Final Flashcards
(579 cards)
1
Q
Not all abscess contents is the same. In rabbits, snake and iguanas the exudate will be what?
A
caseous/inspissated
2
Q
The most important principle of abscess treatment is what?
A
drainage
3
Q
In general, abscesses are allowed to close on their own and not sutured close. This type of healing is termed what?
A
second intention
4
Q
Each drain should exit via how many holes?
A
1
5
Q
A drain should exit so that drainage material will flow in what kind of direction?
A
dependent
6
Q
Abscesses are characterized by what kind of fever before they open?
A
high
7
Q
What size needle is used to administer SQ fluids in a dog or cat?
A
18g
8
Q
What site is best for administration of SQ fluids?
A
behind the neck, over the shoulders
9
Q
How does the site feel immediately after administration of SQ fluids?
A
firm swelling
10
Q
What is done when the needle is withdrawn after giving SQ fluids?
A
pinch the puncture site closed for 60 seconds
11
Q
How does one determine that no more fluids can be given in one site SQ and it is time to move to a second site?
A
a firm swelling exists and the animal has become uncomfortable
12
Q
Calculated fluid rates are only a starting point, an estimate of need. Animals receiving fluid therapy must be closely monitored for both dehydration and fluid overload, true or false?
A
true
13
Q
What type of drip set should be used for dogs over 20#?
A
macro drip
14
Q
When initially setting up the IV drip set, for what reason does one let fluid run through the entire line?
A
to remove air from the line
15
Q
What is the purpose of the “stress loop” or “tension release loop” placed in the IV line when delivering IV fluids?
A
protect the catheter from pulling out
16
Q
In the critical patient, a full blood volume of fluids may be delivered. What time period are you planning for?
A
60 minutes
17
Q
To treat a sick patient that is not yet critical, over what period of time do you plan to deliver fluids?
A
24 hours
18
Q
What is the theory behind giving 80% of the fluid calculated to correct dehydration rather than 100%?
A
avoid increasing kidney loss
19
Q
What type of prep is performed for IV catheter placement?
A
sterile prep
20
Q
When is a jugular catheter preferred over a peripheral vein?
A
administer nutrition, fluids/drugs of high osmolality, when administering drugs known to cause phlebitis, and measure CVP, frequent blood sampling, angiocardiopathy
21
Q
A dehydrated patient will receive fluids. What is the best initial route?
A
IV
22
Q
Why is SQ delivery of fluids potentially inappropriate in a dehydrated patient?
A
peripheral vasoconstriction
23
Q
For cephalic and saphenous venous catheterization, what type catheter are we using?
A
over the needle
24
Q
What are the signs to watch for when monitoring a catheter for infection and deciding if it is time to move to a new site?
A
redness, swelling, pain to catheter entry site
25
How does one tell if a catheter is patent?
lower IV bag, blood enters the line, hold off vein, aspirate blood from catheter, test flush with heparin saline, plus vein will bulge a small amount.
26
To make 100 ml of heparinized saline follow what process?
500 U heparin per 100 ml of saline
27
Which catheter can be left in place longer?
jugular
28
If possible, what is the safest, easiest and preferred route by which to correct a fluid deficit?
PO
29
Fluid that accumulates outside of vessels and also outside of cells is found in this fluid compartment?
extravascular fluid compartment
30
What does D5W mean?
5% dextrose in water
31
The dextrose in D5W is actually what?
glucose
32
Rapidly metabolized into CO2+H2O describes what fluid?
dextrose
33
A crystalloid solution contains what component
sodium and other salts
34
In general, crystalloid solutions are usually what this tonicity when administered?
isotonic
35
Which of the below solutions is isotonic?
0.9% saline solution
36
What is the difference between Ringer's solution and Lactated Ringer's solution
lactated ringer's contains a buffer
37
What is the purpose of a buffered solution?
buffer supplies bicarbonate when metabolized
38
In what situation is a buffered solution felt to be desirable?
metabolic acidosis
39
It is possible for an animal to use a non-buffered solution to adjust its internal electrolyte levels?
yes
40
Colloid solutions contain these particles
large
41
What are some colloid solutions?
frozen plasma, albumin, whole blood, dextrans
42
Of the solutions discussed, which will stay in the intravascular space a longer time?
colloid
43
Of the solutions discussed which will support blood volume and blood pressure, expanding peripheral blood flow for a longer time?
colloid
44
How is the IV line placed in the fluid pump?
with no tension, set the IV tubing in holding clips within the opened pump
45
"Pri Rate" or "Primary rate" on the pump button means what?
fluid rate in ml/hr
46
On a pump with the ability to handle two IV lines/two patients at the same time, how does one determine which pump is active/on?
a light comes on for the active side
47
VTBI means what?
volume out of the current bag that is to be infused
48
Which blood vessels may be used for catheter placement to monitor CVP?
right jugular, either femoral vein
49
Where is manometer positioned for CVP reading?
sternum, at the manubrium
50
When replacing fluids in a dehydrated patient, what CVP measurement indicates successful fluid replacement?
15 cm
51
Signs of fluid overload include what?
increased respiratory rate/effort, harsh lung sounds, clear nasal discharge, chemosis
52
A dogs body weight is made up of how much water?
60%
53
Which of the following fluids should never be administered SQ?
5% dextrose in water
54
Isotonic solutions do not cause what?
extensive movement of H2O into or out of the cell. Have the same osmotic pressure as plasma
55
Calculate HR on a strip. Paper speed is 50 and there are seven complexes within the counting area.
7x20=140bpm
56
Complexes are very close together. How is this corrected?
increase paper speed
57
The P wave is changing height. What is this and is it a problem?
wandering pacemaker. Not a problem
58
An EKG is read on a cat. R-R interval is inconsistent and varies more than 10% from the average. This is identified as a sinus arrhythmia. Is this normal or abnormal?
abnormal
59
T wave is usually positive in the lead normally read at a practice. It started positive but is now negative. What does this represent?
hypoxia
60
Syncope is associated with some heart abnormalities. What is syncope?
fainting
61
Six ventricular premature contractions appear in a row. What is this?
ventricular tachycardia
62
An EKG is being performed on cat. The complexes are impossible to read because they are small. Settings are paper speed 25mm/sec and amplitude 1. What can be done to achieve a larger complex?
change sensitivity to 2
63
The most common lead used in veterinary medicine is what?
