Final Flashcards
Not all abscess contents is the same. In rabbits, snake and iguanas the exudate will be what?
caseous/inspissated
The most important principle of abscess treatment is what?
drainage
In general, abscesses are allowed to close on their own and not sutured close. This type of healing is termed what?
second intention
Each drain should exit via how many holes?
1
A drain should exit so that drainage material will flow in what kind of direction?
dependent
Abscesses are characterized by what kind of fever before they open?
high
What size needle is used to administer SQ fluids in a dog or cat?
18g
What site is best for administration of SQ fluids?
behind the neck, over the shoulders
How does the site feel immediately after administration of SQ fluids?
firm swelling
What is done when the needle is withdrawn after giving SQ fluids?
pinch the puncture site closed for 60 seconds
How does one determine that no more fluids can be given in one site SQ and it is time to move to a second site?
a firm swelling exists and the animal has become uncomfortable
Calculated fluid rates are only a starting point, an estimate of need. Animals receiving fluid therapy must be closely monitored for both dehydration and fluid overload, true or false?
true
What type of drip set should be used for dogs over 20#?
macro drip
When initially setting up the IV drip set, for what reason does one let fluid run through the entire line?
to remove air from the line
What is the purpose of the “stress loop” or “tension release loop” placed in the IV line when delivering IV fluids?
protect the catheter from pulling out
In the critical patient, a full blood volume of fluids may be delivered. What time period are you planning for?
60 minutes
To treat a sick patient that is not yet critical, over what period of time do you plan to deliver fluids?
24 hours
What is the theory behind giving 80% of the fluid calculated to correct dehydration rather than 100%?
avoid increasing kidney loss
What type of prep is performed for IV catheter placement?
sterile prep
When is a jugular catheter preferred over a peripheral vein?
administer nutrition, fluids/drugs of high osmolality, when administering drugs known to cause phlebitis, and measure CVP, frequent blood sampling, angiocardiopathy
A dehydrated patient will receive fluids. What is the best initial route?
IV
Why is SQ delivery of fluids potentially inappropriate in a dehydrated patient?
peripheral vasoconstriction
For cephalic and saphenous venous catheterization, what type catheter are we using?
over the needle
What are the signs to watch for when monitoring a catheter for infection and deciding if it is time to move to a new site?
redness, swelling, pain to catheter entry site
How does one tell if a catheter is patent?
lower IV bag, blood enters the line, hold off vein, aspirate blood from catheter, test flush with heparin saline, plus vein will bulge a small amount.
To make 100 ml of heparinized saline follow what process?
500 U heparin per 100 ml of saline
Which catheter can be left in place longer?
jugular
If possible, what is the safest, easiest and preferred route by which to correct a fluid deficit?
PO
Fluid that accumulates outside of vessels and also outside of cells is found in this fluid compartment?
extravascular fluid compartment
What does D5W mean?
5% dextrose in water
The dextrose in D5W is actually what?
glucose
Rapidly metabolized into CO2+H2O describes what fluid?
dextrose
A crystalloid solution contains what component
sodium and other salts
In general, crystalloid solutions are usually what this tonicity when administered?
isotonic
Which of the below solutions is isotonic?
0.9% saline solution
What is the difference between Ringer’s solution and Lactated Ringer’s solution
lactated ringer’s contains a buffer
What is the purpose of a buffered solution?
buffer supplies bicarbonate when metabolized
In what situation is a buffered solution felt to be desirable?
metabolic acidosis
It is possible for an animal to use a non-buffered solution to adjust its internal electrolyte levels?
yes
Colloid solutions contain these particles
large
What are some colloid solutions?
frozen plasma, albumin, whole blood, dextrans
Of the solutions discussed, which will stay in the intravascular space a longer time?
colloid
Of the solutions discussed which will support blood volume and blood pressure, expanding peripheral blood flow for a longer time?
colloid
How is the IV line placed in the fluid pump?
with no tension, set the IV tubing in holding clips within the opened pump
“Pri Rate” or “Primary rate” on the pump button means what?
fluid rate in ml/hr
On a pump with the ability to handle two IV lines/two patients at the same time, how does one determine which pump is active/on?
a light comes on for the active side
VTBI means what?
volume out of the current bag that is to be infused
Which blood vessels may be used for catheter placement to monitor CVP?
right jugular, either femoral vein
Where is manometer positioned for CVP reading?
sternum, at the manubrium
When replacing fluids in a dehydrated patient, what CVP measurement indicates successful fluid replacement?
15 cm
Signs of fluid overload include what?
increased respiratory rate/effort, harsh lung sounds, clear nasal discharge, chemosis
A dogs body weight is made up of how much water?
60%
Which of the following fluids should never be administered SQ?
5% dextrose in water
Isotonic solutions do not cause what?
extensive movement of H2O into or out of the cell. Have the same osmotic pressure as plasma
Calculate HR on a strip. Paper speed is 50 and there are seven complexes within the counting area.
7x20=140bpm
Complexes are very close together. How is this corrected?
increase paper speed
The P wave is changing height. What is this and is it a problem?
wandering pacemaker. Not a problem
An EKG is read on a cat. R-R interval is inconsistent and varies more than 10% from the average. This is identified as a sinus arrhythmia. Is this normal or abnormal?
abnormal
T wave is usually positive in the lead normally read at a practice. It started positive but is now negative. What does this represent?
hypoxia
Syncope is associated with some heart abnormalities. What is syncope?
fainting
Six ventricular premature contractions appear in a row. What is this?
ventricular tachycardia
An EKG is being performed on cat. The complexes are impossible to read because they are small. Settings are paper speed 25mm/sec and amplitude 1. What can be done to achieve a larger complex?
change sensitivity to 2
The most common lead used in veterinary medicine is what?
Lead II
Which side should an animal lie on for an EKG?
right lateral recumbency
What can interfere with an EKG measurement?
metal, loose/dirty clips and nearby electrical equipment
Electrical impulses from the sinus nose to AV node of the heart is represented by what wave?
P wave
In order to get a proper wave form EKG to record and place a paper strip on a reporting form in a chart, you should record for at least how long?
1-2 minutes, 12-18 feet of strip
The time period while the conduction pathway of the heart reestablishes its electrical gradient so that the next electrical impulse and heart muscle contraction can occur is called what?
repolarization
What is used to improve conduction between the contracts and the skin of the animal?
conduction gel, soap/alcohol mix, alcohol
What information is listed on the strip, either manually or electronically?
date, VT initials, patient, paper speed, amplitude
Which wave represents depolarization of the ventricle?
QRS
In what species can a sinus arrhythmia be normal?
canine
Hidden periodontal disease is often indicated if what?
if the paroles is within the gingiva
Periodontal disease is caused by what?
a sub gingival biofilm
What is a sub gingival biofilm?
an adherent bacterial community living in an expolysaccharide matrix
What do subgingival biofilm result in?
loss of attachment of the periodontium
If parulis is within the oral mucosa, it is likely caused by what?
endodontic disease
What may be an option for parulis caused by endodontic disease?
root canal
Feline tooth resorption affects how many?
27 to 72% of all domestic cats
Cats rarely exhibit what with tooth resorption?
overt signs of oral pain
Tooth resorption may be so painful that patients become what?
hyporexic or anorexic, drop food, have exaggerated jaw movements, abruptly stop eating, and paw at the face while eating and drinking
How do tooth resorption lesions start?
subgingivally
Since tooth resorption lesions start subgingivally what may be missed?
subtle lesions at the free gingival margin
A maxillary extra oral draining tract rostral to the eye is most commonly associated with what?
chronic infection or a maxillary premolar or molar tooth
Both periodontal and endodontic infections can result in what?
maxillary draining tracts
The infected tooth in maxillary draining tracts can be identified with what?
general Ax, oral exam, periodontal probing, radiographs
What do you take radiographs of when identifying the infected tooth in maxillary draining tracts?
maxillary regional dentition on the ipsilateral side of the draining tracts
What other radiographs should you take in the case of maxillary draining tracts for comparison?
contralateral side
The more common age-related periodontal disease and aggressive periodontal should not be mistaken for what?
less common, true immune-dysregulated stomatitis
True immune-deregulated stomatitis has a component of what?
caudal muscositis
Treatment for stomatitis is what?
very different depending on Dx
What is the treatment for periodontal disease?
extraction often
What is the treatment for immune-dysregulated?
corticosteroids and antibiotics
General Ax, oral exam with periodontal probing, and full-mouth intraoral radiographs are necessary for what?
to differentiate the diseases of the mouth
What is periodontal disease?
infection between teeth and gums
What is Halitosis?
bad breath
What is gingival hyperplasia?
gum growth covering part or all of the tooth
What are some general causes of canine dental disease?
daily plaque accumulation, tartar, bacterial growth between the teeth or infected gums
What are some causes of orthodontic diseases?
inherited, failure of deciduous teeth to resorb
How do you treat canine dental disease in the clinic?
dental scaling and polishing under Ax, gum Sx and/or tooth extraction, medical management and/or locally applied antimicrobials
What are some at home options to treat canine dental disease?
twice daily tooth brushing and use of dental wipes, feeding VOHC-accepted diet
How can you prevent canine dental disease?
dental diets, treats, water additives, gels, toothpastes, twice daily home care, VOHC-accepted plaque and calculus control products
What is VOCH?
veterinary oral health council
What is the bottom line when it comes to canine dental disease?
twice daily attention to plaque control, semiannual exams, professional cleaning
Small animal dentistry is important to what?
organ health (kidneys, liver, lungs, heart)
Which organ is damaged the most by bacteremia from periodontal disease?
kidneys
What structure is wider when young?
pulp canal
What structure is narrower when old?
pulp canal
101 on a dental chart?
right maxilla, 1st incisor
201 on dental chart?
left maxilla, 1st incisor
301 on dental chart?
left mandible, 1st incisor
401 on dental chart?
right mandible, 1st incisor
What is right upper I1?
right upper central incisor
What is I2?
intermediate incisor
What is I3?
corner incisor
Which tooth is the carnassial?
maxillary 4th premolar and mandibular 1st molar
What does carnassial mean?
tearing of flesh
Which ducts empty just above the maxillary carnassial?
parotid and zygomatic salivary ducts
ONF?
oronasal fistula
TP?
treatment plan
ONF/R?
oronasal fistula repair
CR?
crown reduction
RC?
root canal
What happens during gingival recession?
gingiva attaches to CEJ via gingival fibers
What are the pocket depths in dogs?
0-3mm
What are the pocket depths in cats?
0-1mm
What is gingival hyperplasia?
free gingival margin migrates coronally
What happens during gingival hyperplasia?
increased pocket depth results
Where does Caries usually occur?
on occlusal surface molar teeth
What is Caries?
demineralization of enamel and dentin from acids produced by certain oral bacteria
What may look like caries but will be smooth?
chronic wear that produces “tertiary dentin”
What is furcation?
where roots meet at crown neck
What is F1?
Furcation has a slight defect
What is F2?
furcations defect 1/2 through between roots
What is F3?
furcations defect all the way through, can pass dental probe across under tooth
What is M0?
physiologic mobility up to 0.2mm which is normal
What is M1?
mobility of 0.2 up to 0.5mm
What is M2?
Mobility of 0.5 to 1.0mm
What is M3?
Any axial mobility=along the long axis of the tooth
What is P0?
no gum inflammation, no disease
What is P1?
slight gingivitis, slight tartar
A P1 has no what?
bone loss or attachment loss
P1 is what?
earliest stage of periodontal disease and is easily reversible with proper treatment
What is P2?
<25% bone loss, reddening may be slight
What is P3?
25-50% bone loss, mild periodontitis
What is P4?
> 50% bone loss, advanced periodontitis
What are some signs that may indicated periodontal disease?
bad breath, flinching or pulling away from you, the lips may quiver, dogs growl, cats hiss, red swollen gums, tartar build up
How many deciduous teeth do dogs have?
28
How many permanent teeth do dogs have?
42
How many deciduous teeth do cats have?
26
How many permanent teeth do cats have?
30
Retained deciduous teeth prevent what?
adult teeth from moving into proper position
Improper position of adult teeth causes what?
wear problems and damage to surfaces of adult teeth as they rub on closing
Improper position of adult teeth cause what else?
palatal trauma and gum trauma
Retained deciduous teeth provide a place for what?
plaque to accumulate, resulting in gingivitis and dental decay
If adult teeth have erupted what should be gone?
deciduous teeth, if present they should be removed immediately
What percentage of animals over 3 years of age have periodontal disease?
80%
What may be present with minimal disease?
gingivitis
How can you detect gingivitis?
with cotton tip swab at beginning of dental
What is not a good indicator of gingivitis?
deep red color, comes and goes
What is calculus?
hardened plaque
What may calculus hide?
slab fracture
How can you tell is a fractured tooth is dead?
abnormal tooth color, explorer tip sings, catches in pulp cavity
How can you diagnose caries?
the explorer tip with sink/stick in the suspect area
If the pulp is exposed in a caries what is required?
tooth extraction or root canal
With chronic wear what repairs the surface?
dentin
How do you diagnose an abscessed tooth?
radiograph, radiolucent area at root tip
What may form in an abscessed tooth?
draining tracts
What is Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesion also called?
neck lesions, cervical line lesions, ORL
What is Odontoclasic Resorptive Lesions?
Feline tooth resorption
What percentage of cats are affected by ORL?
64%
What is the cause of ORL?
unknown, Vit D levels in commercial cat food may play a role
ORL may only be visible with what?
radiographs
ORL may be hidden where?
under the gum line
What may be at the site of ORL?
proliferating red tissue
ORL can be sealed with what?
fluoride varnish
What may be cause for extraction in ORL?
too many lesions/tooth
Prevention for ORL involves what?
aggressive home care
ORL is associated with what?
FIV
What does M1 mean?
move 1mm with explorer tip
What does M2 mean?
move 2mm with explorer
In cats and small dogs it is normal for incisors to be what?
slightly mobile
What may also be slightly flexible in cats other than the incisors?
symphysis
Where is a dental elevator placed?
achieve a “perch” between the tooth and the alveolus
Working too fast with an elevator results in what?
fractured tooth with the root tip left in place
What are periosteal elevator used for?
separate the gingival attachments from the tooth crown and then to separate the periosteum from the alveolar bone
Periosteal elevators are used when creating what?
a flap to allow better and easier access to the tooth root
What is a root tip elevator used for?
to remove a root tip that has been left behind
Root tip elevators are used with what kind of force?
minimal
Where is local Ax for extraction pain relief and post-extraction placed in the maxilla?
infraorbital block in the infraorbital foramen on lateral surface maxilla
What do infraorbital blocks block?
all of upper arcade on blocked side
What do you need to watch for in infraorbital blocks in cats/bracheocephalic dogs?
for the orbit, don’t insert too far and hit their eye
What kind of local Ax for extraction pain relief and post-extraction placed in the mandible?
mental block or mandibular block
Where is mental block placed in the mandible?
mental foramen rostral on mandible
What does the mental block block?
rostral portion of arcade on blocked side
Where is the mandibular block placed?
mandibular foramen caudal on medial surface
What does mandibular blocks block?
entire arcade on blocked side
What should you be aware of with mandibular blocks?
tongue chewing trauma
In Nebraska, the rules and regulations state a licensed vet tech may perform what?
dental extraction not requiring sectioning of a tooth or the resectioning of bone
Tooth elevation and extraction are permitted of single and multi-rooted teeth as long as what?
it can be done without splitting the tooth or removing bone to get to the tooth
In Nebraska, the rules and regulations states that the immediate supervision be what?
on the premises and in direct eyesight and hearing range of the animal
What is ultrasonic scaling?
a machine that used a fast vibrating tip to pulsate off debris
What is required for ultrasonic scaling?
anesthesia
Ultrasonic scaling is what?
a very effective and quick way to clean teeth
What are the 2 types of ultrasonic scaling?
magnetostrictive and piezoelectric
Which is the most common ultrasonic scaling?
magnetostrictive
What is a magnetostrictive?
insert that slides into the handpiece
What are the 2 parts of a magnetostrictive?
Magnetostrictive transducer and working end
What is a magnetostrictive transducer?
stack of thin nickel alloy metal strips called a metal stack
What is the working end of a magnetostrictive?
different shapes of blade tips
When should you discard a magnetostrictive?
when metal stack is bent or splayed
The tip of a magnetostrictive moves how?
in elliptical pattern, vibrations on all surfaces
The point of tip on a magnetostrictive can cause what?
damage
Which part of the magnetostrictive has most powerful vibrations?
face
The back and sides of a magentostrictive are used for what?
majority of scaling
What is the frequency of a magnetostrictive?
18,000-42,000 cps (18-42 kHz)
What is another type of magentostrictive like?
transducer is a ferrite rod and tip movement is rotational
What is a piezoelectric?
ceramic disks or crystals used as the transducer
How does the tip move on a piezoelectric?
in straight, linear movement
What is the vibration frequency of a piezoelectric?
25-50 kHz
The tip of a piezoelectric is active only on what?
the two lateral surfaces
Ultrasonic scalers has what at the tip when properly tuned?
fine water spray
Do not run the ultrasonic scaler without the water or it will do what?
overheat the attachment and ruin it
Ultrasonic scaler time per tooth is how long?
10-15 seconds
What is a polishing unit sometimes called?
motor pack
What are some of the attachments for a polishing unit?
burrs, cutting pieces, polishing unit
Can you use water with a polishing unit?
NO
What is the polish time per tooth?
1-3 seconds
How should you use a piezoelectric scaler?
last 2mm, 15 degree angle to long axis of tooth surface
With cats what should be used with an ultrasonic scale because it cleans the smaller teeth better?
periodontal tip
What kind of tip is best for heavy calculus on a ultrasonic scaler?
beaver tail
