injury occurred?

Answer 198

d. The thoracic spine

Question 199

Based on the anatomy of the spine, which one of the following injuries is possible?

Answer 199

c. A disk injury between thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12

Question 200

A young intoxicated male patient cannot move his lower extremities after diving into the shallow end of a pool and hitting the bottom with his head. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to be responsible for this injury?

Answer 200

a. Compression

Question 201

A young female was involved in a motor-vehicle collision in which her car struck the rear end of another vehicle. As a result of the impact, her neck muscles were overstretched and torn. She is complaining of neck pain. Based on this mechanism, the most likely type of injury she has is:

Answer 201

b. whiplash.

Question 202

While performing a primary assessment on a patient who has an isolated spinal cord injury, you note that he is in severe respiratory distress and struggling to breathe. Where should you suspect that the spinal cord injury has occurred?

Answer 202

b. The cervical spine

Question 203

Which of the following signs or symptoms best indicates that a patient has suffered an injury to the thoracic spine?

Answer 203

c. Tingling in the legs

Question 204

An elderly patient has fallen down a flight of stairs and is complaining of neck and back pain and weakness to both legs. Your primary assessment reveals no life threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation. Manual in-line spinal stabilization is being maintained. Which of the following actions should you take next?

Answer 204

b. complete a secondary assessment looking for injuries.

Question 205

Which of the following questions or statements indicates that an OEC Technician is correctly assessing motor function in the arms of a patient with potential spine injuries?

Answer 205

b. “Can you hold up two fingers on each hand?”

Question 206

Which of the following statements about the care and treatment of a patient with a spinal injury in a prehospital setting is true?

Answer 206

a. Prehospital care for a patient with a spinal injury involves correcting life-threatening injuries and limiting secondary injury.

Question 207

Which of the following signs is a characteristic sign that may be seen during a secondary assessment of patients with spinal cord injury?

Answer 207

b. Flushed skin color below the level of the injury and impairment or absence of sensation and movement

Question 208

A patient involved in an accident has his head positioned so that his left cheek is touching his left shoulder. He states that he has severe pain in his neck and he cannot move his head. He also states he has no feeling in his arms or legs. You have no equipment. Which of the following is the best course of action?

Answer 208

b. Stabilize and maintain the head in the position in which the patient is holding it.

Question 209

A patient is complaining of back pain and numbness in both legs after being thrown from a bicycle. When should you check the motor function, sensory function, and pulses in this patient?

Answer 209

c. During the primary assessment

Question 210

Assessment of the cervical spine of a patient complaining of lower back pain after falling 20 feet reveals no displacement, tenderness, or instability. Accordingly, you should:

Answer 210

b. apply a properly sized cervical collar.

Question 211

A patient with head, neck, and back pain has just been fully immobilized to a long backboard. Which of the following instructions should you provide to your team next?

Answer 211

c. “Check for CMS before we move him to the stretcher.”

Question 212

Which of the following instructions from one OEC Technician to another describes the appropriate application of a cervical spine immobilization collar?

Answer 212

c. “Keep his head in neutral position while I apply a cervical collar.”

Question 213

For which of the following patients involved in a motor vehicle collision is the use of a vest-type short immobilization device indicated?

Answer 213

d. A 33-year-old female in the backseat who complains of neck pain and a headache

Question 214

A patient with a head and neck injury was sitting found leaning against a tree. You have placed a vest type short immobilization device on the patient. To transport the patient you would:

Answer 214

b. immobilize the patient with the vest-type short immobilization device to a long backboard.

Question 215

You are securing a patient to a long backboard. Which of the following lists indicates the appropriate order for securing the straps?

Answer 215

a. Torso, pelvis, legs, head

Question 216

A patient has just been log rolled and positioned onto the long backboard. Which of the following actions should be performed next?

Answer 216

c. Secure the patient’s chest with straps.

Question 217

You are maintaining manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine for a patient being log rolled, transferred, and secured to a long backboard. At what point should you release the manual in-line stabilization?

Answer 217

d. After the patient’s head has been secured with a head immobilization device

Question 218

You have been called to aid a 32-year-old male patient who fell down a flight of stairs. The patient is walking toward you and states that he would like to be looked at because his shoulder and lower back hurt. You immediately apply in-line manual cervical stabilization and your partner examines his back, which reveals no sign of injury. How should you immobilize this patient?