Lead II
64
Which side should an animal lie on for an EKG?
right lateral recumbency
65
What can interfere with an EKG measurement?
metal, loose/dirty clips and nearby electrical equipment
66
Electrical impulses from the sinus nose to AV node of the heart is represented by what wave?
P wave
67
In order to get a proper wave form EKG to record and place a paper strip on a reporting form in a chart, you should record for at least how long?
1-2 minutes, 12-18 feet of strip
68
The time period while the conduction pathway of the heart reestablishes its electrical gradient so that the next electrical impulse and heart muscle contraction can occur is called what?
repolarization
69
What is used to improve conduction between the contracts and the skin of the animal?
conduction gel, soap/alcohol mix, alcohol
70
What information is listed on the strip, either manually or electronically?
date, VT initials, patient, paper speed, amplitude
71
Which wave represents depolarization of the ventricle?
QRS
72
In what species can a sinus arrhythmia be normal?
canine
73
Hidden periodontal disease is often indicated if what?
if the paroles is within the gingiva
74
Periodontal disease is caused by what?
a sub gingival biofilm
75
What is a sub gingival biofilm?
an adherent bacterial community living in an expolysaccharide matrix
76
What do subgingival biofilm result in?
loss of attachment of the periodontium
77
If parulis is within the oral mucosa, it is likely caused by what?
endodontic disease
78
What may be an option for parulis caused by endodontic disease?
root canal
79
Feline tooth resorption affects how many?
27 to 72% of all domestic cats
80
Cats rarely exhibit what with tooth resorption?
overt signs of oral pain
81
Tooth resorption may be so painful that patients become what?
hyporexic or anorexic, drop food, have exaggerated jaw movements, abruptly stop eating, and paw at the face while eating and drinking
82
How do tooth resorption lesions start?
subgingivally
83
Since tooth resorption lesions start subgingivally what may be missed?
subtle lesions at the free gingival margin
84
A maxillary extra oral draining tract rostral to the eye is most commonly associated with what?
chronic infection or a maxillary premolar or molar tooth
85
Both periodontal and endodontic infections can result in what?
maxillary draining tracts
86
The infected tooth in maxillary draining tracts can be identified with what?
general Ax, oral exam, periodontal probing, radiographs
87
What do you take radiographs of when identifying the infected tooth in maxillary draining tracts?
maxillary regional dentition on the ipsilateral side of the draining tracts
88
What other radiographs should you take in the case of maxillary draining tracts for comparison?
contralateral side
89
The more common age-related periodontal disease and aggressive periodontal should not be mistaken for what?
less common, true immune-dysregulated stomatitis
90
True immune-deregulated stomatitis has a component of what?
caudal muscositis
91
Treatment for stomatitis is what?
very different depending on Dx
92
What is the treatment for periodontal disease?
extraction often
93
What is the treatment for immune-dysregulated?
corticosteroids and antibiotics
94
General Ax, oral exam with periodontal probing, and full-mouth intraoral radiographs are necessary for what?
to differentiate the diseases of the mouth
95
What is periodontal disease?
infection between teeth and gums
96
What is Halitosis?
bad breath
97
What is gingival hyperplasia?
gum growth covering part or all of the tooth
98
What are some general causes of canine dental disease?
daily plaque accumulation, tartar, bacterial growth between the teeth or infected gums
99
What are some causes of orthodontic diseases?
inherited, failure of deciduous teeth to resorb
100
How do you treat canine dental disease in the clinic?
dental scaling and polishing under Ax, gum Sx and/or tooth extraction, medical management and/or locally applied antimicrobials
101
What are some at home options to treat canine dental disease?
twice daily tooth brushing and use of dental wipes, feeding VOHC-accepted diet
102
How can you prevent canine dental disease?
dental diets, treats, water additives, gels, toothpastes, twice daily home care, VOHC-accepted plaque and calculus control products
103
What is VOCH?
veterinary oral health council
104
What is the bottom line when it comes to canine dental disease?
twice daily attention to plaque control, semiannual exams, professional cleaning
105
Small animal dentistry is important to what?
organ health (kidneys, liver, lungs, heart)
106
Which organ is damaged the most by bacteremia from periodontal disease?
kidneys
107
What structure is wider when young?
pulp canal
108
What structure is narrower when old?
pulp canal
109
101 on a dental chart?
right maxilla, 1st incisor
110
201 on dental chart?
left maxilla, 1st incisor
111
301 on dental chart?
left mandible, 1st incisor
112
401 on dental chart?
right mandible, 1st incisor
113
What is right upper I1?
right upper central incisor
114
What is I2?
intermediate incisor
115
What is I3?
corner incisor
116
Which tooth is the carnassial?
maxillary 4th premolar and mandibular 1st molar
117
What does carnassial mean?
tearing of flesh
118
Which ducts empty just above the maxillary carnassial?
parotid and zygomatic salivary ducts
119
ONF?
oronasal fistula
120
TP?
treatment plan
121
ONF/R?
oronasal fistula repair
122
CR?
crown reduction
123
RC?
root canal
124
What happens during gingival recession?
gingiva attaches to CEJ via gingival fibers
125
What are the pocket depths in dogs?
0-3mm
126
What are the pocket depths in cats?
0-1mm
127
What is gingival hyperplasia?
free gingival margin migrates coronally
128
What happens during gingival hyperplasia?
increased pocket depth results
129
Where does Caries usually occur?
on occlusal surface molar teeth
130
What is Caries?
demineralization of enamel and dentin from acids produced by certain oral bacteria
131
What may look like caries but will be smooth?
chronic wear that produces "tertiary dentin"
132
What is furcation?
where roots meet at crown neck
133
What is F1?
