Test Bank Ch 1-7 Flashcards
The course called “Outdoor Emergency Care” was created by the National Ski Patrol to:
a. create a standard of care for ski patrollers and others involved in outdoor emergency care.
The person who first organized a volunteer “ski patrol” and then was asked to organize a national patrol was:
c. Minnie Dole.
Although the National Ski Patrol was originally a subcommittee of the National Ski Association, the NSP became an independent organization in:
a. 1953.
The National Ski Patrol is one of a few organizations that have received a federal charter from the U.S. government. Because of this, each year the NSP must:
b. report to Congress.
The creed of the National Ski Patrol is:
d. “Service and Safety.”
The 10th Mountain Division was founded:
b. when Minnie Dole convinced the U.S. Army that a winter warfare unit would be valuable.
The first emergency responder textbook created exclusively for ski patrollers was titled:
a. Winter Emergency Care.
Dr. Warren Bowman is considered the father of Outdoor Emergency Care because he:
d. created the concept of “intermediate” medical care for ski patrollers.
The 5th Edition of Outdoor Emergency Care:
c. exceeds the knowledge and skills identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation for Emergency Medical Responder.
Most teaching systems have found that the most effective way to master technical skills is by:
a. personally practicing the skills.
Which of the following statements about OEC 5th Edition is false?
d. It supersedes local medical direction and management directives.
In order to become an “on the hill” OEC Technician, you need to do all of the following except:
d. successfully complete a three-month candidacy program at your mountain.
In order to maintain OEC certification, you must:
a. complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year.
Which of the following is not an ethical principle that OEC Technicians should follow?
d. Protect others and never let them refuse care.
Good Samaritan laws generally:
b. apply to people who do not receive compensation for helping people.
The failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person with similar training would exercise in a similar circumstance is known as:
a. negligence.
While you are alone and caring for an injured skier in the aid room, a fellow patroller calls and tells you that your own young child was just injured in the terrain park. Concerned for your child, you leave the patient’s care unfinished and run to the terrain park. Your action could be viewed as:
d. abandonment.
You arrive at the scene of an accident where a 22-year-old female skier has hit a tree and has a large bleeding cut on her head. When you ask her if she needs help, she refuses care and says she just needs to sit for a while. Noticing the amount of bleeding, you calmly express your concern for her, but she continues to say she doesn’t want help. You hesitate to touch her because you are concerned that if you do, she could accuse you of:
b. battery.
You have just finished your shift, and while driving home still wearing your patrol jacket you come upon a car collision in which people appear to be injured. You recognize that if you approach the collision wearing your patrol jacket, members of the public may have a reasonable expectation that you will provide care. This expectation is known as:
d. the doctrine of public reliance.
While in the aid room treating a patient with a fractured wrist, the patient tells you that he was skiing on a slope that was too difficult for him, and that he started going too fast and got out of contrl. You recognize that this information must be documented on the accident report because it provides evidence of:
c. contributory negligence.
Which of the following statements concerning “standard of training” is true?
a. Acting within the “standard of training” is fundamental to reducing an OEC Technician’s legal risk.
Although not required in OEC 5th Edition, your local mountain protocol states that any time you use a backboard you should always treat the patient as having a neck/back injury and apply a cervical collar. You recognize that this mountain-specific requirement is called a:
b. standard of care.
Which of the following is not considered a form of patient consent?
d. Absolute consent
When you approach an injured skier and ask, “May I help you?” and she replies “Yes,” you interpret this “expressed consent” to mean that:
d. you can only ask the patient to provide a history.
Upon finding an unconscious patient at the scene of a bad accident, your next step should be to:
a. assume “implied consent” and begin to examine and treat the patient.
It is a busy Friday night in the aid room when a child arrives complaining of abdominal pain. The child states that her parents dropped her off and that they are at the movies. You are concerned because the child is a minor with no adult to give consent for treatment. You would:
b. recognize that the child needs to be assessed and that there is implied consent to treat.
