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Microbiology - Portage Learning > Test 5 > Flashcards

Test 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Universal Precautions

A

Universal Precautions

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2
Q

List 6 observations a researcher would be sure to note while assessing an unknown microbial sample.

A
  1. Size and shape
  2. Movement
  3. Gram status (positive or negative)
  4. Chemical Reactions
  5. Color changes in the organism or
    surrounding media
  6. Images of described observations
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3
Q

While observing an unknown sample of limited amounts, a researcher must determine the following observations: (1) the presence of any motility and (2) its Gram status using the same sample—the liquid sample cannot be divided. Which would you determine first and why?

A

Determine motility before gram status because motility requires a wet mount, while gram-status requires fixing the sample. Fixing the sample kills the organism, making it impossible to observe motility

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4
Q

A facultative anaerobe is a microorganism capable of growth under what conditions?

A

Faculative anaerobe is capable of growth under aerobic and anaerobic conditions

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5
Q

As Streptococcus is catalase negative would it thrive or die in the presence of peroxides? Why?

A

It would die in the presence of peroxides because it is not capable of breaking down peroxides - making it catalyse negative. If left too long in peroxide, the cell integrity would be damaged causing lysis or cell death.

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6
Q

Streptococcus is most often streaked onto…why?

A

Blood Agar

Why: To determine hemolytic properties, aiding in classification

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7
Q

True or False. The Lancefield groups are used to subdivide antigenic groups of gamma-hemolytic Streptococcus. Why?

A

False, Lancefield groupings are used to subdivide beta-hemolytic strep

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8
Q

The distinctions for Lancefield subgroupings lie in its: (select all that apply)

A

Carbohydrate composition of antigens

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9
Q

Left untreated, strep throat can progress to ______ , which displays _____ hemolytic activity.

A

Rheumatic fever (autoimmune; 3% of untreated cases); beta

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10
Q

What is another name for strep throat? What activity does it display? What is its morpholgy?

A

Strep pharngitis displays beta-hemolytic activity

Chains of cocci

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11
Q

True or False. Under most circumstances, staphylococcus can be found in ~80% of human population where it remains non-symptomatic. Why?

A

False, it is found in roughly 30% of the human population

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12
Q

When a bacterium neither harms nor benefits from the host from which it obtains nutrients, it is referred to as being ___________.

A

Commensal

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13
Q

What is entry?

A

Pathogens use portals of entry, mucus membranes or parenteral entry, to gain access to host tissues.

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14
Q

What is evasion?

A

Pathogen uses antigen

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15
Q

What is attachment?

A

The pathogen attaches and binds to specific tissue surfaces by using its adhesin factors

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16
Q

What is folliculitis?

A

Pus-filled lesions on skin or hair

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17
Q

What is scalded skin syndrome?

A

Rupture pustules; treated with penicillin neonatorum

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18
Q

What is impetigo?

A

Childhood skin disease near mouth/nose

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19
Q

What is conjuctivitis?

A

Infection of thin, transparent scleral tissue

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20
Q

What is opthalmia?

A

Infection occurs at time of birth

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21
Q

True or False. The causative agent of conjunctivitis can be either bacterial or viral. Why?

A

True, Bacterial is staph and viral, both resulting in inflammation of the conjunctiva and pink eye

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22
Q

True or False. An acid-fast stain is best suited to identify tuberculosis (as opposed to a Gram stain).

A

True, TB shows poor gram stain and should be screened with acid-fast

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23
Q

True or False. Although TB must be inhaled and reside in the lung in order to cause infection, TB can also spread to the brain, spine, and kidneys.

A

True, TB moves systemically through blood to infect other areas. However is usually non-infectious when outside the lung

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24
Q

Identify the disease based on the following (select all that apply):

It is a small, acid-fast rod usually remaining asymptomatic for up to 20 years.

It affects the skin, nerves, upper respiratory tract, and eyes of infected individuals.