Furcation has a slight defect
134
What is F2?
furcations defect 1/2 through between roots
135
What is F3?
furcations defect all the way through, can pass dental probe across under tooth
136
What is M0?
physiologic mobility up to 0.2mm which is normal
137
What is M1?
mobility of 0.2 up to 0.5mm
138
What is M2?
Mobility of 0.5 to 1.0mm
139
What is M3?
Any axial mobility=along the long axis of the tooth
140
What is P0?
no gum inflammation, no disease
141
What is P1?
slight gingivitis, slight tartar
142
A P1 has no what?
bone loss or attachment loss
143
P1 is what?
earliest stage of periodontal disease and is easily reversible with proper treatment
144
What is P2?
<25% bone loss, reddening may be slight
145
What is P3?
25-50% bone loss, mild periodontitis
146
What is P4?
>50% bone loss, advanced periodontitis
147
What are some signs that may indicated periodontal disease?
bad breath, flinching or pulling away from you, the lips may quiver, dogs growl, cats hiss, red swollen gums, tartar build up
148
How many deciduous teeth do dogs have?
28
149
How many permanent teeth do dogs have?
42
150
How many deciduous teeth do cats have?
26
151
How many permanent teeth do cats have?
30
152
Retained deciduous teeth prevent what?
adult teeth from moving into proper position
153
Improper position of adult teeth causes what?
wear problems and damage to surfaces of adult teeth as they rub on closing
154
Improper position of adult teeth cause what else?
palatal trauma and gum trauma
155
Retained deciduous teeth provide a place for what?
plaque to accumulate, resulting in gingivitis and dental decay
156
If adult teeth have erupted what should be gone?
deciduous teeth, if present they should be removed immediately
157
What percentage of animals over 3 years of age have periodontal disease?
80%
158
What may be present with minimal disease?
gingivitis
159
How can you detect gingivitis?
with cotton tip swab at beginning of dental
160
What is not a good indicator of gingivitis?
deep red color, comes and goes
161
What is calculus?
hardened plaque
162
What may calculus hide?
slab fracture
163
How can you tell is a fractured tooth is dead?
abnormal tooth color, explorer tip sings, catches in pulp cavity
164
How can you diagnose caries?
the explorer tip with sink/stick in the suspect area
165
If the pulp is exposed in a caries what is required?
tooth extraction or root canal
166
With chronic wear what repairs the surface?
dentin
167
How do you diagnose an abscessed tooth?
radiograph, radiolucent area at root tip
168
What may form in an abscessed tooth?
draining tracts
169
What is Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesion also called?
neck lesions, cervical line lesions, ORL
170
What is Odontoclasic Resorptive Lesions?
Feline tooth resorption
171
What percentage of cats are affected by ORL?
64%
172
What is the cause of ORL?
unknown, Vit D levels in commercial cat food may play a role
173
ORL may only be visible with what?
radiographs
174
ORL may be hidden where?
under the gum line
175
What may be at the site of ORL?
proliferating red tissue
176
ORL can be sealed with what?
fluoride varnish
177
What may be cause for extraction in ORL?
too many lesions/tooth
178
Prevention for ORL involves what?
aggressive home care
179
ORL is associated with what?
FIV
180
What does M1 mean?
move 1mm with explorer tip
181
What does M2 mean?
move 2mm with explorer
182
In cats and small dogs it is normal for incisors to be what?
slightly mobile
183
What may also be slightly flexible in cats other than the incisors?
symphysis
184
Where is a dental elevator placed?
achieve a "perch" between the tooth and the alveolus
185
Working too fast with an elevator results in what?
fractured tooth with the root tip left in place
186
What are periosteal elevator used for?
separate the gingival attachments from the tooth crown and then to separate the periosteum from the alveolar bone
187
Periosteal elevators are used when creating what?
a flap to allow better and easier access to the tooth root
188
What is a root tip elevator used for?
to remove a root tip that has been left behind
189
Root tip elevators are used with what kind of force?
minimal
190
Where is local Ax for extraction pain relief and post-extraction placed in the maxilla?
infraorbital block in the infraorbital foramen on lateral surface maxilla
191
What do infraorbital blocks block?
all of upper arcade on blocked side
192
What do you need to watch for in infraorbital blocks in cats/bracheocephalic dogs?
for the orbit, don't insert too far and hit their eye
193
What kind of local Ax for extraction pain relief and post-extraction placed in the mandible?
mental block or mandibular block
194
Where is mental block placed in the mandible?
mental foramen rostral on mandible
195
What does the mental block block?
rostral portion of arcade on blocked side
196
Where is the mandibular block placed?
mandibular foramen caudal on medial surface
197
What does mandibular blocks block?
entire arcade on blocked side
198
What should you be aware of with mandibular blocks?
tongue chewing trauma
199
In Nebraska, the rules and regulations state a licensed vet tech may perform what?
dental extraction not requiring sectioning of a tooth or the resectioning of bone
200
Tooth elevation and extraction are permitted of single and multi-rooted teeth as long as what?
it can be done without splitting the tooth or removing bone to get to the tooth
201
In Nebraska, the rules and regulations states that the immediate supervision be what?
on the premises and in direct eyesight and hearing range of the animal
202
What is ultrasonic scaling?
a machine that used a fast vibrating tip to pulsate off debris
203
What is required for ultrasonic scaling?
anesthesia
204
Ultrasonic scaling is what?
a very effective and quick way to clean teeth
205
What are the 2 types of ultrasonic scaling?
magnetostrictive and piezoelectric
206
Which is the most common ultrasonic scaling?
magnetostrictive
207
What is a magnetostrictive?
insert that slides into the handpiece
208
What are the 2 parts of a magnetostrictive?