You are skiing down your favorite slope and notice a small group gathered around a middle-aged man sitting on the ground. You note that the boarder is holding his wrist and appears in pain. He agrees to have you examine him but then refuses any more help. You explain the possible consequences of not splinting the wrist and of the boarder trying to get down the mountain without help. This explanation of the risk of refusing care is provided in order to:
b. diminish your risk of being accused of abandonment.
The type of consent that is based on an appreciation and understanding of the facts, implications, and possible future consequences of an action is known as:
d. informed consent.
Which of the following descriptions is the best example of expressed consent?
b. A 52-year-old skier who comes to the aid room and asks for help
What type of consent would apply for an unresponsive 28-year-old male victim of a motorcycle collision?
b. Implied consent
A situation in which an OEC Technician leaves a patient before the patient’s care is transferred to another qualified individual is considered:
c. abandonment.
Although regulations may differ from state to state, the general laws that may protect OEC Technicians from liability while providing emergency care to a patient are known as:
b. Good Samaritan laws.
Which of the following goals best describes a key goal of an emergency care system?
b. To identify and modify illness and injury risks
A network of specially trained personnel, equipment, facilities, and other resources that respond to medical emergencies—regardless of cause, location, or the patient’s ability to pay—best describes:
c. an emergency care system.
Which of the following attributes is not one of the 14 attributes of an effective emergency care system?
d. Public acceptance
Which of the following levels of training emphasizes the provision of immediate life-saving treatment and stabilization to critically ill or injured patients while waiting for additional emergency response?
b. Emergency medical responder
An OEC Technician meets or exceeds the NHTSA national training requirements of:
d. an Emergency Medical Responder.
Most emergency care systems deploy personnel to emergencies using a stratified approach based on the patient’s condition or anticipated needs. Which of the following lists presents the normal order of deployment of responders?
c. EMR, EMT, AEMT, Paramedic
Which of the following choices is not an example of direct medical oversight?
c. Written protocols
Which of the following characteristics is not a characteristic of indirect medical control?
a. Communication by radio
Protocols are best described as:
Guidelines developed at the local level by emergency personnel familiar with an area’s medical needs, available resources, system capabilities, and local standard of care.
The reason it is important that OEC Technicians participate in quality improvement programs in services in which they work or volunteer is:
b. to identify problems in care delivery and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence.
Which of the following is not a role of OEC Technicians in the quality improvement process?
c. Blaming their partner for a mistake in care
All of the following are types of quality improvement except:
a. recurrent
Which of the following is not an attribute of an emergency care system?
a. Equipment
Which of the following is most effective for reducing the incidence of injury or illness in skiing or other outdoor activities?
c. Prevention
Which of the following is not one of the four nationally recognized prehospital emergency care provider levels?
c. Outdoor Emergency Care Technician
Which of the following methods is the best method for ensuring that the treatment rendered by OEC Technicians meets or exceeds customer expectations and national education standards for emergency medical personnel?
d. Quality improvement
Continuity of care is best described as:
The seamless delivery of high-quality emergency medical care as a patient transitions from initial contact with an EMT through definitive treatment best describes:
The attribute of an effective emergency care system that focuses on assessing the effectiveness of all 14 attributes of the emergency care system is:
a. evaluation.
Many emergency care systems deploy personnel to emergencies using a tiered approach. OEC Technicians are most likely deployed in which tier?
a. Tier 1
Critical care providers who bring advanced life support equipment, therapies, and interventions to the scene are typically deployed in what tier?
d. Tier 4
Which of the following is the umbrella under which every facet of health care is sheltered?
d. Public health
Written instructions that indicate what should be done in a given situation are best described as:
b. protocols.
Which of the following tips is not a part of common radio etiquette?
c. Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds.
When speaking to another person over the airwaves, the use of radio codes:
c. is discouraged because the codes are not universal to all public safety agencies.
