test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

cycles of chills, fever, and sweating, caused by a protozoan of the genus ______ in RBCs. transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected ____ mosquito.

A

plasmodium, anaopheles, malaria

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2
Q

ct/mri for trichinellosis?

A

3-8mm nodular lesions

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3
Q

lake and risver freshwater fish

A

diphyllobothriasis

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4
Q

what is the treatment for strongyloidiasis?

A

ivermectin and albendazole

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5
Q

what is the MC cause of meningitis in children and adults?

A

s. pneumniae

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6
Q

who does poorly with babesiosis?

A

asplenic

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7
Q

if someone has fever and celulitis what do you do?

A

immediate aspiration

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8
Q

encephalitis is mostly what?

A

viral

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9
Q

what is the MC congenital presentation of toxoplasmosis?

A

chroioretinitis, blurred vision to vision loss, SA, columbia, brazil

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10
Q

knee infection w/ a rash?

A

neisseria gonorrhea

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11
Q

treatment for trichinellosis?

A

steroids, albendazole, mebendazole

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12
Q

long term infections are associated w/ bladder cancer

A

s. haematobium

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13
Q

what leads to 10% of seizure in emergency departments?

A

cysticercosis

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14
Q

labs for schistosomiasis

A

stool or urine identification most practical

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15
Q

causes of viral meningitis?

A
  1. enterovirus
  2. herpesvirus
  3. arthropod-borne viruses
  4. HIV
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16
Q

where is paragonimiasis located?

A

asia, americas, africa

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17
Q

several weeks diarrhea, bloody stools, fulminant colitis, rectovaginal fistulas, fulminant or necrotzing colitis

A

entamoeba histolytica (amebic colitis)

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18
Q

p. falciparum incubation

A

12 days

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19
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of california encaphalitis?

A

generalized or localized seizures

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20
Q

vesical plexus

A

s. haematobium

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21
Q

treatment for chronic osteomyelitis?

A

exisicion of bone, consider HBO

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22
Q

what is primary prophylaxis for toxoplasmosis?

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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23
Q

how long to monitor malaria?

A

6-12 hrs until parasitemia falls below 1%

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24
Q

what is the treatment for Herpes encephalitis?

A

acyclovir

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25
Q

labs for taeniasis?

A

cellophane tape swab

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26
Q

oocysts highly resitant to chlorine, infect entire GI tract when introduced to contaminated water

A

cryptosporidiosis

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27
Q

what causes louse borne typhus?

A

rickettsia prowazekii

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28
Q

where is s. mansoni?

A

s. america/caribbean, africa, middle east

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29
Q

what is the pharm treatment for dog and cat bite?

A

amoxicillin clavulanate

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30
Q

what are the diagnostic labs for malaria?

A

thick and thin smears, rapid dipstick test, Binax NOW

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31
Q

what are the cardinal signs of rocky mountain spotted fever

A

rash peripherally on the wrists and ankles and soles and spreads to invole the extemitis and trunk, hihg fever, confusion and calf tenderness

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32
Q

what is the treatment for giardia?

A

tinidazole and metronidazole

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33
Q

where is murine typhus found?

A

california and texas

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34
Q

lung fluke

A

paragonimiasis

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35
Q

if parasitemia does not fall by ___ within __ hours, or blood is not cleared of parasites after _ days change treatment

A

75% 48 hours, 7 days

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36
Q

new malaria med

A

artesunate

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37
Q

photochromogenic: dark= white, light=yellow, grows at 25-32 celsius?

A

fish tank granuloma

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38
Q

what must you do before a CT?

A

LP to look for mass effect, increased ICP, and obstructive hydrocephalus

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39
Q

what does q fever do?

A

directly causes disease in organs, lungs, vegetations of hear and granulomats in organs

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40
Q

what bacteria causes cat scratch fever?

A

bartonella henselae

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41
Q

reinfection is associated w/ what stand of malaria?

A

p. falciparum

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42
Q

reason for people not taking prophylaxis?