Magnetostrictive transducer and working end
209
What is a magnetostrictive transducer?
stack of thin nickel alloy metal strips called a metal stack
210
What is the working end of a magnetostrictive?
different shapes of blade tips
211
When should you discard a magnetostrictive?
when metal stack is bent or splayed
212
The tip of a magnetostrictive moves how?
in elliptical pattern, vibrations on all surfaces
213
The point of tip on a magnetostrictive can cause what?
damage
214
Which part of the magnetostrictive has most powerful vibrations?
face
215
The back and sides of a magentostrictive are used for what?
majority of scaling
216
What is the frequency of a magnetostrictive?
18,000-42,000 cps (18-42 kHz)
217
What is another type of magentostrictive like?
transducer is a ferrite rod and tip movement is rotational
218
What is a piezoelectric?
ceramic disks or crystals used as the transducer
219
How does the tip move on a piezoelectric?
in straight, linear movement
220
What is the vibration frequency of a piezoelectric?
25-50 kHz
221
The tip of a piezoelectric is active only on what?
the two lateral surfaces
222
Ultrasonic scalers has what at the tip when properly tuned?
fine water spray
223
Do not run the ultrasonic scaler without the water or it will do what?
overheat the attachment and ruin it
224
Ultrasonic scaler time per tooth is how long?
10-15 seconds
225
What is a polishing unit sometimes called?
motor pack
226
What are some of the attachments for a polishing unit?
burrs, cutting pieces, polishing unit
227
Can you use water with a polishing unit?
NO
228
What is the polish time per tooth?
1-3 seconds
229
How should you use a piezoelectric scaler?
last 2mm, 15 degree angle to long axis of tooth surface
230
With cats what should be used with an ultrasonic scale because it cleans the smaller teeth better?
periodontal tip
231
What kind of tip is best for heavy calculus on a ultrasonic scaler?
beaver tail
232
If an Ultrasonic scaler is applied too long what can happen?
damage of enamel
233
What can kill the tooth with an ultrasonic scaler?
heat
234
How should the tip of an ultrasonic scaler be placed?
so angles 0 to 15 degrees from long axis of the tooth
235
Polishing units should be worked at what speed?
low
236
How much pressure should be applied with a polishing unit?
just enough to flare the cup
237
Too much pressure with the polishing unit will do what?
stop the rpms and cup won't move to polish
238
Polishing units can damage the teeth how?
by generating teeth
239
When hand scaling teeth how should you work?
from gum to crown
240
Scalers are sometimes called what?
sickle scalers
241
Cross section of scalers is what?
triangular shaped
242
Scalers should only be use on what?
crown of tooth
243
How do you hold elevators?
handle in palm with index/pointer finger extended to avoid trauma to tissue if it slips
244
What does a lower number on the instrument mean?
straighter shank, work at front of mouth on incisors/canines
245
What does a larger number mean on an instrument?
curved shank, work at back of mouth on PM/M
246
Where do you grab calculus?
at apical edge and pull in coronal direction
247
What angle should the face of the instrument be?
45 and 90 degrees with tooth surface
248
When you handle, shank, blade straight what teeth are you cleaning?
rostral teeth
249
When you have the shank angled what teeth are you cleaning?
caudal teeth
250
What are curettes?
a type of scaler
251
What are curettes used for?
sub gingival scaling and root planing
252
What is the cross section on a curette?
half-moon shaped
253
What shape is the toe on a curette?
rounded
254
Where do you insert a curette?
into sulcus or pocket at 0 degrees
255
How do you angle a curette?
45 and 70 degrees
256
What happens when you angle a curette greater than 90 degrees?
will cause damage of adjacent soft tissue of underside of gum
257
Angle at which is applied to tooth is what?
adaption
258
What are the different types of cutting edges for a curette?
universal, grace, and langers
259
Universal curette cutting edges work on what?
all areas of the teeth (root and crown)
260
Universal curettes can have what kind of shanks?
straight
261
Which curette cutting edge is harder to use correctly?
gracey
262
How many cutting edges does a universal curette have?
2
263
Gracey curettes have 2 cutting edges but what?
only one is designed to use
264
How do you use a gracey curette?
with the shank perpendicular to the floor and looking at the face of the working end
265
Lateral surfaces of the gracey curette also curve which way?
left or right
266
Gracey curette can have complex curve of shank for what?
access to specific teeth
267
What is a langers curette?
combination of universal and gracey
268
What parts of each curette does a langer have?
face at 90 degrees like the universal and shanks have curves like the gracey
269
Which curettes are available with shorter length blades to use in small dogs and cats?
gracey and langers
270
Which parts of scalers should be sharpened?
both sides of the cutting edge
271
How do you angle a scaler to sharpen it?
angle instrument and stone at 100-110 degrees
272
How do you sharpen curettes?
same a scalers
273
How do you sharpen elevators and luxators?
sharpen the back surface following usual procedure
274
How is a terminal shank angled?
parallel to the long axis of the tooth during vertical scaling stroke
275
When done with a dental procedure what should be done with the instruments?
clean and sharpen scalers, curettes, elevators
276
What is the anatomy of the digestive system?
mouth, cheeks, teeth, lymphoid tissues, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, SI, LI, Cecum
277
What are the parts of the mouth?
jaws, lips, tongue, palates
278
What are the lymphoid tissues?
tonsils
279
What do the tonsils do?
monitor what goes in and try to protect
280
Esophagus is dorsal to what?
traches
281
The esophagus is located on what side of the neck?
left
282
The esophagus is the first of what in ruminants?
1st 3 of 4 "stomachs"
283
The esophagus doesn't do what?
heal well
284
Nonruminants have what kind of stomachs?
simple
285
Ruminants have what kind of stomach?
abomasum
286
What are the parts of the small intestine?
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
287
What are the accessory glands?
salivary glands, liver, pancreas
288
What is prehension?
grasping, slicing
289
What teeth are responsible for prehension?
incisor, canine
290
What is mastication?
grinding and chewing
291
Which teeth are responsible for mastication?
molars and premolars
292
What is heterodonty?
various types of teeth specialized for different aspects of prehension and mastication
293
What is scapanorhynchus?
teeth appear to have crown, root and neck of brachyodont tooth
294
What are the types of teeth?
brachyodont, radicular hypsodont, radicular hypsodont
295
What is brachyodont?
form and fully erupt
296
Who have brachyodont teeth?
most mammals
297
What is radicular hypsodont?
grows until it forms a root
298
Who has radicular hypsodont teeth?
horses
299
What is closed rooted?
no new dental tissue created after root formation
300
Radicular hypsodont teeth continuously do what?
erupt
301
What is aradicular hypsodont?
never forms a root, grows forever
302
What is open rooted?
new dental tissues continue to form for the life of the animal as tooth erupts
303
Continuous growth of the teeth can result in what?
entrapment of tongue if arcades not aligned for wear
304
Rats, mice, gerbils, and hamsters teeth are what?
cheek teeth are brachyodont but incisors are aradicular hypsodont
305
Guinea pigs, chinchilla, and rabbits teeth are what?
all teeth open rooted-grow forever
306
What sets rabbits apart from other rodents?
they have a second pair of incisors
307
What are rabbits second pair of incisors called?
peg teeth
308
Where is the crown located?
above the gum
309
Where is the root located?
below gum, in socket of bone called alveolus
310
How is the root attached?
by periodontium
311
Where is the neck of the tooth located?
at gum line
312
What is dentin?
main mass of the tooth
313
What is enamel?
hardest substance in body, covers the dentin
314
Why is dentin irreplaceable?
because the ameloblasts are lost following formation of the tooth
315
What is cementum?
covers the root of brachyodont, extends root to crown in hypsodont
316
What is the pulp?
blood and nerve supply
317
Where is the pulp located?
in the dental cavity within the dentin
318
What is the occlusal surface?
grinding surface
319
What is the medial surface?
closer to the center of the arcade
320
What is the distal surface?
away from the center of the arcade
321
What is the upper arcade?
teeth in upper jaw
322
What is the lower arcade?
teeth in lower jaw
323
What is the lingual surface?
inner surface on lower arcade
324
What is the palatal surface?
inner surface on upper arcade
325
What is the maxillary arcade?
upper arcade
326
What is the mandibular arcade?
lower arcade
327
What is the diastema?
gap in arch between the incisors and the cheek teeth
328
All domestic animals have what kind of teeth?
diphyodont
329
What is diphyodont?
develop a set of deciduous teeth that fall out and are replaced with permanent teeth
330
What is erupt?
growing teeth emerge from gums
331
Hypsodont teeth have what kind of crown?
tall and straight
332
Do hypsodont teeth have a neck?
no discernible neck
333
What rate of eruption do hypsodont teeth have?
slow
334
Which teeth are hypsodont in horses and rabbits?
incisors
335
Which teeth are hypsodont in horses and some rodents?
cheek teeth
336
Which teeth are brachyodont in ruminants?
incisors
337
Which teeth are brachyodont in rats, mice, gerbils, and hamsters?
cheek teeth
338
How many roots do incisors have?
1
339
What are central incisors called?
I1
340
What are intermediate incisors called?
I2
341
What are second intermediate incisors called?
I3
342
What are canine teeth also called?
eyeteeth, bridle teeth, tusks
343
How many roots do canine teeth have?
1
344
Which animals lack canine teeth?
cattle and sheep
345
Which animals can have well developed canine teeth?
male horses, fighting teeth
346
Which female horses have canine teeth?
most quarter horse females
347
How many roots do premolars have?
1-3
348
The first premolar is often absent in which animal?
horse
349
Which teeth are missing in cats?
PM1, upper arcade, PM1, PM2 in lower arcade
350
How many roots do molars have?
1-3
351
Molars have no what?
deciduous teeth
352
Which molar is carnassial?
lower 1st
353
How many deciduous teeth do horses have?
24
354
How many deciduous teeth do cattle have?
20
355
How many permanent teeth do horses have?
40-42
356
How many permanent teeth do cattle have?
32
357
What is I,C, P, M a formula for?
permanent teeth
358
What is Di, Dc, Dp, Dm formula for?
deciduous teeth
359
When do permanent canines erupt in dogs and cats?
in 4-6 months
360
What are capped teeth?
shell of deciduous tooth remains on top of adult tooth
361
Capped teeth occur in what animal?
horses
362
Retained deciduous teeth happen in especially who?
cats and dogs
363
What do retained deciduous teeth cause?
malposition of erupting permanent teeth and resultant rubbing causes damage to permanent teeth
364
What is the cardia and pylorus?
sphincters to control passage of food in and out
365
When duodenum is full it holds what closed?
pylorus until there is room for more food to pass it from the stomach
366
What are the parts of the glandular stomach?
cardia and pylorus
367
What do the glands of the stomach produce?
mucus, enzyme or enzyme precursors, HC1
368
What does stomach mucus do?
protects surface from acid
369
What do enzyme of enzyme precursors do?
begin fat and protein digestion in the stomach
370
What does HC1 do?
kills bacteria and activates the enzyme precursors
371
What does the inner surface of the glandular stomach look like?
smooth, slimey, rugal folds
372
The fore stomachs of the ruminant are lined with what?
stratified squamous epithelium
373
The fore stomachs of the ruminant have no what?
glands
374
In the fore stomachs of the ruminant cellulose containing food is what?
soaked and digested by microorganisms
375
What are the 3 fore stomachs?
reticulum, rumen, omasum
376
In ruminants, food mixes back and forth between what?
reticulum and the rumen
377
What happens in ruminants after the food mixes between reticulum and rumen?
passes into the omasum and then on to the abomasum
378
Where is the reticulum located?
on the left side, next to heart/diaphragm
379
The surface of the reticulum is covered with what?
intersecting ridges making small boxes, honeycomb appearance
380
Where does hardware drop in hardware disease?
reticulum
381
Where is the rumen located?
behind reticulum
382
The rumen contracts at what rate?
