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Nursing II > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a chest tube?

A

a tube is placed to remove an unwanted substance from the thoracic cavity

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2
Q

Why is the skin tunnel important?

A

no direct path inside the chest to outside, less chance air in chest, barrier to bacteria entrance

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3
Q

Why are air leaks bad?

A

having air leak into the tube cause a pneumothorax and collapse

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4
Q

Three-way stop cock are a way to do what?

A

attach suction, then turn off and clear syringe

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5
Q

How do you care for chest tubes?

A

place a vaseline soaked gauze over incision, cover in sterile gauze squares, then wrap chest in conforming gauze and vet wrap

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6
Q

How often should you check a chest tube?

A

every 2 hours

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7
Q

What is a tracheostomy?

A

surgical introduction of a tracheostomy tube into the trachea to allow direct airflow

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8
Q

In what cases would a tracheostomy be performed?

A

blocked upper-airways, facilitate removal of fluids from lungs, allow anesthesia when doing surgery on nose or mouth

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9
Q

What is a tracheotomy?

A

incision of the trachea through the skin and muscles of the neck for exploration, for removal of a foreign body

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10
Q

What may be planned as for post-op care?

A

tracheostomy

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11
Q

When might a tracheostomy be performed?

A

in an emergency situation with obstruction of the upper airway

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12
Q

What is more important in a tracheostomy than clipping and sterile prep?

A

reestablishing upper airway

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13
Q

What is the site for a tracheostomy?

A

midway between the larynx and thoracic inlet, on the midline

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14
Q

What should be avoided in a tracheostomy?

A

jugular, carotid, vagus nerve

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15
Q

What is helpful in a tracheostomy?

A

line block with local anesthetics

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16
Q

Separate muscles over trachea and enter where in a tracheostomy?

A

between trachea rings

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17
Q

What are the different types of tracheostomy tubes?

A

stainless steel, flexible plastic or latex, single and double lumen tubes, cuffed tubes

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18
Q

Goals of maintenance for a tracheostomy?

A

asepsis of site and lungs, patency, patient comfort

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19
Q

What are the maintenance steps for a tracheostomy?

A

incision care, humidity, suctioning-continued patency, care of tube

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20
Q

You should clean the incision of a tracheostomy with what?

A

q-tip or 2x2 gauze soaked in .05% chlorhexadine solution

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21
Q

What should be placed down tracheostomy tube hourly?

A

.5-3 mls of sterile normal saline

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22
Q

What should be done for a tracheostomy tube every 4 hours?

A

nebulize with saline =/- meds for 10-15

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23
Q

Why should you suction a tracheostomy tube?

A

fluid and debris will accumulate in lumen of tube

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24
Q

What may debris or fluid in tube cause?

A

a life-threating blockage of the tube

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25
Q

What is the procedure for suctioning a tube?

A

attach sterile catheter to syringe and suction out inside of tube every 2 hours

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26
Q

How often should tubes be replaced?

A

every 24 hours

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27
Q

What should you be careful of in tube maintenance?

A

removing and replacing rubes and no debris goes into tube

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28
Q

Why should the tube site be cleaned frequently?

A

to remove respiratory secretions

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29
Q

What should be done to care for a tracheostomy site?

A

apply petroleum jelly on the skin around the site to prevent scalding if needed

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30
Q

Upon removal of tracheostomy tube, site heals by what?

A

second intention

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31
Q

What is removed in a permanent tracheostomy?

A

3 to 4 rings is removed

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32
Q

What is sutured to the skin in a permanent tracheostomy?

A

tracheal mucosa

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33
Q

How do you care for a permanent tracheostomy?

A

clean frequently and apply petroleum jelly around the site

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34
Q

What is a pharyngostomy tube?

A

red rubber catheter

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35
Q

Where is a pharyngostomy tube placed?

A

from the pharynx to the esophagus

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36
Q

What is the proestrus of canines?

A

9-10 days

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37
Q

What is the estrus of canines?

A

9-10 days

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38
Q

What is the diestrus in canines?

A

57-58 days

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39
Q

What is the anestrus in canines?

A

2-5 months

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40
Q

Inestrus in canines >4 months is associated with what?