A

Hansen’s Disease
Leprosy

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25
True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults.
True, mature/adult microbiota is capable of killing bacteria/spores
26
While visiting his grandparents, a 10-year-old child has green beans for dinner that were harvested from his grandparents’ garden and canned the previous year. Severe illness sets in and the child is taken to the hospital. Botulism is suspected, but what form? Explain why you chose this answer.
Foodborne Botulism because clostridium toxin can be found in foods that are not canned properly, bacteria grows in low acidic and anaerobic conditions. Since the child is older than 6-months he can not be diagnosed infant botulism and no mention of deep wounds or injury
27
True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus.
True, although symptoms can be treated.
28
Describe the symptoms and treatment regimen for someone infected with Clostridium perfringens.
Also known as gas gangrene, symptoms are muscle necrosis, swelling in affected area, fever and extreme gas production. Protocol is to remove tissue area affected, amputation of site as well as strong antibiotic therapy
29
Why does the alpha toxin (perfringolysin) produced during an infection of gas gangrene cause cell death?
Toxin causes membrane perforation by forming pores in the plasma membrane of host cells resulting in uncontrolled ion fluxes and eventually cell lysis and death
30
You develop a fever, chills, and pneumonia after recently using a warm midst vaporizer in an attempt to open your sinuses. What bacterial disease would a doctor suspect is causing your symptoms? Would the doctor suspect you contracted it from touching (potentially) contaminated doorknobs?
Legionnaires; No, because legionelle is not transmitted from person to person, but instead through inhalation of droplets that are small enough to breathe in
31
True or False. Pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes. Why?
False, this plague targets respiratory system, bubonic targets lymph nodes
32
Which form of the plague is highly virulent? What does it target?
Pneumonic Plague; Targets the Respiratory system
33
Identify the following disease. What bacteria causes it? Gram status?
Anthrax - distinct black center at site of infection Bacillus anthracis
34
Identify the following disease, bacteria and gram status
Gas gangrene Clostridium perfringens, a Gram-positive
35
Gonnorrhea is caused by:
Diplococcic bacteria
36
True or False. Chlamydia trachomatis can be grown on an agar plate alone.
False, chylamdia is an obligate parasite and requires a host for growth
37
Gonorrhea symptoms
Cardiac and neurological complications
38
Syphilis Symptoms
Paralysis, blindness and dementia
39
Chlamydia symptoms
infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease
40
How can you test for TB?
tuberculin skin test or xray acid-fast test, florescence microscopy molecular testing interferon gamma release
41
Identify the diease Gram status
Folliculitis (Staph aureus) Gram positive
42
identify the disease
Impetigo
43
Identify the disease
Ophthalmia neonatorum
44
Identify the disease, gram status and shape
Leprosy (also known as Hansen’s disease) gram-negative rod shaped
45
Identify the diease Gram status Caused by what bacteria
Botulism Gram Positive Clostridium botulinum
46
Identify the disease What bacteria causes it?
Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi
47
Identify the disease. What bacteria causes it?
Plague is caused by Yersinia pestis
48
Identify the disease What bacteria causes it?
Legionnaires’ is caused by Legionella
49
What is invastion?
The pathogen invades deeper into the host’s tissues and secures nutrients for growth and multiplication.
50
TB: Bacteria + Gram Status + morpholgy
51
Which non-selective yet differential agar plate should be used if a Streptococcus sample is suspected?
blood agar
52
What disease can result if a patient with streptococcal pharyngitis goes untreated?
Rheumatic fever occurs in roughly 3% of untreated cases of streptococcal pharyngitis.
53
A bacterial swab is taken from a patient with impetigo and streaked across an MSA plate. Following incubation at 37C, what will be the color of the agar?
54
Streptococcus, E. coli, pseudomonas, and klebsiella are all capable of causing what disease?
Septicemia/blood poisoning
55
What is a facultative anaerobe?
56
According to the module, which mycobacterium infection will be treated free of charge by the World Health Organization (WHO)?
Leprosy is treated for free by WHO using a mixture of dapsone, rifampin and clofazmine
57
What are the three main conditions caused by the botulism toxin?
Foodbrone botulism Infant botulism wound botulism
58
What is foodborne botulism?
Result of improperly canned, contaminated low-acidic foods like green beans, corn and beats
59
What is infant botulism? What are the three main conditions caused by the botulism toxin?
Occurs when children under 6 months of age consume foods containing the bacteria, like honey. Can also be found in soil. Infants have an immature gastrointestinal tract and lack same microbes as an adult
60
What is wound botulism?
Occurs when C. botulinum bacteria colonize a deep wound, like a puncture from injections of street drugs
61
62
What is the mechanism of action of the toxin produced by clostridium tentani (tetanus)?
The toxin acts on inhibitory neurons causing systemic muscle stiffness and spasms, inluding lock-jaw or respiratory malfunction.
63
What Gram-negative bacterium might you come into contact with in a unsanitary hot tub?
Legionella which can only be transmited through water droplets.
64
What are the three forms of plague, and what regions do they affect?
Bubonic Plague - lymph Pneumonic Plague - Respiratory Sepicemic Plague - blood, most rare
65
According to the module, which STD might be best identified via dark-field microscopy? What's its causative agent?
Syphallis
66
Identify the bacteria, gram status and morpholgy
Staphylococcus Gram positive Round, grape like clusters

Microbiology - Portage Learning (7 decks)

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