4x/min
383
The dorsal surface of the rumen is what?
smooth
384
The ventral surface of the rumen is what?
papillae covered
385
Where do bacteria live in the ruminant?
rumen
386
What shape is the omasum?
spherical
387
Where is the omasum located?
to the right of the rumen/reticulum
388
What do the "leaves" of the omasum do?
squeeze out water from food as it passes to the abomasum
389
Where is the abomasum located?
on right side and ventral to omasum
390
What does the abomasum resemble?
non ruminant stomach
391
What is the major job of the small intestine?
digestion and absorption
392
The small intestine is lined with what?
cells producing mucus, amylase, enzymes to activate secreted precursor enzymes
393
What is the first part of the small intestine?
duodenum
394
What is the jejunum?
coils, gathered skirt
395
What is peristalsis?
muscle contractions that move food along
396
What do longitudinal muscles do in peristalsis?
shorten and move food further down
397
What do circular muscles do in peristalsis?
segment the bowel and mix food
398
Why are villi important for absorption?
they increase the surface area for absorption
399
What viruses destroy villi?
parvovirus and coronavirus
400
Microvilli are so close together that they will not allow what?
material as large as a bacteria to enter
401
Pancreas delivers substances to what?
major, minor duodenal papilla on intestinal wall where it empties
402
What is amylase?
carbohydrate digestion
403
What is lipase?
fat digestion
404
What is bicarbonate ion?
to establish pH 8 which is best for transport, absorption and enzyme action in intestine
405
What does the liver deliver?
bile to major duodenal papilla where it empties into the small intestine
406
Bile helps what?
digest fat
407
What are the major jobs of the large intestine?
secrete mucus, water absorption
408
What causes defection in the large intestine?
distension at rectum
409
In the horse, where does cellulose digestion resulting in production of fermentation and VFA's occur?
cecum and ascending colon
410
Where are fatty acids absorbed in the horse?
in the remaining colon and provide an important energy source to the horse
411
What do the ileum and colon secrete in the horse?
sodium bicarbonate
412
What are the basic parts of the large intestine?
cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon
413
What is the ascending colon called in the cow and pig?
ansa spiralis
414
The ascending colon is the same in the pig as it is in the cow but is it what?
cone-shaped coil
415
Where the cecum extend to in the horse?
from pelvis to sternum on the midline
416
What does the cecum in the horse have?
sacculated and has fibrous bands
417
What are the parts of the ascending colon in the horse?
right ventral colon, sternal flexure, left ventral colon, pelvic flexure, left dorsal colon, diaphragmatic flexure, right dorsal colon
418
Where is the right ventral colon located?
pelvis to sternum on right side
419
Where is the sternal flexure located?
"u" turn at sternum
420
Where is the left ventral colon located?
sternum to pelvis on left side
421
Where is the pelvic flexure located?
narrow "u" turn at pelvic inlet
422
Where do impactions occur in the horse?
pelvic flexure
423
Where is the left dorsal colon located?
pelvis to sternum
424
Where is the diaphragmatic flexure located?
"u" turn at the diaphragm
425
Where is the right dorsal colon located?
sternum to pelvis on right side
426
Where is the descending colon located?
in caudal abdomen
427
What are the main salivary glands?
parotid, zygomatic, mandibluar, sublingual
428
Where is the parotid salivary gland located?
ventral to the ear
429
Where does the parotid salivary gland empty?
near upper 4th PM
430
Where is the zygomatic salivary gland located?
above upper molars
431
Where does the zygomatic salivary gland empty?
near upper 4th PM
432
Where are mandibular salivary gland located?
ventral to the parotid salivary gland
433
Where are the sublingual salivary glands located?
cranial and medial to mandibular salivary glandd and runs along the lower jaw
434
Where does the mandibular salivary gland empty?
sublingual at frenulum
435
Where does the sublingual salivary gland empty?
sublingual at frenulum
436
What are the types of secretions from salivary glands?
serous, mucous, mixed
437
What does serous secretions do?
provide fluid and neutralize acid
438
What does mucous secretions do?
protects surfaces of mucous membranes within the GI from acids used in digestion
439
Where does serous secretions come from?
parotid salivary gland
440
Where does mixed secretions come from?
mandibular and sublingual salivary glands
441
Where does mucous secretions come from?
other minor salivary glands
442
Drooling can be a sign of what?
poisoning to some drugs as HW tx, flea dips
443
Which animal will especially foam at the mouth with certain oral medications with bad tastes?
cats
444
Where is the pancreas located?
ventral to stomach and along descending duodenum
445
What is the function of the pancreas?
exocrine and endocrine
446
What is the major buffer of the pancreas?
sodium bicarbonate
447
What does sodium bicarbonate in the pancreas do?
neutralizes acid entering intestine from pyloric sphincter of stomach
448
Where does exocrine go to?
into the duodenum
449
Where does endocrine go to?
into the blood
450
Beta cells produce what?
insulin to put glucose into cells and decrease glucose blood levels
451
Alpha cells produce what?
glucagon
452
What does glucagon do?
acts on the liver to transform stored glycogen into glucose and increase glucose blood levels
453
Where is the liver located?
just caudal to the diaphragm
454
Blood supply for the liver is from the what?
portal vein and hepatic artery
455
Blood flows into each liver lobule and mixes together where?
in the sinusoids
456
Blood flows out of each liver lobule to the central vein and then to where?
hepatic vein and on to the vena cava and then to the heart
457
What is a sinusoid?
dilated channel
458
Where is the place to store bile?
gall bladder
459
When does the gall bladder empty?
when the animal eats and bile flows to duodenum through the bile duct
460
When does bile production increase?
when the animal eats
461
What are the functions of the liver?
bile production, protective, biotransformation, synthesis, and storage
462
Bile is made from what?
cholesterol
463
Bile does what to the fat in food?
emulsifies
464
What is bilirubin?
the breakdown product of hemoglobin pigment "biliverdin"
465
Bright red feces means what?
lower GI bleeding
466
Black, tarry feces means what?
upper GI bleeding
467
What does liver synthesis do to food?
processes food to produce glucose
468
What does liver synthesis do to stored carbohydrate, fat, protein?
processes it to produce glucose if needed
469
What does liver synthesis make?
plasma proteins such as albumin as well as clotting factors
470
What does liver synthesis make?
urea as waste product of protein metabolism
471
Liver storage is the second largest what?
carbohydrate reserve
472
glucose is stored in the liver as what?
glycogen
473
What is the largest carbohydrate reserve?
muscle
474
Liver is the main organ for what?
iron storage
475
What vitamins does the liver store?