A

infertility

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41
Q

What happens during proestrus?

A

vulva swollen, serosanguinous discharge

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42
Q

What happens with the male in proestrus?

A

attractive to male but will not mate

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43
Q

What do cornified cells look like?

A

angular-shaped cytoplasm, nucleus pyknotic or missing

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44
Q

What do noncornified cells look like?

A

rounded cytoplasm, large stippled nucleus

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45
Q

What causes cells to cornify?

A

estrogen levels increasing

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46
Q

What happens to the female during estrus?

A

female receptive to male, stands, “flags” tail

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47
Q

What happens during estrus?

A

vulvar swelling may decrease slightly, discharge changes to straw color

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48
Q

What happens to the vaginal cytology in estrus?

A

100% cornified

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49
Q

What happens to vaginal cytology during diestrus?

A

abrupt decline in % cornified cells

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50
Q

Day 1 of diestrus is used for what?

A

to predict whelping

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51
Q

When should you breed in dogs?

A

3x/week as long as vaginal cytology shows fully cornified cells

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52
Q

What is important with AI frozen or fresh cooled semen?

A

timing to coincide with ovulation

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53
Q

Immature oocysts mature in how many days?

A

2-3

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54
Q

How long are oocysts viable?

A

2-3 days

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55
Q

When should you breed when using fresh chilled semen?

A

days 3 and 5 OR days 4 and 6 after LH peak

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56
Q

Viability of fresh chilled semen is what?

A

reduced

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57
Q

When should you breed when using frozen semen?

A

day 5 or 6 after LH peak or intitial rise in progesterone or 3 days after progesterone level of 5

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58
Q

AI is performed how?

A

surgically into uterus or by transcervical endoscopy

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59
Q

One ejaculate=what?

A

one breeding

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60
Q

How often should you breed?

A

every other day beginning day 9 until female will not accept male or vaginal smear indicates diestrus

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61
Q

What should be done in assisted breeding?

A

assist the male to mount, control the female so she will not bite the male, bring female to the male’s territory

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62
Q

What should be done with theale in assisted breeding?

A

vaginal smear to determine correct timing and cleanse the vulva with alcohol

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63
Q

What should be done to the male during assisted breeding?

A

stimulate the male by manipulating the shealth/penis and collecting ejaculate into a warm, clean, dry container

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64
Q

What is the first fraction of ejaculate?

A

urethral secretions, discard if urine included

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65
Q

What is the second fraction of ejaculate?

A

sperm rich, has milky appearance

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66
Q

What is the third fraction of ejaculate?

A

prostatic fluid to rinse the sperm from its container

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67
Q

What can kill sperm?

A

water, urine, blood, and alcohol

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68
Q

What should you allow the male to do in assisted breeding?

A

“tie” and wait until ejaculate is complete

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69
Q

What should be done with the semen after the male has ejaculated?

A

evaluate a drop of it on a warm, dry slide

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70
Q

What is evaluated in the semen?

A

motility and morphology

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71
Q

What can be used to count ejaculate numbers?

A

hemocytometer

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72
Q

Ejaculate numbers should exceed what in a normal male?

A

300 million

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73
Q

What number of ejaculate per insemination is needed for average conception?

A

200 million

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74
Q

Where is collected semen placed?

A

in vagina near cervix

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75
Q

What should you avoid getting caught on when injecting collected semen?

A

clitoris

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76
Q

What can be used to pass dorsally into vagina to cervix when injecting semen?

A

catheter/pipette

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77
Q

What should be done to the female when injecting semen?

A

elevate her hind quarters by holding hock region

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78
Q

How long should the females haunches be elevated post-AI?

A

5 minutes

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79
Q

What should be done after injection of semen?

A

walk for 5 minutes

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80
Q

What is the best type of semen?

A

undiluted, fresh semen used immediately

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81
Q

When is refrigerated extended semen best?

A

if used within 25-48 hours

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82
Q

What are some extenders for semen?

A

lactose, glycerin, egg yolk extender

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83
Q

What do serum progesterone levels rise to on the day of LH surge?

A

from <1ng/ml to 1.5 to 2ng/ml

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84
Q

What continues to rise during diestrus and pregnancy?