What is 3:35 p.m. in military time?
b. 1535
What time is 6:43 a.m. in military time?
b. 0643
What do you say using the NATO Phonetic Alphabet to ensure that the letters SMD are understood?
c. “Sierra Mike Delta”
The structure that regulates body temperature is the:
b. hypothalamus.
Metabolism:
d. is defined as the chemical processes occurring within a living cell or organism
When the body’s core temperature drops, the body:
Starts shivering to increase heat production
Conduction is the transfer of heat:
d. from a warm object to a cold object through direct contact.
The direction of heat transfer:
d. is always from a warmer object to a colder object.
During a stress response, the release of epinephrine results in:
The heart rate increasing
The “fight or flight” response diverts blood flow away from the internal organs, which results in:
b. a slowing of the digestive process.
The primary fuel source for muscles is(are):
c. carbohydrates.
Lactic acid formed during high-intensity exercise can lead to:
a. muscle pain.
Leukocytes are the workhorses of the immune system and are produced in the:
d. bone marrow.
An autoimmune disorder is a self-destruction process in the body that can result in:
b. diabetes.
The best strategy for wearing clothing in the winter months is to wear:
c. three layers referred as a base and middle and outer layers.
The best natural material used in winter clothing is:
b. wool.
Non-disposable PPE (personal protective equipment) and reusable equipment should be disinfected per:
a. the manufacturer’s recommendations.
Which of the following SPF ratings would provide the greatest level of protection?
d. 50
Each day the body loses ____ liter(s) of water through respiration, perspiration, and urination.
d. 2.5
Some vector-borne illnesses are transmitted to humans via:
b. deer ticks.
nfluenza viruses can survive up to ______ on a hard surface.
a. 2 days
The practice of protecting yourself from disease transmission through exposure to blood and other body fluids is referred to as:
a. standard precautions.
A communicable disease is:
b. a disease that can be spread from one person to another.
Which one of the following techniques is the single best technique that OEC Technicians can use to prevent the spread of infection?
c. Washing their hands
Which of the following tasks is the first component of a scene size-up?
Scene safety
Which of the following actions is not a method for ensuring scene safety?
b. Calling for risk management personnel
A common MOI (mechanism of injury) that OEC Technicians will encounter is:
d. blunt force.
Who is in charge of a crime scene at your ski area?
d. The responding law enforcement officer
Some hazardous products can cause health problems if ingested or inhaled. Long-term inhalation of asbestos can cause:
b. lung cancer.
After scene safety is established in a trauma situation, what is the next important thing to determine?
a. MOI
There is generally at least a two-week period before one experiences the early flu-like symptoms of rabies. Effective medical treatment for rabies should occur within:
a. 24 hours.
Cross contamination occurs when:
a. you touch multiple patients without changing your gloves.
A high-level disinfection involves the use of:
d. an EPA-registered sterilizing chemical.
A multiple-casualty incident (MCI) is defined as:
a. any event that places an excessive demand on rescue personnel and equipment.
The National Incident Management System (NIMS) is beneficial in an emergency response to a disaster or a terrorism attack because it provides for:
c. a consistent approach to managing a disaster when the response involves many different responders and agencies.
Which one of the following statements about the Incident Command System is true?
ICS operates with standardized language to avoid confusion.
While responding to an MCI drill involving an explosion, you recognize that the dozen ambulances sitting in a parking lot three blocks away from the incident constitute the:
b. staging unit.
You correctly identify the primary benefit of triage when you say:
d. “Triage is used to prioritize patients for treatment and transportation based on their clinical signs and symptoms.”
Approximately 15 trucks and cars have been involved in a “chain-reaction” collision. You are the first person on scene and begin going from vehicle to vehicle to determine the severity of each injury and to prioritize patients for treatment. Your actions are an example of:
c. primary triage.
At a multiple-casualty incident, you are brought a patient with a red tag tied to his wrist. You should recognize which one of the following?
a. immediate care and transport of the patient are necessary.
