Final

Question 1

Which of the following are considered Protista?

Bacteria
Yeast
Algae
Amoeba

Answer 1

Algae
Amoeba

Question 2

True or False: Protista retain a unicellular classification, as they are unable to form tissue layers.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

What is the function of a lysosome?

Answer 3

Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes

Question 4

The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the…

Answer 4

cell envelope

Question 5

The function of the mitochondria is…

Answer 5

To produce energy/ATP

Question 6

True or False. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotrophic. Why?

Answer 6

False, they are heterotropic

Question 7

What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle?

Answer 7

reduced electron carriers - NADH/FADH2

Question 8

In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources?

Answer 8

Lactose
Carbs
Lipids

Question 9

True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fa!y acid chains of lipids.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants.

Answer 10

True

Question 11

The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants?

Answer 11

NADPH
ATP
H20
CO2

Question 12

In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where?

Answer 12

The process of converting light energy into chemical energy occurs in the membrane

Question 13

True or False: The Calvin cycle/dark reactions must occur in the absence of light.

Answer 13

False

Question 14

True or False: Following the decolorization step of the Gram stain, Gram-Negative bacteria will appear colorless.

Answer 14

True

Question 15

Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide.

Answer 15

Paraformaldehyde
ethanol
methanol

Question 16

You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process.

Answer 16

Gram Stains - metheylene blue, crystal violet, safranin, or fuschin

Question 17

You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the pa”ent were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide.

Answer 17

You would expect to see red cells (TB Pos) on a blue background (TB Neg)

Question 18

True or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform. Why?

Answer 18

True, giemsa is used to diagnose blood parasites

Question 19

Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice.

Answer 19

TEM was used because the subcellular substructures are visible and the image lacks the outside shell shown in SEM.

Question 20

True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial population.

Answer 20

True

Question 21

When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such as way as to form what?

Answer 21

A dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should always contain the growth of individual growth

Question 22

In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4?

Answer 22

P4, Phases rank from highest to lowest, P1>P2>P3>P4

Question 23

True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop is not required for each phase as long as the bacterial culture is pure. Why?

Answer 23

False, a new loop should always be used because not doing so would fail to create a dilution gradient since the bacterial concentration would remain constant across all regions.

Question 24

The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens?

Answer 24

Either 3 or 4 is acceptable as long as the resulting gradient contains within it the growth of individual colonies. If not then a new test must be performed

Question 25

True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C. Why?

Answer 25

True, pathogenic strains grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37C, researchers set growth at 25 to restrict growth

Question 26

When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why?

Answer 26

LB Media because it contains universal proteins that support the growth of many bacterias. The other choices are selective forms of media. Researchers should first expand a culture and then use selective/differential.

Question 27

True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults.

Answer 27

True

Question 28

True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus.

Answer 28

True

Question 29

The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria?

Answer 29

Gas gangrene, the bacteria that produces the alpha-toxin perfringolysin is named clostridium perfringens

Question 30

True or False. Pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes

Answer 30

False, pneumatic plague targets the respiratory system

Question 31

Identify the disease

Answer 31

Anthrax

Question 32

True or False. Chlamydia trachoma!s can be grown on an agar plate alone.

Answer 32

False, chlmydia requires a host for growth

Question 33

True or False. Similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the entire body.

Answer 33

False, shingles are localized

Question 34

What linear, double-stranded, enveloped DNA virus is the first virus (as of Oct. 26, 1977) to be officially declared eradicated?

Answer 34

Smallpox/variola virus

Question 35

Describe the main underlining differences between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccine.

Answer 35

Salk - inactivated injection of virus Sabin - live weakened form that is administered via orally

Question 36

A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit viral entry of Influenza. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why?

Answer 36

Hemagglutinin (HA) proteins would be the targets since they're involved with viral attachment and entry into host cell. Neraminidase are involved in budding and release of new viral particles and would not be an appropriate target

Question 37

True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is dumbbell shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24.

Answer 37

False

Question 38

What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus causes temporary or permanent paralysis by infiltrating (infecting) motor neurons within the spinal cord, brain stem, or motor cortex?

