Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology - Portage Learning > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following are considered Protista?

Bacteria
Yeast
Algae
Amoeba

A

Algae
Amoeba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False: Protista retain a unicellular classification, as they are unable to form tissue layers.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of a lysosome?

A

Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the…

A

cell envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The function of the mitochondria is…

A

To produce energy/ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotrophic. Why?

A

False, they are heterotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle?

A

reduced electron carriers - NADH/FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources?

A

Lactose
Carbs
Lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fa!y acid chains of lipids.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants?

A

NADPH
ATP
H20
CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where?

A

The process of converting light energy into chemical energy occurs in the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False: The Calvin cycle/dark reactions must occur in the absence of light.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or False: Following the decolorization step of the Gram stain, Gram-Negative bacteria will appear colorless.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide.

A

Paraformaldehyde
ethanol
methanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process.

A

Gram Stains - metheylene blue, crystal violet, safranin, or fuschin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the pa”ent were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide.

A

You would expect to see red cells (TB Pos) on a blue background (TB Neg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform. Why?

A

True, giemsa is used to diagnose blood parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice.

A

TEM was used because the subcellular substructures are visible and the image lacks the outside shell shown in SEM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial population.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such as way as to form what?

A

A dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should always contain the growth of individual growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4?

A

P4, Phases rank from highest to lowest, P1>P2>P3>P4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop is not required for each phase as long as the bacterial culture is pure. Why?

A

False, a new loop should always be used because not doing so would fail to create a dilution gradient since the bacterial concentration would remain constant across all regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens?

A

Either 3 or 4 is acceptable as long as the resulting gradient contains within it the growth of individual colonies. If not then a new test must be performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C. Why?

A

True, pathogenic strains grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37C, researchers set growth at 25 to restrict growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why?

A

LB Media because it contains universal proteins that support the growth of many bacterias. The other choices are selective forms of media. Researchers should first expand a culture and then use selective/differential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus.

A

True

29
Q

The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria?

A

Gas gangrene, the bacteria that produces the alpha-toxin perfringolysin is named clostridium perfringens

30
Q

True or False. Pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes

A

False, pneumatic plague targets the respiratory system

31
Q

Identify the disease

A

Anthrax

32
Q

True or False. Chlamydia trachoma!s can be grown on an agar plate alone.

A

False, chlmydia requires a host for growth

33
Q

True or False. Similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the entire body.

A

False, shingles are localized

34
Q

What linear, double-stranded, enveloped DNA virus is the first virus (as of Oct. 26, 1977) to be officially declared eradicated?

A

Smallpox/variola virus

35
Q

Describe the main underlining differences between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccine.

A

Salk - inactivated injection of virus

Sabin - live weakened form that is administered via orally

36
Q

A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit viral entry of Influenza. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why?

A

Hemagglutinin (HA) proteins would be the targets since they’re involved with viral attachment and entry into host cell. Neraminidase are involved in budding and release of new viral particles and would not be an appropriate target

37
Q

True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is dumbbell shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24.

A

False

38
Q

What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus causes temporary or permanent paralysis by infiltrating (infecting) motor neurons within the spinal cord, brain stem, or motor cortex?

A

Polio

39
Q

Lifecycle of a virus

A

Attachment - viral receptors bind to host proteins on the surface of the cell
Entry - the virus fuses with the host membrane and enters the cell
Uncoating - viral capsid disassembles
Replication - the viral genome is the ‘blueprint’ to make copies of itself
Release - New virus particles are produced and leave the cell
New Infection - newly produced viruses that left the host cell now go on to infect new cells.

40
Q

Describe the main differences between lytic and temperate phages

A

Lytic bacteriophages replicate within the host bacteria until it ruptures, whereas temporate (or lysogenic) phages primarily exist in a non-replicative state that does not kill the host cell.

Lytic phages replicate all viral proteins needed for the assembly of new virus particles whereas lysogenic phage genomes are integrated into the host genome but production of viral proteins is suppressed.

41
Q

While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either the Variola major or Variola minor viruses?

A

No. Both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated in 1977

42
Q

By whom and where was the first polio vaccine developed?

A

Jonas Salk in 1955 at University of Pittsburgh

43
Q

The plasma membrane…

A

Is often a bilayer comprised of lipids

Contains hydrophobic tails pointing inward

44
Q

Describe the 4 basic bacterial morphologies.

A

Coccus - round/spherical
Bacillus - rod
Vibrio - curved rod
Spirllium - rod/corkscrew

45
Q

Cell walls are found in which of the following…

A

Plants
Fungi
Bacteria
Algae

46
Q

An organism that obtains its source of carbon from inorganic molecules such as carbon dioxide is referred to as a ____________?

A

Autotroph

47
Q

How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate?

A

1

48
Q

True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system.

A

False, the products fuel the TCA cycle

49
Q

What is one of the main functions of light reactions?

A

Generate proton concentration gradient to generate ATP

50
Q

Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated.

[answer1]CO2 + [answer2]ATP + [answer3]NADPH + [answer4] H20 → C6H12O6 + [answer5]ADP + [answer6] NADP+

A

6 CO2
18 ATP
12 NADPH
12 H20
18 ADP
12 NADP+

51
Q

What type of reaction is A+B –>A-B

A

Ligases

52
Q

What type of reaction is A-B–>A+B

A

Lyases

53
Q

What type of reaction is A–+B –> A+B–

A

Oxioreductases

54
Q

Ab+C –> A+Cb

A

Transferases

55
Q

A micrometer is defined as:

A

10^-6

56
Q

Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain each.

A

Resolution - the distance between 2 objects at which the objects still can be seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means 2 or more objects may appear as one.

Contrast - difference in light absorbance between 2 objects. Poor contrast gives a high background and makes it hard to visualize multiple objects

57
Q

Assuming a constant (non-adjustable) light source power, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to limit the amount of light entering the microscope.

A

Iris Diaphgram

58
Q

True or False: Staining is often required to image a cell that is adherent and flat (thin).

A

True

59
Q

What can the unaided eye see?

A

>100um

60
Q

This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP, and YFP proteins.

A

Fluorescence

61
Q

This type of microscope uses a specialized condenser and objective to amplify the slight differences between cells and background.

A

phase-contrast

62
Q

This type of microscope enhances contrast between specimen and background but does not permit the visualization of intracellular structures.

A

dark field

63
Q

This type of microscope uses neither halogen nor UV light sources but rather lasers to illuminate stained cells in high resolution.

A

confocal

64
Q

Gram-Positive cells appear [answer1] in color due to a [answer2] peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall

A

Purple, Thick

65
Q

Gram-Negative cells appear [answer1] in color due to a [answer2] peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall.

A

Pink, Thin

66
Q

True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria is the presence of LPS in the outer membrane.

A

True

67
Q

Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide.

A

Paraformaldehyde
ethanol
methanol

68
Q

You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process.

A

Simple Stain, using any of the following metheylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin

69
Q

Identify the organelles

A
  1. Nucleus
  2. Lysosome
  3. Plasma Membrane
  4. Golgi Apparatus
  5. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Microbiology - Portage Learning (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions