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Anatomy & Phisiology I. > Test 3 - Integument, Bones, and Joints. > Flashcards

Test 3 - Integument, Bones, and Joints. Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different functions of the skeletal system?

A

Support, protection, movement, the production of red blood cells, the supplying and storing of important minerals.

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2
Q

What type of bone is the femur?

A

Long bone.

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3
Q

What type of bone is the frontal bone?

A

Flat.

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4
Q

What type of bone is the trapezium?

A

Short bone.

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5
Q

What type of bone is the patella?

A

Sesamoid/round.

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6
Q

What type of bone is the atlas?

A

Irregular.

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7
Q

What type of cell produces new bone tissue?

A

Osteoblasts.

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8
Q

What type of cell produces new bone cells?

A

Osteogenic cells.

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9
Q

What type of cell destroys old bone tissue?

A

Osteoclasts.

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10
Q

What type of cell maintains bone tissue?

A

Osteocytes.

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11
Q

What structures hold the periosteum to the bone?

A

Sharpeys fibers.

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12
Q

The transformation of the cartilage model into bone. Cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate grow and move into he metaphysis where they are reabsorbed and replaced by bone tissue.

A

Endochondral Ossification.

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13
Q

The formation of bone directly on or within the fibrous connective tissue.

A

Intramembraneous ossification.

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14
Q

What is the difference between intramembraneous ossification and endochondral ossification?

A

Intramembraneous ossification is the creation of bone directly on or within the fibrous connective tissues, while endochondral ossification is the growth of cartilage at the epiphyseal plate before being moved into the matphysis where it is replaced by bone tissue.

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15
Q

Where in the body does intramembranous ossification occur?

A

The flat bones of the skull, mandible and clavicle.

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16
Q

Where does endochondral ossification occur?

A

The long bones of the body. Example: humerus and femur.

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17
Q

What is Ricketts?

A

a childhood bone disorder in which bones soften and become prone to fractures and deformity.

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18
Q

Why is Ricketts not common in the US?

A

American children are typically not vitamin D or calcium deficient.

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19
Q

What are the two types of dwarfism, and how do they compare/constrast in terms of proportion?

A

The two types of dwarfism are achondroplasia and pituitary dwarfism. While both stunt the growth of an individual, achondroplasia is the result of abnormal epiphyseal activity, while pituitary dwarfism is the result of inadequate production of growth hormones.

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20
Q

Gigantism is related to one type of Dwarfism. Which one and how is it related?

A

It is most closely related to pituitary dwarfism as it is an overproduction of growth hormones - the opposite of pituitary dwarfism which is the lack of growth hormones.

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21
Q

What affect do growth hormones have in the control of bone growth and remodeling?

A

They increase the rate of mitosis.

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22
Q

What affect does thyroxine have in the control of bone growth and remodeling?

A

It increases the overall metabolism of growth hormones.

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23
Q

What affect do sex hormones have in the control of bone growth and remodeling?

A

They have an initial increase of growth rate, and later later close the growth plate which stops the rate of growth.

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24
Q

What affect does PTH have in the control of bone growth and remodeling?

A

PTH stimulates bone formation as well as absorption.

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25
Q

What affect does calcitonin have in the control of bone growth and remodeling?

A

It stimulates bone growth and decreases calcium ion concentrations.

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26
Q

What are the four steps used by the body in the healing of bone fractures?

A

1 - the bone bleeds, which causes swelling
2- An internal and external callus forms a network of spongy bone along the break,
3- The cartliedge of the external callus has been replaced by bone, and struts of spongy bone reunite the broken ends.
4- the initial swelling marks the location of the break, which eventually fades over time.

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27
Q

____ is the expanding width of a bone

A

Appositional growth.

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28
Q

What is Gigantism and how will it affect a person’s appearance?

A

Gigantism is the over production of growth hormones, and will cause a person to grow abnormally tall - at times, over 8 feet.

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29
Q

How does achondroplasia affect a persons proportions?

A

The individual will have short stocky limbs, though the trunk is normal in size.

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30
Q

How does pituitary dwarfism affect a persons proportions?

A

The hands and limbs of the body are all proportional to the trunk, however, they are abnormally short in stature.

