Test 3: Pathologies Related to the Knee Flashcards

1
Q

what is deep vein thrombosis

A

partial or complete occlusion of a vein by a clot

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2
Q

etiology of DVT

A

50% is unknown

other half involve conditions that have at least 2 of the following: venous stasis, hypercoagulability, or damage to the venous wall

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3
Q

conditions that may be more likely to produce DVT

A

prior DVT
hx of cancer/CHF/lupus
major infection/sx/trauma
chemotherapy
immobility
pregnancy
use of oral contraceptives/hormone therapy
genetic clotting disorder (i.e. Willebrand)
>60 years old

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4
Q

incidence and prevalence of DVT

A

3rd most common cardiovascular disease

most common in deep LE veins

most preventable cause of hospital related deaths

most common cause of readmissions and death after THA/TKA

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5
Q

common veins that develop DVT

A

popliteal

femoral

tibial

peroneal

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6
Q

pathogenesis of DVT

A

greater exposure of platelets and clitting factors to a damaged venous wall

fibrin, leukocytes, and erythrocytes adhere and form thrombosis

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7
Q

what could be done to prevent/treat DVT

A

early and regular exercise
anticoagulants
compression socks
intermittent pneumatic compression devices
avoid SAD
eliminate persistent smoking/drinking

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8
Q

caution with early and regular exercise for DVT

A

as a prevention it is great

be cautious/wait for anticoagulant therapy to take effect to avoid a PE from motion with treatment if a clot is already present; DO NOT WANT TO MOVE CLOT

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9
Q

what might be included in pt history if they have DVT

A

50% of individuals are asymptomatic in early stages

typically a gradual onset of a dull ache/tightness/calf pain

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10
Q

CDR for DVT include what factors

A

edema; possibly pitting in 70% of pts

increase calf girth

calf pain/tenderness in 50% of pts; worse with walking; relief lessens as condition worsens

possible redness/warmth

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11
Q

PT implications for DVT

A

referral to MD per CDR

urgent referral if <17% with less than 2 CDRs

emergency if 75% and 3 or more CDRs

do not want to miss

may lead to pulmonary embolism

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12
Q

etiology/pathogenesis of Pulmonary Embolism

A

DVT that moves and lodges into the smaller artery supplying the lungs

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13
Q

S&S of pulmonary embolism

A

often non specific… “the great masqueraders”

SOB/wheezing/rapid breathing may be only symptom

pleuritic chest pain; sudden/sharp chest pain that can be exacerbated by:
-deep inhale
-cough
-mechanical pain may occur due to lung fascia attachment to ribs/thoracic vertebrae (i.e. trunk, UE, or rib motion)

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14
Q

other/possibly less common S&S of pulmonary embolism

A

blood with cough
painful breathing at rest
fainting
tachycardia and palpitations

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15
Q

referral for PE

A

urgent of <2/6

emergency if greater than or equal to 2/6

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16
Q

what is peripheral artery disease

A

ischemia leading to symptoms in the most distal area from the blocked artery; most often on calf

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17
Q

where is peripheral artery disease most common

A

most often in LEs

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18
Q

risk factors for peripheral artery disease

A

over 45
family hx of MI or sudden death before 55
recent or current smoker
physical inactivity
metabolic syndrome

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19
Q

pathogenesis of peripheral artery disease

A

artherosclerosis or plaque build up in aa that also promotes vascular constriction thus further limiting circulation

symptoms begin once 50% of a is narrow

20
Q

S&S of intermittent claudication with peripheral artery disease

A

LE pain; most often in calf with similar amount of activity and elevated positions

can be uni or bilateral depending on where blockage is

relief with rest and dependent position

often described as cramping but may be weakness/pressure/aching

21
Q

S&S of peripheral artery disease distal to the ischemic area

A

loss of pulses
TTP
muscle atrophy/weakness
loss of hair
cool/bluish skin
bruit on auscultation
possible necrosis/wound

22
Q

how might pain act in the presence of severe ischemia

A

pain at rest

can cause sleep interruptions

23
Q

steps for ankle brachial test

A

take BP at posterior tibial a and brachial a (on both sides)

just looking at the ratio of the ankle systolic/brachial systolic

24
Q

concerning levels for ankle brachial test

A

less than 0.9 is bad

the lower the worse the dieases

over 1.4 may indicate poorly compressed vv due to hardened aa from artherosclerosis

25
Q

how to differentiate calf pain due to PAD vs stenosis

A

bicycle test

start in an upright position and then after a few minutes have them lean forward

if pain goes away with forward bend then it indicates stenosis

if it doesnt go away it can indicate the pain is from the muscles not getting enough bloodflow

26
Q

referral for peripheral artery disease

A

urgent to vascular MD

27
Q

what is osteochondritis dissecans

A

damage to subchondral bone

28
Q

incidence/prevalence of osteochondritis dissecans

A

rare

most common in younger boys through early adulthood

males > females

most common in medial femoral condyle and talus

29
Q

etiology of osteochondritis dissecans

A

mostly unknown

joint rotational or shearing trauma like a sprain

30
Q

pathogenesis of osteochondritis dissecans

A

ischemia (AVN) then separation of subchondral bone from convex and WBing end bones

overlying articular cartilage can remain viable

31
Q

clinical manifestations/S&S of osteochondritis dissecans

A

may be asymptomatic with incidental imaging

is symptomatic = persistent pain; not progressing as expected

may progress into severe pain if fragment displaces with joint locking/catching/swelling

S&S of hypermobility/instability of involved ligament but with persistent ARJC-like symptoms

32
Q

what specific S&S may occur that mimic hypermobility/instability/ARJC with osteochondritis dissecans

A

ROM limited and painful especially with ext

resisted MMT = weak/painful especially at end range ext

compression likely +

TTP over femoral condyle

33
Q

referral for osteochondritis dissecans

A

urgent

34
Q

what is reactive arthritis (aka)

A

aka Reiter’s syndrome

acute infection that is at a site remote from the primary infection (septic arthritis is infection AT SITE of primary infection)

35
Q

risk factors for reactive arthritis

A

IV drug use
high sexual activity
infrequent pelvic exams
weaker immune system

36
Q

incidence/prevalence of reactive arthritis

A

targets larger joints in the LE and primarily the knee and ankle

37
Q

etiology of reactive arthritis

A

most commonly from a respiratory infection

could also be from GI, genitourinary, and colon infections

38
Q

pathogenesis of reactive arthritis

A

bacteria stimulates antibody and protein factor production that creates inflammation and tissue damage leading to an arthritic joint

39
Q

clinical manifestations/S&S of reactive arthritis

A

begins 1-4 weeks after a recent infection

infection S&S

autoimmune S&S

may progress to incapacitating illness

40
Q

osteochondritis dissecans can take up to 2-3 years to revascularize and heal due to these stresses/stability

A

higher BMI
deficient passive restraints
M imbalances
impaired proprioception

41
Q

Why is it important to protect the joint after having osteochondritis dissecans

A

want to avoid separation of bone and articular cartilage into the joint

aka joint mouse

common at the knee

loss of joint surface congruency

42
Q

how to treat a stable osteochondritis dissecans lesion vs non stable

A

stable = non operative; smae Rx as instability/ARJC

sx required for resurfacing or fixation that is needed for unstable lesions

43
Q

observation / vitals of those with reactive arthritis

A

redness
swelling

fever

44
Q

what might you find with scan anf BE exam for reactive arthritis

A

like ARJC

TTP and warm

swollen and tender lymph nodes

45
Q

referral for reactive arthritis

A

urgent