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RTE1513 Rad Procedures 2 > Test 3: Biliary tract and GI systems > Flashcards

Test 3: Biliary tract and GI systems Flashcards

1
Q

which organs are part of the RUQ?

A

liver
gallbladder
right colic (hepatic) flexure
duodenum

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2
Q

Which organs are part of the LUQ?

A

spleen
stomach
left colic (splenic) flexure

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3
Q

Which organs are part of the RLQ?

A

ascending colon
appendix
cecum
ileocecal valve

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4
Q

Which organs are part of the LLQ?

A

descending colon
sigmoid colon

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5
Q

What are the names of the 4 lobes of the liver?

A

left and right (major)
caudate and quadrate (minor)

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6
Q

what is the function of bile?

A

breakdown and emulsify fat

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7
Q

what is an examination of the bile ducts referred to as?

A

cholangiogram

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8
Q

which of the following terms describes the condition of having gallstones?

cholecystitis
cholelithiasis
cholecystectomy
choleliths

A

cholelithiasis

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9
Q

Which three pairs of salivary glands are associated with the mouth?

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

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10
Q

the trachea is __________ to the esophagus

A

anterior

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11
Q

wavelike involuntary contractions that propel food down the esophagus:

what other thing helps propel food?

A

peristalsis; gravity

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12
Q

term for the mucosal folds of the stomach:

A

rugae

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13
Q

what are the subdivisions of the stomach?

A

fundus
body
pylorus

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14
Q

What is part of the medial border of the stomach?

What is part of the lateral border of the stomach?

A

lesser curvature; greater curvature

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15
Q

Which aspect of the stomach fills with air when the pt is prone during a double-contrast upper GI series?

A

fundus

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16
Q

which aspects of the upper GI tract will be filled with barium in the PA (prone) projection?

A

body and pylorus of stomach and duodenal bulb

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17
Q

Which aspect of the stomach does barium gravitate in the supine position?

A

fundus

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18
Q

Which term describes food after it is mixed with gastric secretions in the stomach?

A

chyme

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19
Q

The churning or mixing activity of chyme in the SI is called:

A

rhythmic segmentation

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20
Q

Which two structures create the romance of the abdomen?

A

head of pancreas and C-loop of duodenum

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21
Q

define mastication:
define deglutition:

A

chewing; swallowing

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22
Q

a J-shaped stomach that is more vertical and lower in the abdomen and pelvic region would be found in what kind of body habitus?

A

asthenic

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23
Q

a high and transverse stomach would be found in what kind of body habitus?

A

hypersthenic

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24
Q

where are water, vitamins, and minerals absorbed?

A

small intestine

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25
Q

series of mucosal folds in the cystic duct is known as:

A

spiral valves

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26
Q

what is barium sulfate?

what kind of contrast is it?

A

a colloidal suspension that is inert

positive (radiopaque)

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27
Q

do we prep pts for receiving barium sulfate?

A

no, never

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28
Q

what kind of contrast can cause reactions?

A

ionic iodine

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29
Q

when should water-soluble iodinated contrast be used?

A

if there’s perforation of bowels

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30
Q

what condition may prevent the use of water-soluble contrast agents for a geriatric pt?

A

dehydration

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31
Q

what upper GI method is used to best visualize any diverticulum in the stomach?

give an example

A

double contrast, negative (radiolucent) agent such as air or fizzies

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32
Q

what is the minimum lead equivalency of protective aprons that must be worn during fluoro?

the bucky slot cover should be how much lead equivalency?

A

both .5 mm

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33
Q

list the three cardinal principles of radiation protection:

A

time
distance (most effective)
shielding

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34
Q

what is zenker diverticulum?

A

large outpouching of the esophagus

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35
Q

what is achalasia/cardiospasm?

what is dysphagia?

A

narrowing of the esophagus

difficulty swallowing

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36
Q

what is Barrett esophagus?

what modality is preferred?

A

replacement of tissue in esophagus

nuclear medicine

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37
Q

define trichobezoar:

define phytobezoar:

A

mass of hair in stomach

trapped vegetable fiber in stomach

38
Q

what is a hiatal hernia?

what position best shows it?

A

part of stomach herniates through diaphragm;

Trendelenburg

39
Q

what is the older term for GERD?

A

esophageal reflux

40
Q

what appears as “wormlike” or “cobblestone” during an esophagram?

A

esophageal varices

41
Q

for detecting early signs of GERD and detecting esophageal varices, what is used?

A

endoscopy

42
Q

why is it important to increase collimation and make the field smaller?

A

reduces pt dose and increases image contrast

43
Q

what is the pt prep for an esophogram?

what is the techs job during it?

A

no prep;
set up room, explain procedure to pt and assess pt clinical history, hand things to pt, wipe mouth

44
Q

what are 3 separate ways to show/detect GERD (reflux) and what are the pt positions for them?

A

water test: LPO
compression paddle: prone
toe touch maneuver: erect

45
Q

a breathing technique where the pt takes in a deep breath and bears down is called the:

A

Valsalva maneuver

46
Q

what is the pt prep for an upper GI series?

what is the techs job?

A

NPO at least 8 hours before and no smoking cigarettes or chewing gum

similar to esophagram

47
Q

Why should the tech review the pt’s chart before the beginning of an upper GI?

A. to identify any known allergies
B. to ensure that the proper study has been ordered
C. to look for pertinent clinical history
D. all the above

A

all the above

48
Q

what is the minimum amount of time that the pt should be NPO before an upper GI or an esophagogram?

A

8 hours

49
Q

CR for esophagram:
obliquity:

A

at T6; RAO 35-40°

50
Q

why is the RAO preferred than the LAO for esophagrams?