A, D, E, K
476
What are the volatile fatty acids?
acetic acid, butyric acid, propionic acid
477
What is metabolism?
Sum of all energy processes in body
478
What is anabolism?
building and maintaining body tissues and storing energy
479
What is catabolism?
breaking down substances, releasing energy by breaking down ATP high energy bonds
480
What is Basal Metabolic Rate?
related to body surface area
481
When does Gluconeogenesis occur?
when glycogen stores are gone or no glucose entering cells
482
Central line-seldinger technique a multi-lumen catheter was placed. Which line is used for feeding?
pick one, label it. Only use for feeding
483
Injured and ill animals that are malnourished will have what kind of metabolic rate?
hypermetabolic
484
Undernourished patients are how many times as likely to have major surgical complications as well-nourished?
3 times
485
TPN means what?
Nutrition delivered without using the GI, usually via central vein
486
It is important to support the bowel during parenteral feeding. This means what?
providing a small portion of enteral feeding during parenteral feeding if possible and transitioning back to enteral feeding as early as possible
487
Parenteral nutrition is most often delivered via what?
central vein
488
What are some signs of hyper metabolic rate in a critical patient?
tachycardia, tachypnea, hyperglycemia, unexplained weakness, mental dullness, limb edema, cachexia: breakdown of skeletal muscle, mobilization of body fat
489
Benefits of Omega 3 Fatty Acids in patients include which of the following?
anti-inflammatory and anti-arrhythmic effects
490
Omega 3 Fatty Acids are responsible for what functions?
brain function, skin health, cell membrane fluidity
491
What causes decubitus ulcers?
pressure points, rough handling, soiled or moist skin, poor diet, scooting animal to reposition, decreased senses to area so animal so animal doesn't notice a sore and reposition itself
492
You are watching for scald at the perineum. Where are you looking?
anus
493
Occasional standing, shifting of position, turning of recumbent patient should help with both decubital sores and lung atelectasis, true or false?
true
494
Decreased respiration in a depressed patient and lying on one side a long time will result in movement of blood to the down side and collapse of small airways. The most appropriate term for what is happening to the lung is what?
lung atelectasis
495
The process of blood and fluids moving to the down side is termed what?
hypostatic congestion
496
Prevention of decubital ulcers and hypostatic congestion of lung tissue may be assisted by what?
turning the patient and assisted walking
497
Fecal soiling and urine scald cause what?
tissue damage, discomfort, and entry to bacteria
498
Urine scald may be prevented may by doing what?
cleaning, application of petroleum jelly
499
When working with a recumbent patient, flexing and extending the limbs, rotating the joints, massaging the muscles and encouraging the patient to stand or walk would all be considered what?
physical therapy
500
Bladder overflow means what?
inability to urinate voluntarily where the bladder remains large, palpable and needs to be manually expressed or have a urinary catheter in place
501
Why is Passive Range of Motion important for the recumbent patient?
to maintain joint lubrication, cartilage nutrition and positional awareness through mechanoreceptor stimulation and improves extensibility of the soft tissues such as muscle and the joint capsule so helps to prevent contracture
502
Risks for recumbent or neurologic patients can include what?
chronic pain, decubital ulcers, self-inflicted trauma
503
How often should a pain score be recorded for these in hospital patients?
every time the patient is handled
504
An esophagostomy tube would be used when what?
the animal cannot eat on its own
505
When initiating and enteral feeding plan via tube administration, the first day of food will total what?
the calories of 1/3 day of food
506
What kind of care is needed for surgically placed feeding tube exiting the neck?
change bandage, observe for infection/migration of tube, cleanse with disinfectant solution
507
Esophagostomy tube placement should always confirmed by what?
radiograph
508
While injecting food into an esophagostomy tube, the animal starts to smack its lips and gag. This indicates what?
you are feeding too fast and they are nauseous
509
It is important to rinse the feeding tube before and after feeding through it, true or false?
true
510
What can be used to unclog a feeding tube?
carbonated pop. Place a few ml in the tube
511
All feeding tubes must be checked daily for position, inflammation, function. What additional check must be done with a PEG tube?
Pressure necrosis at the exit point
512
A chest tube always tunnels through the skin over several ribs before entering the chest. This is important to avoid?
pneumothorax should the tube become dislodged
513
A second reason for tunneling the chest tube is to avoid what?
bacterial entry to chest
514
3-way stopcocks are often attached to chest tube for purposes of evacuating air or fluids. What special precaution is important?
must be closed to the chest so the tube is closed to the outside
515
When would a tracheostomy tube be needed?
bypass upper respiratory obstruction
516
How is the area around the tracheostomy tube maintained?
check frequently, keep clean and dry, apply petroleum jelly or antibiotic
517
What does tracheostomy tube maintenance entail?
removal of the inner tube, cleaning the lumen, disinfecting 10 minutes and rinsing, drying and replacing
518
What can be used to prevent respiratory secretions from macerating the skin surrounding the tracheostomy site?
petroleum jelly or antibiotic ointment
519
When autotransfusing a hemoabdomen, is heparin always needed?
no
520
Why is "packed RBC" mixed with plasma or saline to administer?
to make more fluid
521
Who has naturally occurring autoantibodies RBC's?
cats
522
Who does not need cross matching on the first transfusions?
dogs
523
Which blood type is the universal blood donor in the dog because most dogs are of this type blood?