Answer 38

Polio

Question 39

Lifecycle of a virus

Answer 39

Attachment - viral receptors bind to host proteins on the surface of the cell Entry - the virus fuses with the host membrane and enters the cell Uncoating - viral capsid disassembles Replication - the viral genome is the ‘blueprint’ to make copies of itself Release - New virus particles are produced and leave the cell New Infection - newly produced viruses that left the host cell now go on to infect new cells.

Question 40

Describe the main differences between lytic and temperate phages

Answer 40

Lytic bacteriophages replicate within the host bacteria until it ruptures, whereas temporate (or lysogenic) phages primarily exist in a non-replicative state that does not kill the host cell. Lytic phages replicate all viral proteins needed for the assembly of new virus particles whereas lysogenic phage genomes are integrated into the host genome but production of viral proteins is suppressed.

Question 41

While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either the Variola major or Variola minor viruses?

Answer 41

No. Both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated in 1977

Question 42

By whom and where was the first polio vaccine developed?

Answer 42

Jonas Salk in 1955 at University of Pittsburgh

Question 43

The plasma membrane...

Answer 43

Is often a bilayer comprised of lipids Contains hydrophobic tails pointing inward

Question 44

Describe the 4 basic bacterial morphologies.

Answer 44

Coccus - round/spherical Bacillus - rod Vibrio - curved rod Spirllium - rod/corkscrew

Question 45

Cell walls are found in which of the following...

Answer 45

Plants Fungi Bacteria Algae

Question 46

An organism that obtains its source of carbon from inorganic molecules such as carbon dioxide is referred to as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?

Answer 46

Autotroph

Question 47

How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate?

Answer 47

1

Question 48

True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system.

Answer 48

False, the products fuel the TCA cycle

Question 49

What is one of the main functions of light reactions?

Answer 49

Generate proton concentration gradient to generate ATP

Question 50

Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated. [answer1]CO2 + [answer2]ATP + [answer3]NADPH + [answer4] H20 → C6H12O6 + [answer5]ADP + [answer6] NADP+

Answer 50

6 CO2 18 ATP 12 NADPH 12 H20 18 ADP 12 NADP+

Question 51

What type of reaction is A+B --\>A-B

Answer 51

Ligases

Question 52

What type of reaction is A-B--\>A+B

Answer 52

Lyases

Question 53

What type of reaction is A--+B --\> A+B--

Answer 53

Oxioreductases

Question 54

Ab+C --\> A+Cb

Answer 54

Transferases

Question 55

A micrometer is defined as:

Answer 55

10^-6

Question 56

Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain each.

Answer 56

Resolution - the distance between 2 objects at which the objects still can be seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means 2 or more objects may appear as one. Contrast - difference in light absorbance between 2 objects. Poor contrast gives a high background and makes it hard to visualize multiple objects

Question 57

Assuming a constant (non-adjustable) light source power, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to limit the amount of light entering the microscope.

Answer 57

Iris Diaphgram

Question 58

True or False: Staining is often required to image a cell that is adherent and flat (thin).

Answer 58

True

Question 59

What can the unaided eye see?

Answer 59

\>100um

Question 60

This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP, and YFP proteins.

Answer 60

Fluorescence

Question 61

This type of microscope uses a specialized condenser and objective to amplify the slight differences between cells and background.

Answer 61

phase-contrast

Question 62

This type of microscope enhances contrast between specimen and background but does not permit the visualization of intracellular structures.

Answer 62

dark field

Question 63

This type of microscope uses neither halogen nor UV light sources but rather lasers to illuminate stained cells in high resolution.

Answer 63

confocal

Question 64

Gram-Positive cells appear [answer1] in color due to a [answer2] peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall

Answer 64

Purple, Thick

Question 65

Gram-Negative cells appear [answer1] in color due to a [answer2] peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall.

Answer 65

Pink, Thin

Question 66

True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria is the presence of LPS in the outer membrane.

Answer 66

True

Question 67

Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide.

Answer 67

Paraformaldehyde ethanol methanol

Question 68

You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process.

Answer 68

Simple Stain, using any of the following metheylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin

Question 69

Identify the organelles

Answer 69

1. Nucleus 2. Lysosome 3. Plasma Membrane 4. Golgi Apparatus 5. Rough endoplasmic reticulum