A

GI, forgetful, low perception of risk

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43
Q

this trematode has male and female parts

A

schistosoma

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44
Q

what is the treatment for schistosomiasis?

A

praziquantel

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45
Q

invasion of the female genital tract (pelvic/peritoneal granuloma), chronic salpingitis?

A

enterobiasis

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46
Q

P. falciparum found mostly where?

A

sub-Saharan africa

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47
Q

stage 3 pressure injury?

A

full thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat, slough

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48
Q

where is s. japanicum?

A

far east

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49
Q

aggressive leishmaniasis

A

face, joints, satellite lesions, 5-10 lesions, >4-5cm

sodium stibogluconate, amphotericin B, fluconazole

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50
Q

cold stage length?

A

15-60 min

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51
Q

preexposure prophylaxis for rabies?

A

human diploid cell vaccine, purified chick embryo vaccine, 1mL IM deltoid on days 0,7, and 21 or 28

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52
Q

what are the two types of leptospirosis?

A

anicteric leptospirosis, icteric leptospirosis

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53
Q

what is the treatment for neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

ceftriaxone

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54
Q

what occurs 7-14 days after tick bite in lyme disease?

A

(localized) erythema migrans, fever chills, myalgia, tender lymphadenopathy

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55
Q

what tick causes lyme disease?

A

ixodes

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56
Q

postexposure prophylaxis for rabies?

A

1 ml IM deltoid 0, 3, 7, 14

1mL IM 0,3

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57
Q

____ phase of lifecycle leads to fever and ___ release

A

erythrocytic merozoite

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58
Q

who is listeria monocytogenes common in?

A

> 50, alcoholics and pregnant

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59
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

rickettsia rickettsii

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60
Q

abraision that is exposed to salt or fresh water. papule or nodule at wound site, appears gramulomatous and moves up the arm

A

fish tank granuloma

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61
Q

what is used for eradication of persistent hypnozoites in vivax and ovale? what do you have to check first?

A

primaquine phsophate, G-6-pd, 14 days

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62
Q

what is the treatment for hook worm?

A

albendazole and mebendazole

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63
Q

when to begin/ end prevention prophylaxis?

A

1-2 weeks beofre departing, 1-2 days if dail, 4 weeks after return

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64
Q

what is the most common helminth world wide?

A

ascaria lumbricoides

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65
Q

treatment for cryptosporidiosis?

A

HAART, Nitazoxanide

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66
Q

_____ migrate into hepatocytes (___ phae) w/in minutes

A

sporozoites, liver

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67
Q

what is the MC place for a dog bite?

A

hand

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68
Q

fever of unknown origin, parinaud oculoglandular syndrome, rash, lymphadenitis (axillary, cevical, submandibular, preauricular)

A

cat scratch disease

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69
Q

what are the 2 MC arboviruses?

A

st. louis and california

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70
Q

incubation period in rabies is what?

A

asymptomatic

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71
Q

what is the MC parasitic infection of the CNS?

A

cysticercosis

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72
Q

fever,edema/swelling, tenderness, decreasd motion, ESR>30, increased crp

A

joint infections/ sepsis

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73
Q

what causes q fever?

A

coxiella burnetii

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74
Q

virus for rabies?

A

lyssavirus

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75
Q

P. ovale found where?

A

west africa

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76
Q

MC bursa’s infected?

A

olecranon and prepatellar

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77
Q

what worm causes cutaneous larva migrans?

A

ancylostoma caninum

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78
Q

what are viral infections of the knee joint?

A

rubella, parvovirus B19, hepatitis

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79
Q

what is the treatment for hymenolepiasis?

A

praziquantel

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80
Q

what is the treatment for p. aeruginosa?

A

ceftazidime

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81
Q

what is the MC cause of all cestode infectinos worldwide?

A

hymenolepis nana

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82
Q

wagner grading systme for diabetic foot ulcers

A

0: redness, callus, boney deformity
1: superficial, partial or full thickness ulcer: limited to dermis
2. deep ulcer: through subcutaneous tissue to tendon, joint or bone
3. deep ulcer w/ osteomyelitis, abscess, joint sepsis
4. localized gangrene of toes and forefoot
5. extensive gangrene

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83
Q

soil penetrates bare feet, tropical and subtropical, ground itch, pica, intestinal upset and pneumonitis?

A

hookworm

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84
Q

what is the rodent that gets rabies?

A

groundhog

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85
Q

how is murine typhus spread?

A

rats

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86
Q

treatment for MRSA

A

vanc + rifampin

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87
Q

what is the PEP for n. meningitids?

A

ceftriaxone 250 mg IM or Rifamipin X4

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88
Q

MC physical findings of encephalitis?

A

altered mental status and personality changes

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89
Q

heme positive stools?

A

amebic colitis (entamoeba histolytica)

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90
Q

what are the 3 major pathways for meningitis?

A

invasion of the blood stream, retrograde neuronal flow, and direct contiguous spread

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91
Q

what is brill zinsser disease?

A

relapsing louse borne typhus, 10-20 years later, fever, transient rash, falling BP

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92
Q

vitamin B12 and megaloblastic anemia, pallor, glossitis, hypesthesia

A

diphyllobothriasis

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93
Q

abdominal pain that starts then transitions to an intermittent biliary obstruction

A

fascioliasis

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94
Q

tropical countries, southeastern united states, intestinal obstruction, occlusion of the biliary tract, and oral expulsion. may also have cough, or hemoptysis?

A

ascariasis

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95
Q

superior mesenteric vein

A

s. japonicum

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96
Q

labs for lyme disease

A

EIA/IFA, confirm w/ western blot

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97
Q

lab for leptospirosis?

A

isolation of the leptospires, tissue/body fluids (urine)

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98
Q

thick and thin smears how?

A

3, 12-24 hrs apart, soon after fever spike

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99
Q

how is leishmaniasis transmitted?

A

sandflies (lutzomyia longipalpis)

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100
Q

fever, HA, neck stiffness, photphobia, fever, nuchal rigidity, mental status change

A

meningitis

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101
Q

consume raw watercress, in europe, middle east, or asia

A

fascioliasis

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102
Q

rapid dipstick detects what?

A

LDH

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103
Q

lyme disease spirochete?

A

borrelia burgdorferi

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104
Q

3 things that happen after infection w/ lyme disease?

A
  1. clear
  2. spreads through out the body and produces symptoms by direct invasion, manifests like a bacterial infection
  3. induces an immune response, little evidence of bacterial invasion
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105
Q

what lice type spreads louse borne typus?

A

pediculus humanus

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106
Q

what is louse borne typhus associated with and where?

A

overcrowding, europe, asia, africa (ethiopia and nigeria)

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107
Q

what is the treatment for ascariasis?

A

albendazole, mebendazole

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108
Q

treatment for babsiosis?

A

atovaquone + azithromycin

clindamycin + quinine

consider transfusion

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109
Q

who gets cryptosporidiosis?

A

kids and aids <200

110
Q

test of choice for entamoeba histolytica?

A

enerica parasite panel PCR

111
Q

misdiagnosed retinoblastoma?

A

toxocariasis

112
Q

urticaria, pulomnary abnormalities, eosinophilia, discolored sputum, hemoptysis, CXR, after eating crazy fish what is the treatmetn?

A

praziquantel from paragonimiasis

113
Q

what is the most common symptom of cat scratch disease?

A

regional adenopathy

114
Q

what is the treatment for cutaneous larva migrans?

A

shoes, albendazole and ivermectin

115
Q

if you have a prosthetic joint what bacteria are you concerned for?

A

MRSA/ s. pyogenes

116
Q

complications of louse borne typhus?

A

gangrene, pericarditis, myocarditis, meningoencephalitis, delirium, fatal cardiac and renal failure

117
Q

what signs and symptoms of st louis encaphalitis?

A

dysuria and pyuria

118
Q

what are the treatment for ricketssial diease?

A

doxycycline

119
Q

who has to get PEP for n. meningitidis?

A

> 8hrs
<3ft
directly exposed to oral secretions
w/in 1 week before onset

med personal near airway secretions

120
Q

treatment for taeniasis?

A

praziquantel and surgery if (appendicitis, obstructed bile duct, and pancreatic duct)

121
Q

in US what is #1 domestic animal reported?

A

cats

122
Q

what do you use to irrigate a dog/cat bite?

A

isotonic soidum chloride solution

123
Q

P. vivax found where?

A

all endemic areas

124
Q

raised edge and central crater, crusting scab, regional lymphadenopathy

A

cutaneous leishmaniasis

125
Q

mild leishmaniasis?

A

<4 lesions, none >5cm, not in cosmetic area

paromycin, LN2, may resolve in 6 months

126
Q

subcutaneous nodules, weight loss, appendicitis and cholangitis?

A

taeniasis

127
Q

what to use for speciation of malaria?

A

thin smear

128
Q

prevention/prophylaxis meds for malaria?

A

chloroquine, mefloquine, doxycycline ,atorvaquone/proguanil, primaquine

129
Q

what is the MC zoonosis in the world?

A

leptospirosis, think tropics

130
Q

what is the treatment for viral meningitis?

A

supportive care

131
Q

what is the most reliable rabies test and what would you see?

A

negri bodies on nuchal skin biopsy

132
Q

lack an intestinal tract and instead, are able to absorb nutrients through their integuments, adult consists of a head (scolex, that attaches to mucosa) neck and segemented body where both male and female gonads (proglottids) are found.

A

cestodes

133
Q

what are the forms of leishmaniasis?

A

cutaneous and visceral

134
Q

most striking feature of t. saginata?

A

passage of proglottids

135
Q

what is the treatment for syphilitic meningitis?

A

penicillin G

136
Q

flatoworms, including both external and internal parasites of animal hosts, that have a thick outer cuticle and one or more suckers or hooks for attaching to host tissue, also called a fluke

A

trematodes

137
Q

during the 2-7 day acute neurologic period of rabies agitation, reslessness, biting, hallucinations, hyperactivity, thrashing, and confusion in episodic intervals

A

furious rabies

138
Q

what is the MC manifestation in toxoplasmosis w/ aids?

A

encephalitis w/ AID

139
Q

what might be seen on radiographs for q fever?

A

multiple segmental opacities, pleural effusion, lobar consildation, linear atelectasis

140
Q

what is the treatment for enterobius vermicularis?

A

mebendazole and family education, personal hygiene laundering of bedding

141
Q

where is s haematobium?

A

africa and the middle east

142
Q

where is entamoeba histolytica?

A

central and south America
Africa
asia

143
Q

what is the treatment for entamoeba histolytica (amebiasis)?

A

metronidizale or tinidazole + iodoquinol or paramycin

144
Q

sweating stage how long?

A

2-4 hours

145
Q

u/s= homogenous hypoechoic round lesion, CT scan= rounded, low attenuation lesion with an enhancing rim?

A

entamoeba histolytica

146
Q

flaccid paralysis-flavivirus?

A

west nile

147
Q

what is the treatment for TB meningitis?

A

Isoniazid (ING) and pyrazinamide

148
Q

bone bx for osteomyelitis is done when?

A

48 hours after a/b stopped or before a/b started

149
Q

what is the sing of ancylostoma caninum?

A

intense itching, erythematous linear lesion

150
Q

what are the two acute neurologic periods of rabies?

A

paralytic and furious

151
Q

what is the most common symptom of hookworm?

A

iron deficiency

152
Q

school or preschool children, all socio-economic levels, nocturnal pruritis?

A

enterobius vermicularis

153
Q

splenic rupture complication?

A

vivax and ovale

154
Q

what will the joint fluid show in lyme disease?

A

WBCs

155
Q

treatment for MSSA?

A

nafcillin, oxacillin

156
Q

labs for babesiosis?

A

wright/giemsa ring forms

157
Q

stage 4 pressure injury?

A

full thiicness tissue loss, w/ exposed bone, tendon or muscle,

158
Q

what is the treatment for toxoplasmosis pregannacy <18 weeks

A

spiramycin

159
Q

when does acute osteomyelitis occur?

A

w/in 2 weeks, bacteria penetrates the bone causing abscess formation leading to necrosis of the bone

160
Q

inadequately cooked crab or cray fish

A

paragonimiasis

161
Q

when do you close a wound from an animal bite?

A

face and clean

162
Q

stage 2 pressure injury

A

shiny shallow ulcer w/o slough

163
Q

entero-test/duodenal biopsy/ abdominal x-ray

A

giardiasis

164
Q

top 3 US bat rabie vectors?

A

raccoons, skunks, bats

165
Q

why is falciparum so bad?

A

microvascular sequestraion, hyperparasitiemia >250,000, targets all RBCs (not just reticulocytes) severe, anemia

166
Q

labs for cysticercosis?

A

CT, biopsy of subqu nodule

167
Q

what is the treatment for cysticercosis?

A

care for seizure, O2, anticonvulsants, increased ICP, (steroids, osmotic agents, diuretics)

NCC: albendazole and/or praziquantel + dexamthasone and etanercept

168
Q

amebic liver abcess caused by what?

A

entamoeba histolytica

169
Q

P___ and P____ have a ___ form that linger is inthe liver for months that can cause a ___ infection

A

ovale, vivax, hypnozoite, recurrence

170
Q

routes for osteomyelitis?

A

trauma, contiguous spread(ulcer, post-op), hematogenous seeding of bone

171
Q

splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, recurrent high fevers, darkening of the skin, pancytopenia

A

visceral leishmaniasis

172
Q

what are the fungal meningitis?

A

c. neoformans
c. immmits
B. dermatitidis
candidal species
h. capsulatum

173
Q

what is the treatemtn for fascioliasis?

A

triclabendazole

174
Q

what is the MC bacteria infection of the knee?

A

staph A

175
Q

what happens 3-10 weeks afer the tick bite in lyme disease?

A

multiple EMs, tender adenopathy, (HEARTBLOCK) carditis, aseptic meningitis, VII and bell’s palsy

176
Q

relapse is assoicate with which malaria strands?

A

vivax and ovale

177
Q

what is MC cause of encephalitis in western coutnries?

A

herpes simplex

178
Q

what is murine typhus caused by?

A

rickettsia typhi

179
Q

what is the treatment for leptospirosis?

A

pen G if severe, out patient doxy

180
Q

what causes rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

rickettsia rickettsii

181
Q

serpiginous (snake like) lesion

A

cutaneous larva migans

182
Q

sheep liver fluke

A

fasciola hepatica

183
Q

1-2 week RUQ pain, prominent weight loss, hx of dysentery in last year

A

entamoeba histolytica (hx of dysentery in last year)

184
Q

what to do if there is a bat and you are sleeping?

A

post exposure prophylaxis

185
Q

contact w/ aquarium, salt water marine animals

A

mycobacterium marinum, fish tank granuloma

186
Q

what stage of tick will infect you from spring to summer?

A

nymph

187
Q

acute, infectious, fatal viral disease of most warm-blooded animals, especially wolves, bats, cats, and dogs, that attacks the central nervous system and is transmitted by he bite of the infected animals

A

rabies

188
Q

tropical and subtropical, including southern united states, and intitutional settings. Larvae from soil penetrate bare feet. Cause pulmonary symptoms called ____ ____, eoshinophila in acute and chronic stages, abdominal pain, diarrhea?

A

strongyloidiasis

189
Q

what is the number one rabies vector world wide?

A

dog

190
Q

walking barefoot on beach?

A

cutaneous larva migrans (ancylostoma caninum)

191
Q

where is lyme disease common?

A

Maryland to maine, wisconsin to minnesota, northern california

192
Q

treatment for prion related disease?

A

avid brain/eye tissue, cerebral electrodes, infected instruments

193
Q

what meningitis has a high mortality depsite appropriate therapy due to overwhelming endotoxin cascade?