A

progesterone

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85
Q

When does ovulation occur?

A

2 days after LH surge

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86
Q

How should a progesterone test be ran?

A

at room temp

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87
Q

What is done with the blood for a progesterone test?

A

blood allowed to clot in refrigerator, serum separated within 20 minutes of collection

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88
Q

What happens if the blood is serum separated after more than 20 minutes?

A

rbcs bind to progesterone, results in artificially low progesterone

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89
Q

What can interfere with a progesterone test?

A

hemolysis and lipemia

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90
Q

Can frozen serum be used in a progesterone test?

A

yes, warm to room temp first

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91
Q

What should still be monitored post-breeding?

A

vaginal cytology

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92
Q

When does diestrus occur?

A

8 days after LH peak or 6 days after ovulation

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93
Q

What is the best way to estimate day of ovulation and period of peak fertility?

A

progesterone test

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94
Q

Why can a progesterone test estimate day of initial rise in progesterone even if a day of testing is missed?

A

because progesterone continues to rise during diestrus or pregnancy

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95
Q

What test does not give a precise prediction of ovulation?

A

vaginal cytology

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96
Q

What must be tested daily to know when ovulation occurs?

A

LH serum

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97
Q

How long does LH peak last?

A

one day

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98
Q

What are some reasons we do vaginal cultures?

A

vaginitis, post parturient discharge, discharges during pregnancy, postabortion discharge, prebreeding in normal or infertile bitches

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99
Q

How can you diagnose pregnancy?

A

palpation, ultrasound, radiography, assay relaxin

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100
Q

When is the best time to do an ultrasound?

A

after approximately day 20 post diestrus

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101
Q

When is the best time to diagnose pregnancy with radiology?

A

after day 45 post diestrus

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102
Q

What is the gestation length?

A

57 to 58 days from diestrus

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103
Q

What is the first stage of partition?

A

nesting

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104
Q

How long does nesting take?

A

6-12 hours up to 36 hours

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105
Q

What happenings during nesting?

A

dilation of cervix, rectal temp drops 1-2 degrees to 99 degrees

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106
Q

What is stage 2 of parturition?

A

abdominal contractions-delivery of fetus

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107
Q

What is the maximum time between delivery of pups?

A

2 hours

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108
Q

No pup in 30 minutes means what?

A

dystocia

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109
Q

What is the maximum delivery time?

A

12 hours

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110
Q

Blackish green discharge during stage 2 of parturition is what?

A

normal

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111
Q

What is stage 3 of parturition?

A

expel placentas

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112
Q

When should placentas be expelled?

A

within 12 hours

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113
Q

What kind of discharge is normal postpartum?

A

nonodorous for 8-10 weeks

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114
Q

Postpartum discharge of 12 weeks or more indicates what?

A

sub involution of placental sites

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115
Q

How do you treat sub involution of placental sites?

A

treat medically, surgically, conservative

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116
Q

Crying/whining pups indicate what?

A

bitch has problems (pups are hungry or sick)

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117
Q

What indicates metritis?

A

foul smelling vaginal discharge

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118
Q

What indicates retained placenta?

A

green discharge

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119
Q

What indicated mastitis?

A

fever, lethargy, swollen mammary glands, discolored glands

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120
Q

When should you hand feed or supplement pups?

A

often with metritis or mastitis

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121
Q

What indicates eclampsia?

A

tremors, excitation

122
Q

How do you treat eclampsia?

A

calcium

123
Q

All bitches have an elevated what whether they’re pregnant or not?

A

serum progresterone

124
Q

As progesterone declines at end of diestrus, many non-pregnant bitches will have what?

A

mammary development, lactation, maternal behavior

125
Q

What kind of hormonal treatment can be used in pseudopregnancy?

A

cabergoline and mibolerone

126
Q

What can NOT be used as a hormonal treatment for pseudopregnancy?

A

megestrolscetate

127
Q

Pyometra usually occurs in who?

A

older females

128
Q

When do pyometras occur?

A

diestrus

129
Q

What is pyometra associated with?

A

pseudopregnancy, recent breeding, recent heat cycle

130
Q

What are signs of pyometra?

