Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LP SB and PWB > Test Bank Ch 33-36 > Flashcards

Test Bank Ch 33-36 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following patients should an OEC Technician consider a potential behavioral emergency?

A

A 29-year-old man with diabetes who is combative and refusing care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Your first priority in managing a patient with a behavioral emergency is:

A

c. ensuring your own personal safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Your OEC class asks you to describe the term behavior. Which of the following statements would be the correct response?

A

What is acceptable behavior in one community may not be acceptable in another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Two of the most common medical causes of abnormal behavior are:

A

c. hypoxia and hypoglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following statements about behavioral emergencies is false?

A

b. The person requires physical restraint before care can be given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following patients is exhibiting signs of psychosis?

A

d. A 37-year-old who is having hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Elisabeth Kubler-Ross described five distinct phases that occur when a person learns that death is pending. Which of the following statements about these phases is accurate?

A

a. The five phases are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You have stopped a male skier and a female skier who were racing down a closed trail. Initially, the man was calm, but suddenly he becomes angered and says that “you can’t tell me what to do.” When you try to talk with him, he pulls out a knife and tells you to “get away or I’ll kill you.” The female skier is frightened and states that her friend sometimes gets very aggressive when he drinks. You put in a call for security and additional staff, but you know it will be a few minutes before they arrive. Which of the following statements describes your best course of action in the interim?

A

d. Remain a safe distance from the man and let him know you are there to help.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

You are out with a group of friends in a local tavern. One of the patrons gets argumentative and will not calm down. By the time the police arrive, the patron has gotten combative and is breaking glass bottles. The police subdue the patron and have him restrained. As you watch all of this happening, which of the following situations would cause you to be concerned?

A

a. The police have restrained the patron in a prone position on the floor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following statements shows that an OEC Technician has a good understanding of dealing with a patient who is having a behavioral emergency?

A

a. “Try to assess patients from a safe distance until they start to answer your questions calmly.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

You are called to the lodge to assist a 25-year-old man who reportedly is having hallucinations. When you arrive, he is sitting quietly and appears calm. Information obtained in your SAMPLE history indicates that the patient started having hallucinations yesterday. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia a few years ago and has been prescribed two different medications. Which of the following questions is most pertinent to the situation and should be asked next?

A

b. “Have you been taking your medications as prescribed?”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

You are describing techniques for remaining safe when responding to a call for a patient with a behavioral emergency. Which of the following statements is appropriate?

A

You should be sure that you have at least one exit route, and do not let the patient get between you and that way out.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following behaviors is a sign of potential aggression in a patient?

A

The clenching of both fists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following actions is best to keep a behavioral patient calm and to avoid provoking a violent outburst?

A

a. Inform the patient of everything that is happening and use a calm voice throughout care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following pieces of information is not important to OEC Technicians in assessing a patient with abnormal behavior?

A

a. What the patient’s diagnosis is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

You and a fellow OEC Technician are discussing how to talk with someone experiencing a behavioral emergency. Which of the following statements indicates that you have a good understanding of the correct approach?

A

c. “Demonstrate active listening skills by repeating or paraphrasing what the patient said.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following patients is not showing signs of a behavioral emergency?

A

b. A 24-year-old female who is sobbing loudly after having a miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When treating a patient exhibiting abnormal behavior, you should always:

A

a. assume until proven otherwise that the source of the abnormal behavior is an underlying medical condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following situations is not an indication for the use of restraints?

A

b. The patient is alert, rational, and refuses medical care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the use of physical restraint is true?

A

a. An OEC technician must follow local protocols for restraining patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When mechanically restraining a patient, you should:

A

d. have six people available to safely apply the restraints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A condition in which a person exhibits abnormal behavior but is able to function within the normal boundaries of reality is known as:

A

c. a neurosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following structures is not a boundary of the pelvic cavity?

A

a. The diaphragm (superiorly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following structures is not located within the pelvic cavity?

A

c. The appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The function of the uterus in pregnancy is to:

A

d. provide an environment for the ovum to develop into a fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following statements about the role of the cervix in pregnancy is true?

A

d. “Bloody show” comes from the cervix and is a sign of imminent delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The second stage of labor ends with:

A

c. delivery of the baby.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In which of the following patients would an OEC Technician recognize a full-term pregnancy?

A

a. A 21 year old who is 39 weeks pregnant and is feeling dizzy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Prior to an emergency delivery, an OEC Technician prepares the delivery field. Which of the following instructions describes the best way to do that task?

A

d. Place a clean (or if available, a sterile) sheet or towel under the mother’s buttocks and then unfold it down to her feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

You arrive in the aid room to find an EMT assisting a mother during delivery. You’re told that the patient’s perineum tore and that you need to control the bleeding. Which of the following actions would you take?

A

c. Place a sterile dressing between the mother’s vagina and rectum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When asked, a young woman with abdominal pain replies that she is not sure whether she is pregnant or not. Which of the following questions would best help you determine whether the patient could be pregnant?

A

b. “When was your last menstrual period?”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When assessing a 27-year-old woman who is pregnant, which of the following statements would concern you the most?

A

c. “I have not been able to see a doctor during this pregnancy.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

You have completed an assessment of a 32-year-old woman in the seventh month of pregnancy. Which of the following assessment findings would concern you the most?

A

d. Intermittent vaginal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A 16 year old has come to the aid room complaining of vaginal bleeding. She tells you that she is pregnant and has been bleeding for about 3 hours. After having her lie down, your care would include:

A

c. offering her a sanitary napkin to place over her vagina to slow the bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

You would most suspect the occurrence of a spontaneous abortion in which of the following patients?

A

b. A 21 year old who is 6 weeks pregnant and is passing blood clots from her vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A 21 year old is five weeks pregnant and is experiencing vaginal bleeding. When reviewing the possible causes of the bleeding, you would suspect:

A

d. a spontaneous abortion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A 25-year-old woman arrives in the aid room with her husband. She is 37 weeks pregnant and in labor. Your exam reveals crowning with 60-second contractions occurring at 50-second intervals. Which of the following actions would you take?

A

c. Open and prepare an obstetrical kit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

You are with a 29-year-old woman who has signs of imminent delivery. She tells you that she has a history of HIV infection. Compared to a patient who has no infectious disease, how will Standard Precautions differ for this patient?

A

d. Gloves, a gown, and goggles must be worn for both patients with HIV and noninfectious patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

During a delivery, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby’s neck. Which of the following actions should you take immediately?

A

c. Slip the cord over the baby’s head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following instructions describes the correct way to suction a newborn?

A

a. Suction the mouth first and then the nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

As soon as a baby is delivered from the vaginal canal, it is crucial that you:

A

b. vigorously dry and warm the newborn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

You are in the process of delivering a baby and have just delivered the baby’s head. Which of the following actions should you take next?

A

b. Check the baby’s neck for the presence of the umbilical cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

At what point during a delivery should you first suction the baby?

A

After the baby’s head has been delivered but before the torso is out of the vaginal opening and if there is obvious obstruction to spontaneous breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should an OEC Technician cut the umbilical cord?

A

d. After the delivery of the baby whenever transportation will be delayed more than 20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following statements describes the proper care for the cord after delivery?

A

d. The cord is appropriately clamped and then cut approximately 6 inches from the infant’s abdomen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following statements about the placenta is accurate?

A

d. The placenta typically delivers itself within 30 minutes of the birth of the baby.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

After delivery, you note that blood continues to ooze from the mother’s vaginal canal. The sanitary pads that you placed between her legs continue to become soaked. Which of the following actions should you take next?

A

c. Perform a uterine abdominal massage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The APGAR scoring system is useful in determining:

A

c. the status of a newborn’s overall condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The components of the APGAR scoring system include:

A

b. appearance, irritability, and activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A newborn’s first APGAR score is 6; his second APGAR score is 9. This information:

A

a. indicates an improvement in the newborn’s condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following findings should be of greatest concern when assessing a 33-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant?