Which one of the following triage tag indicates the lowest priority for care, “Expectant”, for a patient at a multiple-casualty incident?
c. A black tag
You are transporting a patient at a multiple-casualty incident. The patient has a yellow triage tag. You understand this tag to mean:
a. treatment of the patient could be delayed for up to 4 hours.
In the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system for triaging patients, what should you include in your assessment to determine the order in which patients will receive emergency care?
b. Respiratory rate, perfusion status, mental status, ability to walk
You are at an outside skiing exhibition when a spectator bleacher collapses. Several injured people are walking around with various injuries. Which of the following instructions is most appropriate for these ambulatory patients?
“Go and wait by the ticket booth at the bottom of the slope.”
There is a fight involving approximately 20 bar patrons. Weapons were used, and there are varying degrees and types of injuries. The first person on scene has started assessing a person lying on the floor with blood covering his shirt. Quick assessment reveals him to be breathing at 24 times per minute. Which of the following actions should be done next?
b. Check for a radial pulse.
A natural gas explosion has destroyed an apartment building. At least five occupants have been killed and another 12 injured. You are in charge of triage and are presented with a young woman who is breathing at a rate of 40 breaths per minute. Using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system for triaging, you should immediately:
a. place a red tag on the patient and move on to the next patient.
At the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, you are presented with a patient who is not breathing. According to the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system, which of the following actions should you take next?
c. Open the airway.
You are triaging using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system and you find a patient who is breathing 18 times per minute and has a radial pulse. Which one of the following actions should you take next?
Check to see if the patient can follow simple directions.
In using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system of triage, which one of the following patients should have a yellow tag applied before being moved to the treatment area?
b. A female with a respiratory rate of 22 and a palpable radial pulse who squeezes your fingers when instructed to do so
teen involved in a multiple-casualty incident is found lying on the ground with an obvious deformity to his left thigh. Using the START system for triage, you note that he is not breathing. Which one of the following should you do next?
c. Open the patient’s airway and then check for a radial pulse.
While in charge of triage at a scene involving 30 patients exposed to carbon monoxide, you find a young female who is not breathing. After you open her airway and find that breathing does not return, you should:
b. place a black tag on her and move on to the next patient.
When you are placed in charge of the treatment unit at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, which of the following four patients will you treat first?
a. A confused 69-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 40 and a rapid and weak radial pulse
In most EMS systems, a multiple-casualty incident involves:
a. 2 or more patients.
Which of the following statements reflects a proper understanding of an OEC Technician’s role at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident?
d. The role of the OEC Technician will vary depending on the exact situation.
Of the five functional areas within the ICS structure, the first to be established should be:
Incident Command.
The primary function of the Incident Commander is to:
a. provide overall leadership and direction.
The Incident Commander has assigned you to be the Operations Section Chief. In this role you are responsible for all of the following except:
d. determining incident objectives and strategy.
In the Incident Command System, which of the following sections is responsible for maintaining all incident reports except for financials?
d. Planning section
The person responsible for maintaining equipment and ensuring that facilities meet specified needs is the:
b. Logistics Chief.
Which of the following is not a key characteristic of facilities utilized in an Incident Command System?
a. They should be situated in public view so that they are easily located.
In the Incident Command System, the section responsible for maintaining injury, death, and damage documentation as well as maintaining reimbursement records is the:
d. finance/administration section.
A formal, organized method for managing an incident, regardless of its cause, size, scope, or complexity, is called:
c. an incident command system.
In the Incident Command System, the operations section is responsible for:
b. executing the strategy of the Incident Action Plan.
In the acronym “START,” the letter “S” stands for:
c. simple.
When handling a mass-casualty incident, you use triage to:
a. do the most good for the most people.
When properly trained in the START system, an OEC Technician should be able to complete a patient assessment in no more than:
d. 30 seconds.
Which of the following tasks is not a responsibility of the Incident Commander?
a. Triaging the injured patients