DEA 4
524
Which dog blood has no naturally occurring alloantibodies to it?
DEA 1.1
525
Which dog blood type is ideal for a donor dog?
DEA 1.1
526
Which is the more common blood type in cats?
A
527
A major cross match tests for reaction between what?
recipient plasma and donor RBCs
528
The shelf-life of frozen plasma is what?
5 years
529
For the average cat unit of blood, how much heparin is needed?
650 U/50 ml blood
530
The most common symptom of a transfusion reaction is what?
fever
531
To monitor for transfusion reaction, how often is TPR checked at the beginning of transfusion administration?
every 15 minutes
532
How many ml are in the average dog unit of blood?
450ml
533
Which is the worst problems on first transfusion?
type B cat given A blood
534
Capillary refill time is an indication of what?
vascular perfusion
535
How does one choose the size of a blood pressure cuff?
40-60% of circumference of appendage
536
Where is a Doppler probe placed for BP measurement?
at palmar metacarpal, plantar metatarsal, tail base areas
537
Which of these defines hypotension?
less than 100 mm Hg systolic/ less than 60 mm Hg diastolic
538
Two animals arrive at the clinic at the same moment. Both owners state their animals are emergencies. What is done?
bring each into a room and begin initial exams
539
During initial exam of a progressively worsening HBC patient, distended abdomen is noted. Abdominocentesis reveals blood. The next step is to do what?
IV started and abdominal pressure bandage
540
Basic supplies contained in the crash cart should include item necessary to establish an airway, venous access, emergency drugs, and a dose chart, true or false?
true
541
Drug bottles should be well labeled and kept in specific and consistent locations within the cart to facilitate their use during an emergency, true or false?
true
542
What route is often the best route to administer fluids in critical animals?
IV
543
Calculated fluid rates are only a starting point, and animals receiving fluid therapy must be closely monitored for what?
both dehydration and fluid overload
544
Indwelling urinary catheters should be connected to a sterile and "closed" collection system. This allows for what?
hygienic urine drainage, prevention of urine scald, reduced risk of infection of the urinary tract
545
In animals with severe or persistent acidosis, ___________ therapy may be indicated. This is administered with caution to avoid "over treatment" that may result in metabolic alkalosis or unpredictable acid-base shifts. This drug dose is calculated and usually administered in parts. Close monitoring of acid-base status via repetitive venous blood gas analysis is commonly performed to evaluate treatment response.
bicarbonate
546
What would over-hydration/fluid overload look like in any patient?
swollen head and limbs, gurgling chest, blue mm
547
What could be the consequences of fluid over-load in a critical patient?
heart unable to pump against high arterial pressures or handle large input, fluid-filled lungs unable to exchange O2/CO2 properly, resulting heart hypoxia, swelling of organs as the liver or kidneys with disruption of function
548
Concerning the PaP2/FiO2 ratio where PaO2 is partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood and FiO2 is the amount of oxygen in a gas mixture, a pet with a ratio of <200 is what?
severely hypoxic
549
The normal end tidal CO2 is what?
35-45 mm Hg
550
Agonal breathing does not what?
move air and indicates impending death
551
In what order does CPR proceed according to the DOVE video?
Call for help, check pulse, start compressions, intubate, breath for patient
552
What is the desired respiratory rate during CPCR?
10 breaths per minutes
553
What is the desired compression rate during CPCR?
100-150 compressions per minute
554
This drug will increase heart rate. It is an anticholinergic agent?
atropine
555
This drug will reverse opioids in the animal's system
naloxone
556
ET intubation and ventilation with an ambulance bag in room air delivers what % O2?
21%
557
When applying artificial respirations, which phase is longer?
expiration
558
Think about ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. What is the problem?
diastole is so short there is no blood for CO
559
What is the most important word to say before using the defibrillator so that no person to harmed?
clear
560
What is never used to make contact between the patient and defibrillator paddles?
alcohol
561
Is it possible to give too much fluid volume in a critical situation?
yes
562
The prognosis for an animal that has been resuscitated following cardiopulmonary arrest is poor. Why is the brain susceptible to re-injury?
brain's intrinsic control of blood flow volume and pressure are lost
563
The prognosis for success in CPR is about 10%. How long does CPR continue before we begin to think about stopping according to McCurnin?
20 minutes
564
What is the first thing that should be done for bleeding?
direct pressure
565
Poisoning is suspected in a vomiting dog. What do you need from the client to rapidly determine what to do?
the package or sample of the poison
566
What is the first air for a bee sting?
baking soda
567
When a pet dies and the owner is ready for a new pet, selecting what is often more helpful?
a slightly different breed, gender of pet
568
To decrease the possibility of the of the excitement phase during euthanasia, what can be done?
use of a paten IV catheter, short-acting anesthetic, followed by sodium pentobarbital
569
Is it appropriate to use intracardiac or intrahepatic injection of euthanasia solution in an anesthetized animal?
yes
570
Intraperitoneal administration of euthanasia solution is appropriate when IV is not possible. Death will be what?
slower than IV
571
Where is the IV catheter placed for small snail euthanasia in which the client is present?
lateral saphenous vein
572
What is the preferred site for IV placement of drug in a large animal?
jugular vein
573
Of the euthanasia methods mentioned, which is safest for personnel?
captive bolt
574
Identify the following description: "destruction of the brain and spinal cord by thrusting a blunt needle into the vetebral canal and cranium"?
pithing
575
What is the most reliable test to estimate the day of ovulation?
progesterone hormone assay
576
When are eggs mature?
two to three days after ovulation
577
When performing artificial insemination in the female dog with semen collected on site, how is the female handled?
inseminate, rear end up 5 minutes, feather vagina 5 minutes, walk 5 minutes
578
What disease is important to test for in breeding dogs?
Brucellosis
579
Cats must be bred/stimulated to ovulate. This is called "induced ovulation", true or false?
true