Answer 218

a. Place a long board behind the patient and immobilize him in a standing position.

Question 219

Which of the following statements indicates that OEC Technicians are correctly using a vest type short spine immobilization device?

Answer 219

d. The head is secured to the device after the chest has been secured.

Question 220

You and your partner are preparing to backboard a patient using a vest type short spine immobilization device. After ensuring that inline manual spinal stabilization is being maintained, your next instruction should be:

Answer 220

c. “Let’s check motor, sensory, and pulses in the arms and legs.”

Question 221

Which of the following statements about removing a helmet in a prehospital setting is correct?

Answer 221

b. It is acceptable to leave a helmet on a patient if the patient has no airway or breathing problems.

Question 222

A 2-year-old boy fell down a flight of stairs. Which of the following instructions would you provide to other patrollers who are immobilizing the patient?

Answer 222

c. “Let’s place a folded towel under his shoulders to help maintain his head alignment.”

Question 223

You are assessing 30-year-old man who has fallen about 20 feet. He is alert and oriented but states that he cannot move or feel his legs. Additionally, because his blood pressure is 82/48 mmHg, you suspect spinal shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings reinforces your suspicion of spinal shock?

Answer 223

d. Heart rate of 44

Question 224

A 22-year-old female rock climber has fallen 25 feet to the trail below. The primary assessment shows her to be confused and to have an open airway and shallow breathing. Her pulse is 72 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 78/50 mmHg. She has no motor ability or sensation in her legs. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this patient’s presentation?

Answer 224

b. Spinal cord injury

Question 225

You should recognize a possible spinal column injury with no spinal cord involvement when you discover which of the following assessment findings?

Answer 225

a. Tenderness to the thoracic spine with intact motor and sensory function in each extremity

Question 226

A mechanical injury to the brain that results in a short-term and/or a long-term neurologic deficit is:

Answer 226

d. a traumatic brain injury.

Question 227

A primary injury to the central nervous system would be caused by:

Answer 227

d. a laceration of the spinal cord.

Question 228

You suspect that an unhelmeted climber who struck his head during a fall may have a basilar skull fracture. As you conduct your assessment, which of the following findings reinforces this suspicion?

Answer 228

c. Clear fluid coming from the right ear and left nostril

Question 229

A patient was killed immediately following a self-inflicted gunshot wound to the head. Which portion of the central nervous system was most likely damaged in order to cause the rapid death of the patient?

Answer 229

b. The brain stem

Question 230

You are assessing a patient who tells you she had a previous head injury in which a portion of the cerebellum was destroyed. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you expect to find in relation to this injury?

Answer 230

b. Poor coordination when walking

Question 231

A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has a deformity to the left side of the head. The skin overlying the deformity is still intact. Based on these assessment findings, which of the following conditions would be your greatest concern?

Answer 231

a. A possible brain injury

Question 232

A 41-year-old male snowboarder struck his head on a metal rail. As you approach him, you note that he appears confused and has blood on the left side of his face and head, and on his shirt. His breathing appears to be labored. Which of the following actions should you perform immediately?

Answer 232

c. Apply manual in-line spinal immobilization.

Question 233

You are called to aid a 61-year-old man who has fallen off a second-floor lodge patio. He is unresponsive and has slow, shallow breathing. When you arrive, a fellow patroller has already opened the airway and has stabilized the head. Which of the following actions should you take immediately?

Answer 233

c. Assist ventilation with a BVM.

Question 234

A 68-year-old female patient is complaining of a headache and generalized weakness. Her husband informs you that she was with a friend yesterday and struck her face on the dashboard during a motor vehicle collision. Her past medical history includes a stroke that caused right arm weakness and high blood pressure. When assessing this patient, which of the following findings should concern you the most?

Answer 234

c. Bruising behind her left ear

Question 235

Which of the following assessment findings is most indicative of increasing pressure within the skull from a closed head injury?