A

places the esophagus between vertebral column and heart

51
Q

CR for AP (PA) esophogram:

A

1” inf. to sternal angle or 3” inf. to jugular notch

52
Q

Why is the AP projection of the esophagus not a preferred projection for the esophagography series?

A

majority of esophagus is superimposed over the spine

53
Q

If a foreign object is stuck in a pediatric pt’s throat, what should be done?

A

esophagram with barium-soaked cotton ball

54
Q

what procedure best demonstrates a gastric ulcer?

A

double contrast upper GI series

55
Q

Which position visualizes the pylorus and duodenal bulb?

A

LPO

56
Q

a radiograph of an upper GI was taken, but the student tech is unsure of the position. The radiograph demonstrates that the fundus is filled with barium, but the duodenal bulb is air filled and is seen in profile. Which position does this radiograph represent?

A

LPO (recumbent)

57
Q

Which of the following technical/positioning factors does not apply to a water soluble oral contrast media upper GI study?

A. 125 kVp
B. exposure made on expiration
C. 40” SID
D. erect and recumbent positions formed

A

125 kVp

58
Q

During esophagography, the radiologist remarks that Schatzki ring is present. Which condition or disease process is indicated by the presence of this sign?

A

sliding hiatal hernia

59
Q

for an anterior tumor on the stomach, what projection is used?

A

lateral

60
Q

what part of the small intestine is the shortest and widest?

which part is the longest and thinnest?

A

duodenum; ileum

61
Q

what is part of the large intestine?

A

cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal

62
Q

What are the parts of the colon?

Which two aspects of the large intestine are not considered part of the colon?

A

ascending colon, left and right colic flexure, transverse colon, descending colon

cecum and rectum

63
Q

What is the term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches?

what are these pouches called?

A

Taeniae coli

haustra

64
Q

when a pt is supine during enema, air rises into the:

barium sinks to fill the:

A

transverse colon and loops of sigmoid colon;

ascending and descending colon

65
Q

when a pt is prone, air fills the:

barium is in the:

A

rectum, ascending colon, and descending colon;

transverse colon and loops of sigmoid colon

66
Q

define dynamic (mechanical obstruction) and what it’s caused by:

adynamic ileus and what it’s caused by:

A

blockage of the bowel caused by tumors, adhesions, or hernia;

bowel unable to propel contents forward caused by infection, certain drugs, or postsurgical complications

67
Q

which aspect of the GI tract is responsible for synthesis and absorption of vitamins B and K and amino acids?

A

large intestine

68
Q

what structures are intraperitoneal?

A

cecum, transverse colon, sigmoid colon, jejunum, and ileum

69
Q

what structures are retroperitoneal?

A

ascending colon, descending colon, upper rectum

70
Q

what structures are infraperitoneal?

A

lower rectum

71
Q

list the two conditions that may prevent the use of barium during a small bowel series:

A

perforated bowel or obstruction

72
Q

the term enteroclysis describes what type of a small bowel series?

what pathologic conditions are best evaluated through this?

A

double contrast method;

regional enteritis and adenocarcinoma

73
Q

define adenocarcinoma:

what is its radiographic appearance?

A

malignant tumors of the small intestine

apple core sign

74
Q

what condition has a radiographic appearance of a stovepipe colon due to a lack of haustra and shows up as cobblestone on a BE?

A

ulcerative colitis (severe form of colitis)

75
Q

what condition appears as “cobblestone” or a string sign?

A

regional enteritis (Chrohn’s)

76
Q

define diverticulosis:

define volvulus:

A

having numerous diverticula (defects projecting out of colon)

twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery

77
Q

define intussusception:

what procedure would diagnose it?

A

telescoping of bowel into another aspect of it

BE

78
Q

what are the two types of laxatives? give an example:

A

irritant (castor oil)
saline (magnesium citrate/sulfate)

79
Q

what position is the pt in for a barium enema?

how is the procedure performed?

A

Sims

pt history is taken and exam explained, then tip insertion.
the flow of barium or air is controlled by tech and tech helps pt with changing positions

80
Q

the initial insertion of the rectal enema tip should be pointed toward the:

A. symphysis pubis
B. bladder
C. umbilicus
D. tip of coccyx

A

umbilicus

81
Q

if there is resistance to an enema insertion, do you force it? What do you do?

A

no

get radiologist to do it under fluoroscopic supervision

82
Q

what kind of catheter is used for a barium enema on an infant?

A

10F flexible silicon catheter

83
Q

for an immediate (15 min.) small bowel where is the CR?

1 hour?

A

2” above crest

at crest

84
Q

What position is preferred when doing a small bowel series and why?

A

PA (prone) bc compressing separates the bowel loops

85
Q

what is the recommended kVp range for oblique projection taken during a double-contrast study?

A

90-100

86
Q

which projection for BE has the greatest amount of gonadal dose to male and female pts?

A

lateral rectum

87
Q

What is an alternative to the lateral rectum?

A

ventral decub

88
Q

When is the sigmoid better visualized and why?

A

upshot; spreads it out

89
Q

The RAO projection best demonstrates the ______ colic flexure with CR centered _____________.

The LAO projection best demonstrates the ______ colic flexure with CR centered ______________.

A

right, at crest;

left, 2” above crest

90
Q

pt position for lateral rectum:

A

lateral recumbent with knees flexed and arms up in front of head

91
Q

what is another term describing the AP axial projection?

what is the CR angle and centering for the AP axial

A

butterfly projection

30-40° cephalad 2” inf to ASIS

92
Q

what is the average length of time in a routine small bowel series for the barium to pass through the ileocecal sphincter?

A

2 hrs

RTE1513 Rad Procedures 2 (12 decks)

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