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31
Q

What is Acromegaly and how will it affect a person’s appearance?

A

Acromegaly is the abnormal rise of growth hormones after the epiphyseal plate has closed - thus the skeleton does not grow longer, but instead the bones grow wider. The individual will typically have wider jaws, hands, and faces.

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32
Q

What bones are classified as axial?

A

The skull and vertebrae.

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33
Q

If a person breaks their hip, what bone has been broken? What part of the bone?

A

While breaking the coxal bone IS possible, it is typically the neck of the femur that has been broken.

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34
Q

What are the bones of the cranium?

A

Frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

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35
Q

What are the bones of the face?

A

Maxillary, palatine, nasal, inferior nasal concha, zygomatic, lacrimal, vomer and mandible.

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36
Q

What are the bones that create the orbits of the cranium?

A

Lacrimal, palatine, zygomatic, maxillary, frontal, and ethmoid,

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37
Q

What bones create the nasal cavity?

A

The frontal bone, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary, lacrimal, and the inferior nasal concha.

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38
Q

Bones that contain the paranasal sinuses:

A

Sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal, palatine, maxillary.

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39
Q

The one bone that does not directly articulate with another bone:

A

Hyoid.

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40
Q

Bones of the vertebral column listed superiorly to inferiorly:

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx.

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41
Q

Bones of the thorax:

A

The thoracic vertebrae, the ribs, and the sternum.

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42
Q

Bones of the pectoral girdle:

A

Clavicle and scapula.

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43
Q

Bones of the upper limb:

A

Humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges.

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44
Q

Bones of the pelvic girdle:

A

Coxal bones.

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45
Q

Bones of the lower limb:

A

Femur, patella, tibia, fibula, tarsal, metatarsal, phalanges.

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46
Q

If a person dislocates their shoulder, what bones have been disarticulated?

A

The clavicle and scapula.

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47
Q

If a person has a deviated septum, what 2 bones could possibly be deformed? What sleep disorder is related to this problem?

A

Vomer and ethmoid. Sleep apnea.

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48
Q

If a person has a cleft palate, what 4 bones may be involved? Why is this serious?

A

Palatine, maxillary,

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49
Q

When you go to the dentist to have a lower molar worked on, where does the dentist stick the needle in the mandible to deaden the nerve?

A

Mandibular foramen.

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50
Q

What is a herniated disc? What are the major problems/symptoms associated with this disorder?

A

A herniated disk occurs when the soft inner part of an intervertebral disc protrudes through a weakened or torn outer ring and pushes against a spinal nerve. The primary symptom and problem is that of pain, which can be debilitating.

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51
Q

Differentiate between Scoliosis, Kyphosis, and Lordosis

A 
Scoliosis = lateral curve.
Kyphosis = exaggerated thoracic curve.
Lordosis = exaggerated forward curvature.
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52
Q

If a person is suffering from fallen arches, what has happened?

A

The bones of the foot that form the arches are held in place by strong ligaments. When these ligaments and tendons are weakened, the height of the arch is lessened.

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53
Q

What are the three major types of abnormal spinal curvatures?

A

Scoliosis, kyphosis, and lordosis.

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54
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

A lateral bending of the vertebral common, typically found in the in the thoracic and lumbar region.

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55
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

An exaggeration of the thoracic curve of the vertebral column.

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56
Q

What is lordosis?

A

An exaggerated forward curvature of the spine

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57
Q

Which bone (or bones) is associated with the lateral malleolus?

A

Fibula

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58
Q

Which bone (or bones) is associated with the medial malleolus?

A

Tibia

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59
Q

Which bone (or bones) is associated with the styloid process? (3 bones)

A

Temporal, radius, ulna.

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60
Q

Which bone (or bones) is associated with the head and neck? (3 bones)

A

Cranial, facial, and spinal?

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61
Q

Which bone (or bones) is associated with the greater trochanter?

A

Femur.

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62
Q

Which bone (or bones) is associated with the deltoid tuberosity?

A

Humerus.

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63
Q

Which bone (or bones) is associated with the external auditory meatus?

A

Temporal.

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64
Q

Lateral bone of the forearm:

A

Radius.

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65
Q

Shin Bone:

A

Tibia.

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66
Q

Hip Bone:

A

Coxal.