Answer 235

a. Blood pressure of 192/106 mmHg

Question 236

Your patient is a young female who was thrown from her mountain bike and is now confused. Assessment findings include an open airway, adequate breathing, and a strong radial pulse. Which of the following questions would be the most important to ask her friends who were with her?

Answer 236

d. “Did she lose consciousness?”

Question 237

A male soccer player was struck in the head with a soccer ball. Players state that he was dazed for several seconds following the impact and then asked the same questions over and over. He is currently conscious and oriented to person but is confused as to place and time. He also has a reddened area on the side of his head and face. As you proceed with your assessment, his memory continues to improve. Based on these findings, you would suspect which of the following injuries?

Answer 237

a. A concussion/TBI

Question 238

You are participating in training OEC candidates and are asked about cerebral contusions. You would explain to the class that a cerebral contusion is:

Answer 238

c. bruising and swelling of the brain tissue.

Question 239

You are called to the lodge by a family who is concerned that their mother is not acting right. The family tells you that they are concerned because their mother has been complaining of a headache and is very confused today. Assessment reveals a bruise on the right side of the head that the family states she got about a week ago when she fell. Which of the following conditions would you be concerned about based on the history and assessment findings?

Answer 239

a. A subdural hematoma

Question 240

Which of the following findings is most consistent with a skull fracture?

Answer 240

a. Bruising behind the ear that develops several hours after the injury

Question 241

Which of the following findings indicates that a patient who received a blow to the head is suffering from something other than a concussion/TBI?

Answer 241

d. His pupils are noticeably unequal.

Question 242

When explaining the priorities of helmet removal to a candidate patroller, you would stress:

Answer 242

b. sliding the fingers under the occiput so that the head doesn’t drop backward.

Question 243

Which of the following structures works like a camera shutter to adjust the amount of light entering the eye?

Answer 243

b. The iris

Question 244

The part of the eye that focuses light on the retina is called the:

Answer 244

b. sclera.

Question 245

light stimulates nerve endings in which of the following structures to send signals to the brain via the optic nerves?

Answer 245

a. Retina

Question 246

The largest bone of the face, which forms the upper jaw, the hard palate, the floor of the nose, and the lower portion of each eye socket, is the:

Answer 246

d. maxilla.

Question 247

The lower jaw, the only “movable” bone of the face, is hinged on both sides of the skull by the:

Answer 247

b. temporomandibular joints.

Question 248

The three bones that convert sound waves into signals that are then carried to the brain are known as the:

Answer 248

c. auditory ossicles.

Question 249

Which of the following statements concerning the eye socket or orbit is false?

Answer 249

a. It does not take much force to injure the orbital bones.

Question 250

The sternocleidomastoid muscle is responsible for:

Answer 250

d. side-to-side movements of the head.

Question 251

You are assessing a patient who was punched in the eye. You note blood in the white part of his eye. This area of the eye is known as the:

Answer 251

a. sclera.

Question 252

Your friend tells you that she was diagnosed with a corneal abrasion a day ago. She is concerned because she still has some discomfort in the eye. Based on your training, you know that:

Answer 252

d. ongoing pain is not uncommon.

Question 253

A patient who was hit in the face with a cloud of dust while working in an industrial setting is complaining of pain and discomfort to his left eye. While performing your assessment on the eye, you note some redness of the globe but do not see any obvious foreign object. The most appropriate care you can provide to this patient would be to:

Answer 253

a. cover both eyes with a bandage.

Question 254

A young girl is complaining of eye pain after having bleach thrown in her face. When assessing her eyes, you note redness and significant tearing in the right eye. You would treat this girl by:

Answer 254

c. flushing the eye with sterile water.

Question 255

During an altercation, your patient was cut with a sharp knife. Your assessment reveals a laceration across the right eyelid down to the right cheek that is oozing dark red blood. It also appears that the patient’s eye was cut with the knife. You would:

Answer 255

d. cover both eyes with a sterile dressing.

Question 256

What instructions would you give to an OEC candidate who asks how to treat a patient who has visible blood in the anterior chamber of the eye?

Answer 256

d. “Put a shield over the eye and cover both eyes before immediately transporting this patient.”

Question 257

You have responded to a scene at which a young man tells you he splashed a chemical into his eye. He is complaining of burning and pain in his right eye. After performing a primary assessment and finding no life-threatening conditions, you would:

Answer 257

c. hold the patient’s injured eye open and flush it with large amounts of sterile water from the nose to the outer edge of the eye.