A

d. Vaginal bleeding that is not associated with pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In abruptio placenta, the greatest threat to the baby is:

A

c. hypoxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A 24-year-old woman complains of sharp pain in her left lower abdominal quadrant. She states that her last period was 7 weeks ago. Which of the following conditions would you most suspect?

A

c. Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following statements about the umbilical cord is true?

A

c. It transmits nourishment from the placenta to the fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The underlying pathophysiology associated with an ectopic pregnancy is that a fertilized egg is:

A

a. lodged in a fallopian tube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In an ectopic pregnancy, the primary threat to the pregnant woman is:

A

b. hemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When the placenta attaches over the cervix, the baby and the mother are at risk for which of the following conditions?

A

a. Placenta previa

58
Q

A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant has fallen and is complaining of sharp abdominal pain. She is also experiencing vaginal spotting. She has tenderness on palpation just right of the midline of her abdomen. Her pulse is 122, respirations are 22, and blood pressure is 118/82 mmHg. Based on this presentation, which of the following actions would you take?

A

c. Administer high-flow oxygen and immediately transport her.

59
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the functions of the vagina is true?

A

c. The vagina serves as a passageway for the fetus during delivery and an outlet for blood during menstruation.

60
Q

A 27-year-old woman is complaining of midline lower abdominal pain that worsens with urination and is associated with blood in her urine. One possible cause of her symptoms would be:

A

a. cystitis.

61
Q

When assessing a pregnant woman it is important to remember that:

A

a. the uterus will be expanded and may be as high as the diaphragm.

62
Q

Hypotension can occur after 20 weeks of gestation when a pregnant woman is in a supine position. Which of the following actions by a OEC Technician will not prevent hypotension?

A

c. Elevating her feet 6–12 inches

63
Q

The most common cause of fetal death due to trauma to a pregnant woman’s abdomen is:

A

a. abruptio placenta.

64
Q

Special operations is a term used to denote:

A

a. infrequently performed activities that require specialized training, skills, and equipment in a remote setting.

65
Q

Which of the following organizations is not a disaster response agency that OEC Technicians are encouraged to join?

A

c. The Incident Command Resource System

66
Q

HAZWOPER training is required by the federal government for anyone who works in an environment in which uncontrolled hazardous materials may be encountered. Which of the following is the correct pairing for a letter and what it stands for in the acronym HAZWOPER?

A

d. O: operations

67
Q

In a HazMat incident, a boundary that is set up to prevent members of the public from entering the incident is called a(n):

A

b. isolation perimeter.

68
Q

The contaminated area in a hazardous incident is known as the:

A

c. hot zone.

69
Q

Which of the following activities is not considered a special operation?

A

b. Toboggan transportation

70
Q

You overhear a group of EMTs discussing the concept of driving an ambulance with due regard for the safety of others. Which of the following statements indicates that the EMT understands the concept?

A

c. “When approaching an intersection, I wait for all traffic to stop before proceeding through.”

71
Q

Which of the following statements regarding an ambulance parked at an incident is true?

A

d. The area around the ambulance and the accident scene is known as the ambulance operation zone.

72
Q

Which of the following tasks is not a task an OEC Technician should be ready to perform in assisting an EMT in the back of an ambulance?

A

a. Medication administration

73
Q

You and your friend arrive at an accident scene where a compact car has rolled down an embankment. Based on your OEC training, you realize that before anyone enters the vehicle, it should be stabilized. Vehicle stabilization includes all of the following actions except:

A

b. having several men hold the vehicle to prevent it from moving.

74
Q

Organized under the Office of the Surgeon General, community-based volunteer medical professionals who have agreed to help in the event of a disaster are known as the:

A

c. Medical Reserve Corps.

75
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the NFPA safety diamond is true?