A

lethargic, depressed, febrile, PU/PD, Leukocytosis on CBC

131
Q

How do you treat pyometra?

A

surgery Ovarian Hysterectomy

132
Q

How does mismating happen?

A

when bred accidentally or escaped during estrus

133
Q

What are some options for mismating?

A

OVH, allow to carry litter and whelp, wait until pregnancy can be diagnosed and then treat

134
Q

What does Brucellosis cause?

A

abortion and infertility

135
Q

How is brucellosis spread?

A

venereal and oronasal routes, spread in infected male urine and semen, aborted material

136
Q

What is the treatment of brucellosis?

A

no treatment 100%

137
Q

What antibodies can cause a false positive brucellosis test?

A

pseudomonas aeruginose, bordetella bronchiseptica, staphylococcus spp

138
Q

What breed of dog has an exceptionally high false positive brucellosis rate?

A

english sheepdogs

139
Q

A negative brucellosis result is highly accurate unless what?

A

infection is recent or the animal is chronically infected and recently treated with antibiotic

140
Q

What is required for LH surge in felines?

A

vaginal stimulation

141
Q

How long is gestation in felines post-mating?

A

63-66 days

142
Q

A queen may ovulate but what?

A

not become pregnant or become pregnant

143
Q

Most feline estrous cycles occur during the what?

A

spring

144
Q

Indoor cats may cycle when?

A

all year long

145
Q

How long is proestrus in cats?

A

1-3 days long

146
Q

How long is estrus in cats?

A

8-10 days

147
Q

How long is anestrus in cats?

A

2-6 weeks

148
Q

Cats receiving rbcs must be what?

A

cross matched

149
Q

Dogs receiving first time rbcs should be what?

A

cross matched

150
Q

Compatibility is not linked to what?

A

blood type

151
Q

Blood of the same type can be what?

A

incompatible

152
Q

Blood typing uses what?

A

rbc surface antigens

153
Q

Positive blood typing test means what?

A

they have the blood antigen

154
Q

Negative blood typing test means what?

A

they do not have the blood antigen

155
Q

If antibodies are present when two blood types are mixed what can occur?

A

reactions

156
Q

What kind of reactions can occur if antibodies are present when two blood types are mixed?

A

mild to severe and potentially fatal

157
Q

Most cats have what to foreign blood types?

A

natural preexisting antibodies

158
Q

Many dogs do not what to foreign blood types?

A

preexisting antibodies

159
Q

Most dogs tolerate a first transfusion but will make what within 7 days?

A

antibodies to incompatible blood

160
Q

What are the three blood types in cats?

A

A, B, AB

161
Q

Most cats are what blood type?

A

A

162
Q

Which blood type is uncommon in cats?

A

B

163
Q

Which blood type is rare in cats?

A

AB

164
Q

Blood types in cats vary by what?

A

geographic regions and breeds

165
Q

What percentage of cats are type A in the U.S.?

A

90%

166
Q

What blood type is more common in certain purebreeds?

A

B

167
Q

Which purebreds is type B more common?

A

Persian, Abyssinian, Himalayans, British Shorthair

168
Q

Blood type A may have what?

A

low level natural preexisting antibodies against type B antigens

169
Q

Giving type B blood to a type A cat may result in what?

A

mild transfusion reaction on 1st transfusion

170
Q

In cats, which blood type ALWAYS have naturally occurring high antibody titers against type A blood antigens?

A

B

171
Q

Giving type A blood to type B cat results in what?

A

rapid, severe, potentially fatal allergic reaction

172
Q

Blood type AB cats express what?

A

antigens from both blood groups on surface of their rbcs

173
Q

Blood type AB cats do not develop what?

A

antibodies against either blood group

174
Q

Type AB cats can receive transfusions from who?

A

any feline donor

175
Q

With cats what is a must before first transfusion?

A

crossmatch

176
Q

What type of system is used in blood typing dogs?

A

DEA (Dog Erythrocyte Antigen)

177
Q

How many DEA types are there?

A

10

178
Q

Most clinically significant transfusion reactions associated with what?

A

DEA 1.1 and 1.2

179
Q

Which DEA is most antigenic blood type?

A

DEA 1.1

180
Q

Blood donors for dogs are ideally what?

A

DEA 1.1 negative

181
Q

DEA 4+ means what?

A

universal

182
Q

Natural antibodies to DEA 7 do what?

A

occur

183
Q

DEA 7 causes what kind of reaction?

A

fever only

184
Q

Do you need to do a cross match before first transfusion in dogs?

A

you should but you can get away with not doing one

185
Q

Do you need to do a cross match before second transfusion in dogs?

A

yes, a MUST

186
Q

What is the cause of death in kittens borne to type B mothers?

A

neonatal isoerythrolysis

187
Q

Type B mothers have strong what?

A

anti-A antibody titers

188
Q

Antibodies are absorbed by colostrum by nursing kittens and then do what?

A

attack blood cells of type A or type AB kittens

189
Q

What are the symptoms of Fading Kitten Syndrome?

A

severe hemolytic anemia, jaundice within first 2 days of life, necrotic tail tip that falls off at 10 to 14 days of life

190
Q

What should be done with type A kittens with type B mother?

A

foster them the first 24 hours of life with a type A queen or hand-raise and give supportive care as fluids, colostrum free of antibodies

191
Q

When should type A kittens be returned to their mother?

A

day 2 of life

192
Q

How is foal neonatal isoerythrolysis contracted?

A

ingestion of colostrum containing antibodies to one of the neonate’s blood group antigens

193
Q

Maternal antibodies develop to specific blood group antigens during what?

A

previous pregnancies and unmatched transfusions

194
Q

Horses usually have what antigens?

A

A, C, and Q

195
Q

A, C, Q antigens are most common in what?

A

thouroughbreds and mules

196
Q

Horses with neonatal isoerythrolysis are normal at birth but develop what within 2-3 days?

A

severe hemolytic anemia and become icteric

197
Q

How can you diagnose neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

screen maternal serum, plasma or colostrum against paternal or neonatal RC

198
Q

How can you treat neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

stop any colostrum while giving supportive care with transfusions

199
Q

If necessary, neonates with neonatal isoerythrolysis can be transfused with what?

A

triple-washed maternal rbc

200
Q

What should be avoided with neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

withholding maternal colostrum

201
Q

How can you test for neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

mix newborn rbcs with maternal serum to look for agglutination before the newborn is allowed to nurse

202
Q

Transfusion reactions may occur even when animals are what?

A

administered blood of a compatible type

203
Q

Cross match is used for what?

A

to further document compatibility between blood donor and recipient

204
Q

What do you check for when doing a cross match?

A

hemolysis, macro agglutination, micro agglutination

205
Q

How do you check for hemolysis in a cross match test?

A

spin sample and look for evidence in the plasma protein

206
Q

How do check for macro agglutination in a cross match test?

A

resuspend centrifuged sample and look for agglutination “clumps”

207
Q

How do you check for micro agglutination in a cross match test?

A

look under microscope for microscopic clumps

208
Q

Agglutination false-positive and false-negative reactions occur in who?

A

horses

209
Q

Why do agglutination false positives and false negatives occur in horses?

A

due to spontaneous rouleaux formation

210
Q

What is a cross match test by kit like?

A

gel diffusion test with several steps done to prepare the cells and plasma/serum prior to placing in the gel column tubes

211
Q

What is the positive control in the cross match test kit?

A

tube with red bordered label

212
Q

What is the negative control in the cross match test kit?

A

tube with green bordered label

213
Q

A positive cross match test means what?

A

a reaction occurred= do not transfuse using this donor

214
Q

A negative cross match test means what?

A

no reaction occurred=okay to transfuse using this donor

215
Q

What happens in a positive cross match test?

A

majority of rbcs at or near top of gel column

216
Q

Do in house gel kits test for hemolysis?

A

no, only for agglutination or clumping

217
Q

What is immune mediated hemorrhagic anemia?

A

agglutination of patient rbcs occurs spontaneously

218
Q

What makes interpretation of crossmatch nearly impossible?

A

immune mediated hemorrhagic anemia

219
Q

In a major cross match, donor cells are mixed with what?