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67
Q

Funny Bone:

A

Humerus.

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68
Q

Thigh Bone:

A

Femur.

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69
Q

Heel Bone:

A

Calcaneous.

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70
Q

Breast Bone:

A

Sternum.

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71
Q

Collar Bone:

A

Clavicle.

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72
Q

Which bone (or bones) is associated with the foramen magnum?

A

Occipital

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73
Q

Smooth, rounded articular process. knuckle-like projection; forms a hinge joint; allows movement in on plane only.

A

Condyle.

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74
Q

Give an example of a condyle:

A

Lateral Condyle of the femur.

75
Q

an eminence on a bone by which it articulates with another bone; he rounded proximal end of a long bone.

A

Head.

76
Q

Give an example of a bone that has a head:

A

Head of the femur.

77
Q

What bone markings help form joints?

A

Condyle, head, neck, trochlea, and facet.

78
Q

the narrowing of a bone; large to slim.

A

Neck.

79
Q

Give an example of a bone with a neck:

A

Neck of the femur.

80
Q

A smooth articular surface of bone upon which another glides; pulley.

A

Trochlea.

81
Q

Name a bone that has a trochela:

A

Humerus.

82
Q

A small smooth area on a bone or other firm structure, usually an articular surface covered in life with articular cartilage; give an example of the location.

A

Facet. EXAMPLE: articulate facet of a vertebrae.

83
Q

Shallow depression of a bone; where is this located?

A

Fossa; olecranon fossa of the humerus.

84
Q

A furrow or depression that accommodates a soft structure like blood vessels, etc; where is this located?

A

Sulcus. EXAMPLE: Intertubercular sulcus of the humerus

85
Q

An opening through which blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments pass; where is this found?

A

Foramen/canal. EXAMPLE: Foramen magnum of the occipital bone

86
Q

A narrow, cleftlike opening between adjacent parts of a bone, forming a passageway for blood vessels and nerves; where is this found?

A

Fissure. EXAMPLE: Superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid bone

87
Q

A tubelike passageway within a bone; give an example of it’s location.

A

Meatus. EXAMPLE: External auditory meatus of the temporal bone

88
Q

An airfilled cavity within a bone; list an example.

A

Sinus. EXAMPLE: Frontal sinus of the frontal bone

89
Q

Above a condyle; give an example.

A

Epicondyle. EXAMPLE: medial epicondyle of the humerus.

90
Q

Small rounded projection for attachment; give an example of it’s location.

A

Tubercle. EXAMPLE: greater/lesser tubercle of the humerus.

91
Q

Medium rounded projections for attachment; give an example of it’s location.

A

Tuberosity. EXAMPLE: Radial tuberosity.

92
Q

Large rounded projection for attachment; give an example of the location.

A

Trochanter. EXAMPLE: greater/lesser trochanter of the femur.

93
Q

Linear projection; give an example of it’s location.

A

Crest/spine/line. EXAMPLE: spine of the scapula.

94
Q

Miscellaneous named structures: any prominent projection or bump ; give an example of the location.

A

Process. EXAMPLE: mastoid process of the temporal bone.

95
Q

A projection at a right angle: a thick extension that makes an angle with the main body of the bone; give an example of the location.

A

Ramus. EXAMPLE: superior pubic ramus.

96
Q

What are the two classifications of miscellaneous bone features?

A

Process, ramus.

97
Q

What are the depressions or openings that allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels?

A

Fossa, sulcus, foramen, canal, fissure, meatus, sinus.

98
Q

Projections that are sites for muscle and ligament attachments?

A

Epicondyle, tubercle, tuberosity, trochanter, crest, line, spine.

99
Q

What are the major structures of a long bone?

A

Diaphysis, epiphysis, peiosteum, articular cartilage, medullar cavity, endosteum (bone marrow), epiphyseal plate.

100
Q

What are the six types of bone by shape?

A

Flat, sutural, long, irregular, sesamoid, and short.

101
Q

A bone that has thin, and roughly parallel surfaces.

A

Flat bone.

102
Q

Small, flat, irregularly shaped bones between the flat bones of the skull.

A

Sutural Bone.

103
Q

Elongated and slender bones.

A

Long Bone.