A

neisseria meningitidis

194
Q

trichinella nativa

A

artic bears

195
Q

no fever, seizures, chronic HA, N/V, vision changes, focal neurolgoical complaints, mental status change, hyperreflexia, nystagmus, muscular pseudo hypertrophy, papilledema

A

neurocysticergosis

196
Q

serious life threatening manifestations of trichnellosis?

A

myocarditis, encephalitis, meningitis,

197
Q

what are the 2 MC places that malaria are imported from?

A

sub-saharan africa and india

198
Q

at birth: anemia, thrombocytopenia, jaundice, microcephaly, hydrocephalus

A

toxoplasmosis

199
Q

where is leishmaniasis MC found?

A

brazil, middle east, west asia,

200
Q

bit buy lice, followed by abrupt fever, headache, rash from trunk to the extermities sparing face, palms and soles. start as macules->maculopapules->petechiae. DOES NOT BLANCH

A

louse borne typhus

201
Q

cestode with itchy anus, resless sleep, nasal pruruitis, extermity pain

A

hymenolepiasis

202
Q

what is the treatment for erythema migrans?

A

doxy and amoxicillin

203
Q

what will show PMNs in CSF for meningitis?

A

bacteria

204
Q

p. falciparum treatment

A

quinidine gluconate IV plus Doxy or clinda

205
Q

malaria like

A

besisosis

206
Q

where is diphyllobothriasis?

A

Northern hemisphere, uganda, chile

207
Q

prodromal period in rabies is what?

A

paresthesia and pain, prickly or itchy feeling, at inoculation site. anorexia, fever, chills, malaise, 2-10 days

208
Q

katayma’s fever?

A

actue schistosomiasis

209
Q

what stage of a lyme disease infection is considered late?

A

persistent

210
Q

how long can a taenia live?

A

25 years w/ 50, 000 eggs per day

211
Q

what are the signs and symptoms fo toxocariasis?

A

weight loss, wheezing, hepatosplenomegaly, hypereosinophilia, fever, ocular issues, misdiagnosed retinoblastoma,

212
Q

who gets neisseri meningitidis?

A

college students and military recruits

213
Q

treatment for encephalitis

A

mostly supportive

214
Q

p. malariea incubation

A

28 days

215
Q

trichnella pseudospiralis?

A

mammals/birds world wide

216
Q

visceral larva migrans, ocular larva migrans?

A

toxocara canis/ toxocariasis cati

217
Q

what is the largest intestinal namatode 15-35 cm?

A

ascaria lumbricoides

218
Q

what is the treatment for carditis in lyme disease?

A

ceftriaxone IV and doxy PO

219
Q

flatulence, malodorous greasy stools, weight loss, neurologic sx (irritable, sleep disorder, mental depression, neuroasthenia)

A

giardia

220
Q

what shows as air bubbles on radiology?

A

air bubbles

221
Q

villous atrophy and distorted microvillic cause malabsorption?

A

Giardia

222
Q

what is the treatment for listeria monocytogenes?

A

listeria

223
Q

highly motile, unicellular eukaryotes, usually predatory or parasitic; movement by cilic, flagella or ameboid motion; may be aquatic or terrestrial

A

protozoa

224
Q

what is the hallmark of late disease in lyme disease?

A

arthritis, tends to involve the large joints, migratory poly articular process

225
Q

p. vivax incubation

A

14 days

226
Q

hydrocephalus

A

toxoplasmosis

227
Q

what are the big causes of bacterial meningitis?

A

s. pneumoniae, n. meningitidis, h. influenzae

228
Q

when does chronic osteomyelitis occur?

A

1- several months of bone infection. acute can become chronic

229
Q

inferior mesenteric vein

A

s. mansoni

230
Q

what are the two types of rabies?

A

bat rabies and terrestrial rabies

231
Q

dwarf tape worm

A

hymenolepis nana

232
Q

northeastern US specifically NY, MA from a tick

A

babesisosis

233
Q

stage 1 pressure injury?

A

intact skin w/ non-blanchable redness

234
Q

eating infected meat of carnivores, like AK, CA bear/boar/pork?