A

recipient plasma

220
Q

In a minor cross match, recipient cells are mixed with what?

A

donor plasma

221
Q

How much is a unit of blood in a cat?

A

50 ml

222
Q

What is a unit of blood in a dog?

A

450ml

223
Q

Transfusion is almost always what?

A

a symptomatic therapy

224
Q

What is whole blood?

A

all components, minimal processing, easy for practice

225
Q

How long is fresh whole blood good?

A

6 hours

226
Q

What does fresh whole blood contain?

A

rbcs, plasma, clotting factors 5 and 8 and von willibrands

227
Q

How long is stored whole blood good for?

A

older than 6 hours

228
Q

What does stored whole blood contain?

A

decreased platelets, 5 and 8 and von willibrands are gone

229
Q

What is plasma used for?

A

known or anticipated coagulation abnormalities as rodenticide ingestion

230
Q

When is FFP frozen?

A

within 6 hours of collection

231
Q

What does FFP contain?

A

all clotting factors plus albumin and globulin proteins

232
Q

How long is FFP good for?

A

up to 1 year in regular freezer temps

233
Q

When is FP frozen?

A

after 6 hours of collection

234
Q

What does FP lose?

A

some of the unstable clotting factors

235
Q

What does FP contain?

A

majority of clotting factors including fit K dependent factors and albumin and globin

236
Q

What are the benefits of blood component therapy?

A

extend useful life of blood donations, use in more patients, reduce risk of transfusion reaction

237
Q

Why does blood component therapy reduce risk of reactions?

A

because separated blood components contain less reactive substances and fewer antigens

238
Q

What are some signs indicating need of transfusion?

A

weakness, malaise, tachycardia, tachypnea, syncope

239
Q

Acute anemia patients may need what?

A

blood at a higher hematocrit compared to chronic anemia patient

240
Q

1ml/lb of whole blood in dogs does what?

A

raises the patent hematocrit by 1%

241
Q

How much blood should you give a cat?

A

1 unit of whole and reassess after each transfusion

242
Q

How much plasma should you give to dogs and cats?

A

15-20ml/kg

243
Q

Is there a limit to amount or number of transfusions?

A

no maximum limit to blood or blood products given

244
Q

Repetitive blood or plasma transfusion raises what?

A

risk of side effects

245
Q

What rate of transfusion should you use?

A

start slow, 0.5-1ml/kg/hr

246
Q

When should you finish a transfusion?

A

in 4-6 hours

247
Q

Why should you finish a transfusion in 4-6 hours?

A

to prevent chances of contaminant bacterial growth

248
Q

What should be taken every 15 minutes at start of transfusion for first hour?

A

TPR

249
Q

If there is no reaction to transfusion the maximum rate is what?

A

5ml/kg/hr

250
Q

If you increase the rate of transfusion how often should you check TPR?

A

every hour

251
Q

What is the standard drip chamber for transfusion?

A

15ggt/ml

252
Q

If patients fever is 104-105 degrees F what should you do?

A

stop transfusion, treat with antihistamines, corticosteroids, begin transfusion at slower rate

253
Q

At the end of transfusion what should you do?

A

reassess patients hematocrit and TP after fluid and rbc volumes have been fully distributed

254
Q

When should hematocrit and TP be assessed?

A

usually 30 minutes to an hour after the end of transfusion

255
Q

What should be done in clinics without blood bank availability?

A

maintain population of healthy, large dogs and cats owned by vets, staff and informed clients

256
Q

What is a normal temp for a dog?

A

100-102.5

257
Q

What is a normal pulse for a dog?

A

70-160bpm

258
Q

What is a normal respiration for a dog?

A

10-30bpm

259
Q

What is normal temp for a cat?

A

100-102.5

260
Q

What is a normal pulse for a cat?

A

160-240bpm

261
Q

What is a normal respiration for a cat?

A

20-30 bpm

262
Q

Benefits of Omega 3 Fatty acids in patients include what?

A

Anti-inflammatory and Anti-arrhythmic effects

263
Q

Dietary fat can have positive affects on which functions?

A

Immune, inflammation, and hemodynamics

264
Q

Essential fatty acids can or cannot be synthesized by dogs and cats?