104
Q

A bone with a complex shape, with short, flat, notched or ridged surfaces.

A

Irregular Bone.

105
Q

These bones are generally small, flat, and shaped somewhat like a sesame seed. They develop inside tendons and are most commonly located near joints.

A

Sesamoid Bone.

106
Q

A bone hat is small and boxy.

A

Short Bone.

107
Q

What are the various cartilages associated with the skeletal system and where are they found? (know all examples listed)

A

Hyaline: articular, costal, nasal.
Elastic: external ear.
Fibrocartilage: knee joints and intervertebral discs.

108
Q

How do compact and spongy bone differ?

A

Compact bone is organized for strength, while spongy bone is less organized and weaker, and is the location for red bone marrow.

109
Q

How do osteoblasts and osteocytes differ?

A 
osteoblasts = build 
osteoclasts = break down bone tissue
110
Q

a procedure for putting the pieces of a broken bone back into the right position without surgery

A

Reduction.

111
Q

treatment with estrogens with the aim of alleviating menopausal symptoms or osteoporosis.

A

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

112
Q

Explain how weight bearing exercise affects bone growth and maintenance?

A

It effects bone growth by strengthening the bones and surrounding muscles, and in doing so can prevent bone loss or break later on. This also helps to maintain normal bone structure.

113
Q

What is remodeling and what factors affect/control this process?

A

Remodeling is the ongoing replacement of old bone tissue by new bone tissue, which is controlled by osteoblasts and osteocytes.

114
Q

Describe Osteoporosis: what causes it, what factors influence it’s development and what can be done to prevent/delay its progress.

A

Osteoporosis is a condition that reduces bone mass because osteoclasts are breaking down the bone at a rate faster than osteoblasts can create new bone tissue. This is often influenced by the production of estrogen, and the presence of vitamin D and calcium in the body. To prevent the onset of osteoporosis, it is recommended to maintain a well balanced diet and exercise regularly.

115
Q

How do the hormones PTH and Calcitonin regulate calcium levels?

A

If calcium levels are too low, the parathyroid hormones, which trigger a response that stimulates immature osteoclasts to change into mature osteoclasts, speeding up the breakdown of bone matrix, releasing stored calcium ions - the rate of intestinal absorption increases, as well as in the kidneys. If the blood calcium levels are too high, the thyroid gland secretes calcitonin which tells the body to excrete calcium, and for osteoclasts to stop the breakdown of bone matrix.

116
Q

How do the ligaments support the vertebral column?

A

They help strengthen the disks to help prevent herniation, and provide support.

117
Q

What is carpel tunnel syndrome?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve of the hand becomes pressed or squeezed at the wrist.

118
Q

What is the difference between the male and female pelvic girdle?

A

Males are characterized as having a smaller hip width, with the coccyx appearing long and curved, meanwhile women have a wider hip and the coccyx is both short and straight to help ease in the process of childbirth.

119
Q

Describe what happens to the skeleton as you get older. (Why do we often get shorter?)

A

The bones begin to thin as they lose calcium and other minerals, especially in post menopausal women. The trunk of the body begins to shorten as the intervertebral disks thin and the vertebrae begin to stack more closely on top of each other.

120
Q

Describe the structure of the intervertebral disks.

A

The annulus fibrosus is a rugged ring-like structure that might be compared to a tyre. It completely encases the nucleus pulposus. The purpose of the annulus fibrous is to stabilize the disc, assure that the spine can rotate (twist) properly, and resist compression or other stresses put on the spine.

121
Q

What are the three major types of arthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis, gout, and rheumatoid arthritis.

122
Q

Compare/Contrast and Describe the three major types of Arthritis.

A

Gout is formed from an overabundance of uric acid in the body, affecting primarily the joints of the feet, whereas osteoarthritis is the degradation of articular cartilage, and rheumatoid arthritis is inflammation of the synovial membrane.

123
Q

A chronic degenerative disease most often beginning as part of the aging process. It is the result of life’s everyday activities, it is a degradation of the articular cartilage that protects the bones as they move at a joint site.

A

Osteoarthritis.

124
Q

An inflammatory disease primarily characterized by inflammation of the synovial membrane of the joints. The disease may begin with general symptoms, before affecting the joints. It starts with the initial swelling of the synovial lining, followed by the rapid division and growth of cells, which causes the synovial fluid to thicken. Eventually the bones fuse together, leaving joints immobile.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis.

125
Q

a disease in which defective metabolism of uric acid causes arthritis, especially in the smaller bones of the feet, deposition of chalkstones, and episodes of acute pain.

A

Gout.

126
Q

Give an example of a suture joint and its classification:

A

Fibrous, synarthrotic, cranial sutures

127
Q

Give an example of a gomphosis joint and its classification:

A

Fibrous, synarthrotic, attachments of the teeth to the alveoli

128
Q

Give an example of a syndesmosis joint and its classification:

A

The distal joint of of the tibia and fibula - ampiarthrosis

129
Q

Give an example of a synchondrosis joint and its classification:

A

Cartilaginous, synarthrotic, articulation between first rib/sternum

130
Q

Give an example of a symphysis joint and its classification:

A

Cartilaginous, amphiarthrotic, intervertebral joints, pubis symphysis

131
Q

Give an example of a plane (gliding) joint and its classification:

A

Synovial, diarthrotic, intercarpal/intertarsal

132
Q

Give an example of a pivot joint and its classification:

A

atlantoaxial joint of the radius and ulna - synovial

133
Q

Give an example of a hinge joint and its classification:

A

Synovial, diarthrotic, elbow/interphalangeal joints.

134
Q

Give an example of a ellipsoidal (condyloid) joint and its classification:

A

Radiocarpal joint.

135
Q

Give an example of a saddle joint and its classification:

A

Thumb joint, metacarpal and trapezium - synovial

136
Q

Give an example of a ball and socket joint and its classification:

A

Hip - synovial

137
Q

Give an example of a synostosis joint and its classification:

A

The frontal suture of the frontal bone - synarthrosis

138
Q

A joint that provides no movement.

A

Synarthrosis joints.

139
Q

A joint that provides free movement.

A

Diarthrotic joint.

140
Q

A joint that provides little movement.

A

Amphiarthrotic joint.

141
Q

Decrease in angle between bones.

A

Flexion

142
Q

Increase in the angle between bones.

A

Extension

143
Q

Movement away from the midline.

A

Abduction

144
Q

Movement toward the body or midline.

A

Adduction

145
Q

Movement of a distal part in a circular motion.

A

Cicumduction

146
Q

Palm movement from anterior to posterior.

A

Pronation

147
Q

Palm movement from posterior to anterior.

A

Suppination

148
Q

Movement from the foot inferioroly (standing on tip toes)

A

Plantar-flextion

149
Q

Movement of the foot dorsally (point toes up)

A

Dorsi-flexion

150
Q

Describe the joint disorders: bursitis and tendonitis

A

Both occur as damage caused by overuse, and are classified either by swelling of the bursa or tendon sheath.

151
Q

Ligaments are damaged by an excessive stretch.

A

Sprain.

152
Q

Swelling of the tendon sheath as a result from overuse or direct injury.

A

Bursitits.

153
Q

Over-stressed cartilage wears down.

A

Cartilage tear.

154
Q

Bones are forced out of their normal positions.

A

Dislocation.

155
Q

What is the difference between a shoulder dislocation and shoulder separation?

A

Dislocation occurs when the humerus separates from the scapula - shoulder separation comes from the clavicle and scapula separating t the acromion process.

156
Q

What treatments are recommended for most joint injuries?

A

Rest, ice, compression, elevation and over the counter pain medication.

157
Q

Describe how the body changes in proportion as it ages from birth to old age.

A

As an individual reaches puberty, the bones lengthen at the epiphyseal plate, which causes the trunk and appendages to lengthen along with the bones - however, as we reach old age the trunk begins to shrink due to the thinning of intervertebral discs.

158
Q

a short band of tough, flexible, fibrous connective tissue that connects two bones or cartilages or holds together a joint.

A

Ligament.

159
Q

a flexible but inelastic cord of strong fibrous collagen tissue attaching a muscle to a bone.

A

Tendon.

160
Q

What is the difference between a ligament and a tendon?

A

A tendon attaches a muscle to a bone, while a ligament connects two bones or holds together a joint.

161
Q

What are the different types of synovial joints?

A

Plane, pivot, hinge, saddle, ball and socket, elliposoidal.

162
Q

Where does growth of long bones occur?

A

At the epiphyseal plate.

163
Q

Describe the process of Endochondral Ossification of a long bone:

A
  • Chondrocytes near the center of the shaft increase greatly in size, matrix is reduced to a series of small struts that begin to calcify.
  • Blood vessels grow around the edges of the cartilage, and the cells of the perichondrium convert to osteoblasts, the shaft of the cartilage then becomes ensheathed in a superficial layer of bone.
  • Blood vessels penetrate the cartilage and invade the central region. Fibroblasts migrating with the blood vessels differentiate into osteoblasts and begin producing spongy bone at the primary ossification center.
  • Remodeling occurs as growth continues, creating a medullar cavity. The shaft becomes thicker, and the cartilage near each epiphysis is replaced by shafts of bone.
  • Capillaries and osteoblasts migrate into the epiphyses, creating secondary ossification centers.
  • Soon the epiphyses are filled with spongy bone, while the articular cartilage remains a thin superficial layer. At each end the epiphyseal plate seperates the epiphysis from the diaphysis.
  • At puberty, the combination of rising hormones dramatically stimulates the growth of bone. This continues at a rate faster than osteoclasts can break it down, and this continues until the epiphyseal plate closes.
164
Q

Describe how a long bone increase in length as a person grows

A

On the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate, cartilage is formed. On the diaphyseal side, cartilage is ossified, allowing the diaphysis to grow in length.

165
Q

Describe the histology of bone

A

The cells are osteocytes - periosteum is the covering, and the bones produces the red blood cells.

166
Q

Describe the development of Intramembranous bones

A
  1. mesenchymal cells condense into a connective tissue membrane
  2. mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts, osteoid is secreted and forms bone spicules
  3. calcium phosphate salts are incorporated into osteoid matrix, osteoblasts are surrounded and become osteocytes
  4. spicules continue to develop, the spaces inbetween form the marrow cavity, the outer and inner membranes undergo compaction
  5. remodelling
167
Q

Describe fontanels and their functions.

A

Fontanels are relatively soft, flexible fibrous regions between the forming bones of the fetal skull, and their purpose is to aid in childbirth by allowing the bony plates of the skull to flex.

168
Q

Describe homeostasis of bones and the hormones that regulate their growth.

A

Describe the process of remodeling - the hormones are growth hormones.

169
Q

An incomplete cellular lining on the inner (medullar) cavity of bones.

A

endosteum

170
Q

The thin layer that surrounds a bone, consisting of an outer fibrous region and inner cellular region.

A

periosteum

171
Q

What happens during puberty that causes the growth plate to lessen?

A

Bone is being created faster than it can be broken down, and as a result the osteoblasts “catch up” and the epiphyseal cartilage gets more and more narrow until it ulimately disappears.

172
Q

A small pit or cavity.

A

lacuna

173
Q

What is the function of a sinus?

A

lighten the skull or improve our voices, but their main function is to produce a mucus that moisturizes the inside of the nose.

174
Q

What is a sinus lined with?

A

Mucus.

175
Q

What are the components of a knee joint?

A

Anterior/posterior cruciate ligament, lateral medial meniscus, fibular/tibular collateral ligaments, tendon of quadriceps, patella, patellar ligament.

176
Q

What does the thyroid release?

A

Calcitonin.

177
Q

What does the parathyroid release?

A

Parathyroid Hormone.

178
Q

What is the primary ossification center?

A

the center of the Diaphysis.

179
Q

Where does endochondral ossification start?

A

In the diaphysis.

180
Q

Mesenchymal cartilage transforms into:

A

Hyaline cartilage.

181
Q

What is Periostium?

A

The lining of the outside of the bone.

182
Q

3 effectors in calcium regulation, and their jobs:

A 
Intestines = absorb
Kidneys = keeps calcium (reabsorption)
Bones = osteoclasts release, and osteoblasts are prohibited.
183
Q

What is effected if calcium levels are too high?

A

Thyroid.

184
Q

What is affected if calcium levels are too low?

A

Parathyroid.

Anatomy & Phisiology I. (6 decks)

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