A

trichinella spiralis

235
Q

how long for x-ray to show lytic lesion?

A

2-6 weeks

236
Q

sudden onset joint pain, decreased motion, fever >102.2, swelling of joint, effusions, warmth, monoarticular infection. Elevated ESR, WBCs >50,000, >75% PML, glucose low

A

infections of the joints

237
Q

lab for leishmaniasis?

A

isolate of organism in tissue, giemsa stained slides

238
Q

new malaria found in SE asia?

A

P knowlesi

239
Q

what is the vector for cat scratch fever?

A

fleas

240
Q

during invasive phase causes periobital and facial edema, conjunctivitis, fever >104, rash, splinter hemorrhages?

A

trichinellosis

241
Q

what lab do you need for osteomyelitis?

A

bone biopsy

242
Q

what is the MC helminthic infection in the US?

A

enterobius vermicularis

243
Q

what is the treatment for toxocariasis?

A

albendazole/mebendazole

244
Q

what is the treatment for a tick bite in an endemic area for lyme disease?

A

doxy

245
Q

what is the treatment for strep pneumoniae and neisseria meningitidis?

A

cefotaxime or ceftriaxone and vanc + dexamethasone

246
Q

muscle and caf pain, sudden HA rigors, conjunctival hemorrhage and ICTERUS following exposure fresh water, soil and animals in the jungle or tropics

A

leptospirosis

247
Q

> =1 red papule in .5 cm, lymphadenitis that persisits 4-6 weeks, sinus track may form, axillary nodes most frequently affected, polonged fever w/o a source

A

cat scratch disease

248
Q

what is the treatment for chorioretinits, cong. and preg >18 weeks?

A

pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin

249
Q

in US MC parasite identified in stool specimens?

A

Giaria lamblia

250
Q

chloroquine resistant treatment?

A

coartem, malarone, quinine sulfate + doxy

251
Q

what are the big causes of bacterial meningitis in neonates?

A

group b beta hemolytic strep, e. coli, listeria monocytogenes

252
Q

where will you find q fever?

A

slaugherthouse, live stock handling plants, contact w/ fluids of animals

253
Q

if someone that has acute toxoplasmosis what is important that you do?

A

screen family members especially pregnant women and immuncompromised persons

254
Q

what is the treatment for fish tank granuloma?

A

clarithromycin + ethambutol or ethambutol + rifampin for 1 month, but up to 6 maybe

255
Q

what are physical findings during the neurologic period of rabies?

A

thashing, lacrimation, perspiration, drooling, postural hypotension, hydrophobia, aerophobia

256
Q

60 or 70 presenting with dementia. Has myoclonic fasciculations, ataxia and progressive cognitive impairment?

A

prion related disease

257
Q

no fever, subcu nodule that looks like sebacious cyst, calcified intramuscular lesions

A

cysticercosis

258
Q

hot stage how long?

A

2-6 hours

259
Q

capillary blockage/microvascular stasis from RBC fragments. Hemolytic anemia, thombocytopenia, chills, fever, diaphoresis, and prostration

A

babesiosis

260
Q

what is called the human pinworm?

A

enterobius vermicularis

261
Q

trichinella britovi

A

carnivors of europe and western asia

262
Q

osteomyelitis frequently affects where?

A

metaphases of long bones

263
Q

cestode that’s 15-40 mm in length

A

hymeolepsis nana

264
Q

patient develops nonpurulent conjunctivitis, ocular granuloma, preauricular adenopathy, resolve in a few months

A

cat scratch disease (bartonella)

265
Q

treatment for diphyllobothriasis?

A

vitamin supplementation and praziquantel

266
Q

what malaria causes nephrotic syndrome?

A

p. malariae

267
Q

p. ovale incubation

A

17 days

268
Q

what is recrudescence and what malaria strand is it assocaited w/?

A

incomplete treatment, p. falciparum

269
Q

trichinella nelsoni

A

african scavengers and predators

270
Q

what is the treatment for cat scratch disease and parinaud oculoglandular syndome?

A

self limited