A

cannot

265
Q

Omega 3 fatty acids are responsible for what?

A

brain function, skin health, and cell membrane fluidity

266
Q

Omega 3 and Omega 6 fatty acids do not compete for enzymes required for metabolism, true or false?

A

false

267
Q

Dietary fats are what?

A

the most concentrated form of energy in pet foods

268
Q

Heart failure patients have a deficiency of plasma DHA and EPA, true or false?

A

true

269
Q

Recommended dose for EPA?

A

40mg/kg

270
Q

Recommended dose for DHA?

A

25mg/kg

271
Q

Peak plasma concentration of Omega’s can be achieved after how many weeks of supplementation?

A

4-6 weeks

272
Q

Nutritional goals that should be considered when managing cardiac patients include what?

A

ideal body condition, appropriate balance of nutrients, pharmacologic doses of specific nutrients

273
Q

Risks for recumbent or neurologic patients include what?

A

chronic pain, decubital ulcers, self-inflicted trauma

274
Q

Why is Passive Range of Motion important for the recumbent patient?

A

to maintain joint lubrication, cartilage nutrition and positional awareness through mechanoreceptor stimulation and improves extensibility of the soft tissues such as muscle and the joint capsule so helps to prevent contracture

275
Q

How often should a pain score be recorded for these in hospital patients?

A

every time the patient is handled

276
Q

Decubital ulcers take weeks to develop, true or false?

A

false

277
Q

Bladder overflow means what?

A

inability to urinate voluntarily where the bladder remains large, palpable and needs to be manually expressed or have a urinary catheter in place

278
Q

Depression and lethargy can be alleviated by providing the patient with what?

A

environmental enrichment

279
Q

Range of Motion exercises can be performed on any patient at any time, true or false?

A

true

280
Q

What is the purpose of assisted standing exercises?

A

to encourage neuromuscular function, develop strength and stamina of supporting postural muscles and enhance proprioception

281
Q

Types of transitions for rehab patients includes what?

A

lateral to sternal recumbency, sternal recumbency to sit, sit to stand

282
Q

All slings made for assisted walking are expensive and clients must be made aware of this cost, true or false?

A

false

283
Q

Having what kind of parameters makes it easier to detect changes in patient vitals?

A

baseline

284
Q

Patient temperature may elevate in response to a transfusion reaction, true or false?

A

true

285
Q

Capillary refill time is an indication of what?

A

vascular perfusion

286
Q

Pulse deficits can be detected using what?

A

stethoscope

287
Q

One risk of transfusion a patient too fast is what?

A

tachycardia

288
Q

As long as patient parameters are within normal limits, changes in patient cognition or levels of alertness should not be reported to the technician or veterinarian, true or false?

A

false

289
Q

As long as all precautions are taken prior to administration, transfusion reactions will not occur, true or false?

A

false

290
Q

Training on equipment required to be used during transfusion should occur when?

A

before transfusing patients

291
Q

It is considered safe to administer other medications at the same time as blood and blood products, true or false?

A

true

292
Q

Transfusion reactions can be detected early with close monitoring, true or false?

A

true

293
Q

Von Willebrand Disease is caused by what?

A

the lack of a functional plasma protein, vWF

294
Q

Von Willebrand Factor does what?

A

facilitates the formation of a platelet plug by creating a bridge between platelets and injured blood vessels

295
Q

Which of the following breeds of dogs are most likely to be affected by Type 1 vWD?

A

Doberman Pinscher, German Shepherd, Golden Retriever

296
Q

Genetic testing for vWD in dogs is what?

A

accomplished through the submission of a cheek swab or blood sample to an outside laboratory

297
Q

What test results would most likely indicate Type 1 vWD?

A

prolonged BMBT, normal platelet numbers, vWD:Ag of 10%

298
Q

The blood component that contains the highest amount of vWF per millimeter is what?

A

plasma

299
Q

DDAVP may be most useful in what?

A

Type 1 vWD

300
Q

Veterinary Technicians can assist patients with vWD by what?

A

using standard techniques of sample collection, such as cystocentesis and jugular venipuncture

Nursing II (5 decks)

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