A

The NFPA safety diamond identifies the known safety hazards of a given material.

76
Q

Which of the following statements concerning HAZWOPER training is false?

A

b. All personnel are trained in all aspects of a HazMat-related incident.

77
Q

In a HazMat incident, the transition area in which decontamination occurs is known as the:

A

a. warm zone.

78
Q

You are instructing an OEC class on the handling of a HazMat incident. You are asked where OEC Technicians would be assigned if they were assisting at a HazMat scene. Which of the following statements is the appropriate response?

A

c. “Because of your OEC training, you would probably be assigned to the cold zone.”

79
Q

Toxic nerve agents:

A

a. overstimulate the nerve endings and the central nervous system.

80
Q

In the event that OEC Technicians are exposed to an organophosphate or a chemical nerve agent, they may need to self-administer the nerve agent antidote. Which of the following statements regarding the self-administration of a nerve agent antidote is false?

A

d. “Depending on the symptoms observed, the initial treatment will either be an atropine auto-injector or a 2-PAM Cl injector.”

81
Q

Search and rescue operations consist of which of the following five basic tasks?

A

b. Mobilization, intelligence gathering, containment, search, and rescue

82
Q

Your brother-in-law tells you that he and a group of friends are going to be doing some backcountry skiing. You ask him if they know what to do in case of an avalanche. Which of the following responses would indicate to you that your brother-in-law has thought about this possibility?

A

a. “Everyone in the group has a cell phone and an avalanche transceiver.”

83
Q

Logistics, one of the four basic functions of an organized avalanche rescue, is primarily concerned with:

A

c. caring for the rescuers in the field.

84
Q

Which of the following statements concerning locating and extricating a victim buried by an avalanche is correct?

A

d. Spinal injuries are presumed until proven otherwise.

85
Q

A low-angle rescue is any rescue work that:

A

b. takes place on a slope ranging from horizontal to 45 degrees.

86
Q

Which of the following lists correctly places the tasks of fire ground operations in order of priority?

A

c. Size-up, accountability, rescue/life safety, confinement, control, ventilation, property conservation

87
Q

A candidate in your OEC class is attempting to describe advanced life support (ALS). Which of the following statements concerning ALS is incorrect?

A

d. All EMTs, paramedics, RNs and PAs are part of the ALS system.

88
Q

You are working with a OEC Technician candidate in the first-aid room at the local ski patrol. The candidate asks why you would decide to call for ALS transport rather than BLS. Which of the following statements would be an appropriate response?

A

c. “If I have any concerns about the patient’s ABCDs, I will call for ALS.”

89
Q

You are caring for a 56-year-old woman who was struck by another skier and had a hard tumbling fall. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be most suggestive that an advanced airway may be needed?

A

c. Cyanotic lips

90
Q

If assisting an ALS provider with endotrachial intubation is permitted by local protocol, OEC Technicians can check the light source on the laryngoscope blade by:

A

b. attaching the blade to the handle and raising the blade into position.

91
Q

You are preparing equipment an ALS provider needs to perform an intubation. In order to assess that the endotrachial tube is working correctly and to have it prepared for the provider, which of the following series of tasks would you perform?

A

a. Inflate the cuff with 10 cc of air. Check for leaking; if none occurs, deflate the cuff.

92
Q

When an ALS provider asks you to perform the “BURP” maneuver while you are assisting with an intubation, you would:

A

use the thumb and index finger of one hand to deliver light pressure on the cricoid membrane in a backward, upward, and rightward direction.

93
Q

When an ALS provider has completed intubating your 39-year-old patient, she then checks for proper tube placement by:

A

c. seeing an equal, bilateral chest rise with each ventilation.

94
Q

Which of the following values is the generally accepted initial setting when setting up a ventilator?

A

b. Respiratory rate: 12–20 breaths per minute

95
Q

Your friend tells you that her daughter was recently in the emergency department for an asthma attack and was given something called an MDI. Your friend tries to describe the MDI and its use, and she got most of the information correct. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A

a. “If you see a mist coming out of the corrugated tubing, then you are not breathing in deeply enough.”

96
Q

You are caring for a 37-year-old patient and are trying to determine if you might need an ALS provider to initiate intravenous therapy. From your OEC training, you recall that IV therapy is typically used for patients with:

A

b. diabetes and severe dehydration.

97
Q

You are assisting an ALS provider to initiate IV therapy for a 62 year old with a probable ruptured spleen. She asks you to help prepare 0.9% normal saline with macrodrip tubing. While preparing the equipment you realize that she chose this combination because:

A

d. normal saline is an ideal volume expander that is useful in treating shock.

98
Q

“Spiking the IV bag” refers to:

A

c. pushing the spike of the IV tubing into the port of the solution bag.

99
Q

You are assisting an ALS provider in caring for a patient with hypovolemic shock. While gathering equipment the provider needs to start administering the intravenous fluid, you recall that the most common size of needle used in emergency medicine is:

A

d. 18 gauge.

100
Q

The heart’s electrical activity is most commonly examined through the use of a(n):

A

a. ECG.

101
Q

A good way to remember how to correctly apply cardiac monitor leads is the phrase:

A

c. “White and green to the right, and smoke over fire.”

102
Q

Which of the following sites for affixing electrodes to the chest would not obscure the transmission of an electrical signal?

A

b. The fleshy part of the lower abdomen

103
Q

You are instructing an OEC class on how to assist an ALS provider with defibrillation. Which of the following statements correctly identifies pad placement?

A

“The negative pad is placed on the upper right chest beneath the clavicle on the mid-clavicular line, whereas the positive pad is placed about 2–3 inches beneath the left nipple and 3–4 inches along the anterior axillary line.”

104
Q

The first medication used to treat asthma or COPD is:

A

d. albuterol.

105
Q

Epinephrine and atropine are medications used to:

A

b. increase the patient’s heart rate.

106
Q

Which of the following pieces of equipment is not necessary when initiating an IV in a patient?

A

b. A syringe

107
Q

What is the function of the drip chamber in IV tubing?

A

It increases or decreases the flow rate of IV fluid.

108
Q

You have gathered all the equipment an ALS provider needs to initiate IV therapy. Before assembling the equipment, which of the following actions should you take first?

A

c. Check the expiration date on the IV bag.

109
Q

Which of the following statements describes how you initially fill the drip chamber after you have attached the administration set to the IV fluid bag?

A

d. Close the sliding clamp lock, and then squeeze and release the drip chamber until it is half full.

110
Q

You are placing a patient on a cardiac monitor. In which of the following locations would you place the green “RL” lead?

A

d. On the patient’s lower right chest wall, on the anterior axillary line.

111
Q

A medication used to reduce blood pressure or to alleviate ischemic cardiac pain is:

A

c. nitroglycerin.

112
Q

Which of the following is one of the “five rights” of medication administration?

A

d. Administering the right dose must be ensured.

113
Q

Which of the following statements about hallucinations is NOT​ true?

A

Hallucinations involve only two of the​ senses: hearing and sight.

114
Q

The two most common causes of altered mental state​ are:

A

Hypoxia and hypoglycemia.

115
Q

The mother of a missing​ 5-year-old becomes hysterical. She screams at you and berates you for not doing more to find her​ child, then threatens you with everything from bodily harm to a lawsuit if you do not find her child. This behavior is considered to​ be:

A

A strong but understandable​ response, given the situation.

116
Q

A behavioral emergency is defined​ as:

A

Behavior that constitutes a potential danger to the patient or others

117
Q

Which of the following statements about agitation is​ true?

A

It can be stress or situationally induced.

118
Q

Which of the following statements shows that an OEC Technician has a good understanding of assessing a patient who is having a behavioral​ emergency?

A

“Try to assess patients from a safe distance until they start to answer your questions​ calmly.”