Question 258

You respond to the vehicle maintenance department, where a middle-aged man is flushing his eyes with tap water. He tells you that acid splashed in his eyes and that they are burning. Which of the following questions is the most important one to ask right away?

Answer 258

b. “Are you wearing contact lenses?”

Question 259

A young boy was running through the lodge with a pencil and tripped. The pencil impaled the boy’s left eye and remains lodged in place. Appropriate care for the eye would include:

Answer 259

a. stabilizing the impaled object and providing immediate transport.

Question 260

While running outside the lodge, a teenage girl tripped and fell. She hit her face and mouth, knocking one of her top front teeth from its socket. Although she is upset, you have assessed no threats to life, and the bleeding has been controlled. Your partner finds the tooth and asks you what to do with it. Which of the following responses would be best?

Answer 260

b. “Avoid touching the root of the tooth. We will gently irrigate it and place it back in its socket.”

Question 261

You respond to an accident in which a young male has sideswiped a tree on an expert trail. He has an abrasion on the left side of his face and neck and is spitting blood. He also lost several teeth, two of which he is holding. He has an airway and is breathing adequately. Your initial action when caring for the patient would be to:

Answer 261

b. establish manual in-line spinal stabilization.

Question 262

A 15-year-old girl struck in the mouth with a baseball bat has lost her front teeth and is splitting a significant amount of blood. Your primary concern in treating this patient is:

Answer 262

d. observing her for possible airway compromise.

Question 263

A 10-year-old boy arrives in the aid room bleeding from his nose. He states that he did not injure himself and just started bleeding while he was skiing, and that he can’t get it to stop. Based on your OEC training, which of the following statements about treating epistaxis is false?

Answer 263

c. Your initial treatment is to pack the nose with tightly rolled gauze and then apply direct pressure to the nose.

Question 264

You are assisting another OEC Technician to treat a young male with a deep laceration on his neck. Your partner appears to have controlled the bleeding. He asks you to apply a pressure dressing. In addition to helping to control the bleeding, you recognize that another important benefit to this type of dressing on a neck wound is:

Answer 264

c. preventing the entry of air into the circulatory system.

Question 265

When treating a deep laceration to the neck, bandaging should be applied over the pressure dressing by:

Answer 265

a. wrapping roller gauze loosely around the neck and then firmly through the opposite axilla.

Question 266

You are on a snowmobiling trip with friends when you see members of the lead group hollering and waving their hands up ahead. When you get to the scene you note that the lead rider apparently did not see a chain across the road, and he struck the chain with his neck so forcefully that he was thrown backward off his machine. Someone in the group is maintaining manual in-line stabilization. When you assess the injured person, which of the following signs would indicate the injury that must be addressed and managed first?

Answer 266

a. Difficulty speaking

Question 267

You are caring for a 15-year-old male with a laceration of the left ear. Which of the following actions would you not take in dressing this injury?

Answer 267

d. Wrapping gauze loosely around the head and under the opposite axilla

Question 268

A mother brings her 7-year-old child to the aid room and tells you that fluid is draining from the child’s right ear. She tells you that the child has had a fever since this morning and was complaining of right ear pain. Based on your OEC training, you would:

Answer 268

c. have the boy lie on his right side to allow the fluid to drain.

Question 269

The condition characterized by pupils of unequal size is:

Answer 269

a. anisocoria.

Question 270

You and your partner are caring for a patient who tells you that she wears contact lenses. Your partner wants to remove the lenses. You remind him that the removal of contact lenses is indicated in all of the following situations except:

Answer 270

b. any facial trauma.

Question 271

A patient has sustained an injury to his mediastinum. Based on the anatomy of his chest, which of the following structures may have been injured?

Answer 271

b. The esophagus

Question 272

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands chest trauma?

Answer 272

c. “Internal chest injuries are more difficult to assess and manage than are the more obvious external chest injuries.”

Question 273

A 39-year-old man has been stabbed once in the anterior chest. When notifying the patrol aid room by radio, you inform them that the patient has suffered what possible type of injury?

Answer 273

d. An open chest injury

Question 274

An OEC candidate asks you to explain a pneumothorax. Your response should be that it occurs when:

Answer 274

b. air accumulates between the inner chest wall and the outside of the lung, causing the lung to collapse.

Question 275

When assessing a patient, which of the following signs or symptoms is most indicative that the patient is suffering from a pneumothorax?

Answer 275

c. Decreased breath sounds in the right lung

Question 276

You are at the scene of a shooting. Your assessment reveals a 23-year-old man who has been shot twice. The first wound is to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen and is bleeding. The second wound is to the left lateral chest and makes a sucking sound every time the patient takes a breath. The initial action of an OEC Technician should be which of the following actions?

Answer 276

b. Cover the chest wound with a gloved hand.

Question 277

Which of the following phrases best describes a flail segment?

Answer 277

d. Two or more adjacent ribs that have been broken in two or more places.

Question 278

Your patient was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. Which of the following assessment findings best helps to determine that the patient has a flail segment?

Answer 278

a. Paradoxical chest wall movement

Question 279

You are managing a patient with a large flail segment in the right lateral chest. The immediate threat to this patient’s life is:

Answer 279

b. hypoxia.

Question 280

When assessing a patient who sustained blunt trauma to the chest, which of the following assessment findings is most indicative of a serious injury to the lung?

Answer 280

a. Hypoxia

Question 281

A patient with blunt chest trauma has paradoxical chest movement. She is conscious and confused and is breathing rapidly and shallowly. After manually stabilizing the flail section of the chest wall, you should:

Answer 281

b. administer oxygen through a nonrebreather facemask.

Question 282

You are assisting at an accident scene and are asked to apply a dressing over a sucking chest wound on the patient’s left anterior chest wall. Which of the following items would you use?

Answer 282

d. Vaseline gauze

Question 283

You have applied a nonporous dressing to a puncture wound on a patient’s chest. An OEC candidate asks you why the dressing was taped only on three sides. Your best response is that taping the dressing on three sides:

Answer 283

b. allows trapped air to escape upon exhalation.

Question 284

You treated a 19 year old with a puncture wound to the chest by covering the wound with an impermeable dressing. Now, as you perform your ongoing assessment, you note that the patient is tachypneic and is complaining of difficulty breathing. Breath sounds on the side of the injury are also diminished. Which of the following actions should you take immediately?

Answer 284

b. Lift a corner of the dressing from the wound for a few seconds; then reapply and check his breath sounds.

Question 285

You have placed an occlusive dressing on a puncture wound on the right side of the chest of a 33-year-old woman. During your ongoing assessment your primary concern is monitoring the injury for:

Answer 285

c. tension pneumothorax.

Question 286

An OEC candidate indicates that she understands the difference between a pneumothorax and a tension pneumothorax when she makes which of the following statements?

Answer 286

b. “A tension pneumothorax can cause cardiac output to decrease; a pneumothorax does not.”

Question 287

You suspect that a trauma patient is suffering from a hemothorax to the left lung. Which of the following assessment findings would reinforce your suspicion?

Answer 287

d. Respiratory distress and the signs and symptoms of shock

Question 288

You are listening to two patrollers discuss the accident to which they just responded. Which of the following injuries would lead you to believe that one of the patients had suffered from traumatic asphyxia?

Answer 288

c. Bluish discoloration of the neck and face

Question 289

Which of the following actions occurs when the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax?

Answer 289

d. Exhalation

Question 290

The thorax is enclosed by the:

Answer 290

a. ribs, sternum, thoracic spine, and diaphragm.

Question 291

The heart and lungs are located in the:

Answer 291

a. thoracic cavity.

Question 292

The diaphragm separates the:

Answer 292

c. thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.

Question 293

The diaphragm plays a major role in respiration. During inhalation, the diaphragm:

Answer 293

b. contracts and creates a negative pressure in the thorax, which draws air into the lungs.

Question 294

Injuries at which level of the spinal cord can affect the phrenic nerves and therefore respiration?

Answer 294

d. C3–C5

Question 295

Your 35-year-old patient has received major chest trauma. He complains of shortness of breath and pain. Your assessment reveals distended neck veins and pulsus paradoxus. Based on these signs and symptoms, you believe the patient to be suffering from:

Answer 295

b. pericardial tamponade.

Question 296

he most serious chest injury resulting from rapid deceleration is

Answer 296

a. aortic rupture.

Question 297

Commotio cordis is sudden cardiac death resulting from

Answer 297

b. blunt trauma, usually in children younger than 16 years old.

Question 298

You are instructing a class in Outdoor Emergency Care when a student asks you to explain the L.A.P. method of examining the thorax. Your best reply to this question would be which of the following statements?

Answer 298

d. “The L.A.P. method directs you to look, auscultate, and palpate the chest.”

Question 299

You are following the L.A.P. method to examine the chest of a 38-year-old trauma patient. To assess for thoracic cage instability, you would apply moderate downward pressure on the sternum while asking the patient to take a deep breath, and then you would:

Answer 299

c. apply moderate inward pressure on the lateral walls of the rib cage and ask the patient to take a deep breath.

Question 300

You are treating a 26-year-old man with a pneumothorax. The patient’s breathing has been inadequate, and you have been assisting his ventilations with a bag valve mask. The patient’s condition seems to be worsening. Because you understand the physiology involved in a pneumothorax, you are most concerned that:

Answer 300

b. the pressure from the BVM is causing more air to enter the pleural space and is causing a tension pneumothorax.

Question 301

You are treating a 26-year-old man who fell about 20 feet while rock climbing. He is complaining of right sided chest discomfort and dyspnea. You note that his respiratory rate is 28 and shallow. Based on this assessment, the best emergency care would be:

Answer 301

b. performing a rapid body survey and assisting ventilations with BVM and high-flow oxygen.

Question 302

You are treating a 16-year-old male who was skiing out of control and ran off the trail and into the woods. When you arrive, he is alert and complaining of pain in his right lower chest. Upon examination you note that he has impaled himself with a tree branch. He tells you he will feel better if you just remove the branch. Based on your training as an OEC technician, you would respond by making which of the following statements?

Answer 302

c. “We need to leave the branch in place until we get you to a hospital.”

Question 303

What is typically the most comfortable position for a responsive patient who is suffering from abdominal​ pain?

Answer 303

Supine with knees slightly flexed

Question 304

A 28 year old healthy male presents with recent signs and symptoms of nausea and vomiting but very little abdominal pain. Which one of the following is your best course of​ action?

Answer 304

The patient has​ indigestion; suggest that he follow up with his physician if the symptoms continue

Question 305

Which of the following statements regarding assessment of the abdomen is​ false?

Answer 305

Assessment of the abdominal organs is straightforward because the abdominal organs are specifically located and easily palpated

Question 306

When assessing a patient with a potential acute​ abdomen, the OECT should do all of the following​ EXCEPT:

Answer 306

Offer the patient small sips of water to determine whether or not doing so decreases pain or nausea.

Question 307

Which statement about acute abdomen is NOT​ true?

Answer 307

It is defined as slowly​ developing, initially minor pain that becomes worse over several hours or days.

Question 308

A​ middle-aged male presents with severe abdominal​ pain; nausea;​ vomiting; cool, moist​ skin; and uneven femoral pulses. This patient is most likely suffering from what potentially​ life-threatening condition?

Answer 308

An aortic aneurysm.

Question 309

Which of the following are solid​ organs?

Answer 309

Liver, pancreas,​ spleen, and ovaries

Question 310

In which position should most patients complaining of​ GI/GU pain be​ transported?

Answer 310

On their back with their knees flexed

Question 311

Which one of the following organs is not located in the​ abdomen?

Answer 311

Kidney

Question 312

The major considerations in the initial management of a trauma patient​ include:

Answer 312

The major considerations in the initial management of a trauma patient​ include:

Question 313

The combination of which two factors has the most impact when considering the potential for injury​ severity?

Answer 313

Stopping distance and speed

Question 314

The trauma assessment primary survey​ includes:

Answer 314

Scene​ size-up, assessment of​ ABCs, and performance of​ life-saving interventions as needed.

Question 315

While attempting to place a deformed limb back into the anatomic​ position, the patient screams and begs you to stop because of the pain. Your best response is​ to:

Answer 315

Stop and splint the limb in the current position.

Question 316

Which of the following injuries is generally the most​ serious?

Answer 316

A dislocated knee

Question 317

A patient has suffered an obvious femur fracture at the proximal end of the​ femur, near the femoral head. The proper splint for this type of injury would be​ a:

Answer 317

Long spine board.

Question 318

Which of the following most dramatically slows the healing time of​ bone?

Answer 318

Smoking

Question 319

A patient has suffered a femur fracture. The greatest danger with this injury​ is:

Answer 319

Severe blood loss.

Question 320

The most important component of field management for musculoskeletal injuries​ is:

Answer 320

Personal safety.

Question 321

You are caring for a patient with an open humeral fracture. Extrication to definitive medical care will take at least​ 12-14 hours. The proper method of care for this injury​ includes:

Answer 321

Wash the fracture​ site, apply tension until the bone end has slipped back into the​ body, and then bandage and splint as appropriate.

Question 322

The purpose of field splinting an MS injury includes all but which of the​ following?

Answer 322

Allowing the bone ends to knit back together

Question 323

One of the most common assessment mistakes is​ to:

Answer 323

Focus on the​ less-serious “obvious” injury and miss a potential life threat.

Question 324

Skeletal and smooth refer to​ what?

Answer 324

Muscles

Question 325

A patient exhibits the following sings and​ symptoms: respiratory​ difficulty, difficulty​ swallowing, upper extremity and facial vein​ engorgement, red​ face, and shock. What injury is most likely causing these signs and​ symptoms?

Answer 325

A posterior sternoclavicular dislocation

Question 326

A patient with a dislocated elbow has no CMS in his hand. One attempt at realignment fails to regain circulation. Your next best course of action would be​ to:

Answer 326

Secure the arm as best as you can with a rigid​ splint, sling and swathe as​ appropriate, administer​ oxygen, and transport rapidly.

Question 327

A patient has stretched and torn the medial malleolar ligament. This means the patient​ has:

Answer 327

Sprained her ankle.

Question 328

You notice crepitus when attempting to move a​ patient’s injured wrist back into an anatomically correct position. This is indicative of what type of​ injury?

Answer 328

A fracture

Question 329

The axial skeleton is responsible for​ ________________, while the appendicular skeleton provides​ __________________________.

Answer 329

The upright position of the​ body, the manipulation of objects or locomotion

Question 330

​Hinge, gliding,​ pivot, and suture refer to​ what?

Answer 330

Types of joints

Question 331

The MOST important step in applying any splint is​ to:

Answer 331

Check distal CMS before and after splinting.

Question 332

A patient tells you she felt a​ “pop” behind her right ankle but there is little or no​ pain, and she cannot move or walk on the foot. This is most likely indicative of what type of​ injury?

Answer 332

A ruptured tendon

Question 333

During​ inhalation, the​ diaphragm:

Answer 333

Contracts and descends into the abdomen.

Question 334

When assessing a​ patient, which of the following signs or symptoms is most indicative that the patient is suffering from a tension​ pneumothorax?

Answer 334

Decreased breath sounds in the right lung

Question 335

Beck’s triad consists of which three significant clinical​ findings?

Answer 335

Distended neck​ veins, muffled heart​ sounds, and pulsus paradox

Question 336

All of the following are true about the anatomy and physiology of the chest​ EXCEPT:

Answer 336

The thorax includes the area from the mandible to the costal margin.

Question 337

A skier collides chest first with a tree at a high rate of speed. Based on this mechanism of injury​ alone, the OECT should be suspicious of all of the following injuries​ EXCEPT:

Answer 337

A triple A. (Abdominal Aortic Aneurism)

Question 338

All of the following statements about thoracic trauma are true​ EXCEPT:

Answer 338

Skiers outnumber snowboarders almost​ 2:1 for incidences of traumatic chest injuries.

Question 339

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands chest​ trauma?

Answer 339

​”Internal chest injuries are more difficult to assess and manage than are the more obvious external chest​ injuries.”

Question 340

Your patient was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. Which of the following assessment findings best helps to determine that the patient has a flail chest​ segment?

Answer 340

Paradoxical chest wall movement