119
Q

You have stopped a male skier and a female skier who were racing down a closed trail.​ Initially, the man was​ calm, but suddenly he becomes angered and says that​ “you can’t tell me what to​ do.” When you try to talk with​ him, he pulls out a knife and tells you to​ “get away or​ I’ll kill​ you.” The female skier is frightened and states that her friend sometimes gets very aggressive when he drinks. You put in a call for security and additional​ staff, but you know it will be a few minutes before they arrive. Which of the following statements describes your best course of action in the​ interim?

A

Remain a safe distance from the man and let him know you are there to help.

120
Q

Your OEC class asks you to describe the term behavior. Which of the following statements would be the correct​ response?

A

What is acceptable behavior in one community may not be acceptable in another.

121
Q

Normal versus abnormal behavior is generally defined by all of the following​ EXCEPT:

A

Federal laws.

122
Q

Which of the following statements about agitation is​ true?

A

It can be stress or situationally induced.

123
Q

A laboring woman tells you she needs to​ “go to the bathroom and​ poop.” Your best response to her should be​ to:

A

Check her for crowning.

124
Q

A patient in her 5th month of pregnancy falls while skiing. In which position should you place​ her?

A

Left lateral recumbant

125
Q

A woman in her third trimester of pregnancy has skidded down two steps and landed on a carpeted floor. She denies injury. She tells you that prior to pregnancy her normal pulse rate was 70. You take it and find it to be 100. This is most likely due​ to:

A

A normal​ third-trimester pulse increase.

126
Q

In an ectopic​ pregnancy, the primary threat to the pregnant woman​ is:

A

hemorrhage

127
Q

Which statement best describes gynecologic​ emergencies?

A

They are fairly common but usually not life threatening

128
Q

A​ 19-year-old sexually active female presents with severe lower left abdominal pain. She tells you she is sexually active and that she does not believe she is​ pregnant, but her period is 2 weeks late. This patient could be suffering from what possible gynecological​ problem?

A

An ectopic pregnancy

129
Q

Which of the following statements about the role of the cervix in Imminent Childbirth is​ true?

A

As delivery​ starts, the cervix dilates giving a​ “Bloody show”​ (mucous plug).

130
Q

A​ 24-year-old woman complains of sharp pain in her left lower abdominal quadrant. She states that her last period was 7 weeks ago. Which of the following conditions would you most​ suspect?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

131
Q

The​ “hot,” “warm” and​ “cold” zones are best defined​ as:

A

The most dangerous or contaminated area at an​ incident, the transition​ zone, and the zone in which it is safe to work without specialized protective equipment.

132
Q

What do the mnemonics DUMBELS and SLUDGE refer​ to?

A

The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning

133
Q

Which of the following lists correctly places the tasks of fire ground operations in order of​ priority?

A

Size-up, accountability,​ rescue/life safety,​ confinement, control,​ ventilation, property conservation

134
Q

Which statement about safe ambulance operations is​ true?

A

The majority of motor vehicle accidents involving ambulances occur during daylight hours and in dry conditions.

135
Q

During a search​ operation, one of the search dogs comes over to sniff you. Your response should be​ to:

A

Ignore the dog and remain focused on your job.

136
Q

Which level of HAZWOPER training and certification allows the provider to function in any of the hazard​ zones?

A

Technician

137
Q

Organized under the Office of the Surgeon​ General, community-based volunteer medical professionals who have agreed to help in the event of a disaster are known as​ the:

A

Medical Reserve Corps.

138
Q

Which comment about rescuer safety in an avalanche search zone is​ correct?

A

The risk of an additional slide is a very real and dangerous possibility.

139
Q

The acronym CBRNE refers​ to:

A

The substance or substances involved in an act of terrorism.

140
Q

When asked to assist an ambulance crew with patient​ care, an OECT​ should:

A

Be prepared to provide the full range of his or her OEC skills and assist in advanced life support care as authorized and trained.

LP SB and PWB (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions