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CMA Course > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What result would you get from a QUALitative test?

A

Has a +/- indication

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2
Q

What is a requisition form?

A

Info about test being performed, now all in Athena

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3
Q

What does POL stand for?

A

Physician office, Reference Lab, AKA CLIA
Usually not in a specialty office

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4
Q

What is a capillary stick?

A

Finger stick

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5
Q

What is the difference between an outside lab and a reference lab?

A

Outside lab: hospital setting
Reference Lab: associated with medical school, teaching, privately owned

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6
Q

What does QNS stand for?

A

Quantity Not Sufficient

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7
Q

What kind of diseases would be observed at an outside lab?

A

More rare or complicated diseases

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8
Q

What are the 4 types of Urine samples?

A

First of Morning/First Void
Clean Catch Midstream
24-Hour Specimen
Random sample

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9
Q

What test is usually performed by the MA having to do with stool

A

Hemacult

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10
Q

What type of liquid is not part of a fasting diet?

A

Dairy, energy drinks, gum

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11
Q

What is the difference between Quality Control and Quality Assurance?

A

Control: calibration, control soln, mock tests, proof results are accurate
Assurance: ensure requirements are met and results are accurate

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12
Q

What does CLIA stand for?

A

Clinical Lab Improvement Ammendments

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13
Q

What are the Categories of Lab Testing (3)?

A

Waived
Moderate Complexity
High Complexity

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14
Q

Describe a Waived Lab Test

A

Performed by a MA
Urinalysis, Dip Stick
Fit Tests
Strep/Flu
Glucose, Hemoglobin
Pregnancy

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15
Q

What is an example of a Moderate Complexity Test?

A

Microscope of Urine Sediment

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16
Q

What are 2 examples of High Complexity Tests?

A

Cytology & Pathology

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17
Q

Name 5 pieces of lab equipment

A

1.) Autoclave
2.) Photometer
3.) Centrifuge
4.) Incubator
5.) Microscope

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18
Q

If performing a Urinalysis, if you are not performing testing within ___ hours of collection, where should you store the sample?

A

2
Fridge

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19
Q

What is the usual minimum collection amount required for a urinalysis?

A

10 mL

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20
Q

During a 24-HR Urination Collection, which micturition should you NOT collect?

A

Void the first of the 1st day in the toilet, mark the time on the collection unit, and then start collecting for next 24 hours

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21
Q

What are 3 observable properties of urine?

A

Color, clarity, smell

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22
Q

What does Turbid mean?

A

Cloudy

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23
Q

A patient with PKU might have urine that smells:

A

musty

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24
Q

A patient who is taking Diuretics might have this property to their urine

A

It might be clear

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25
Q

If you detect a sort of fruity smell to urine, what could this indicate about the patient?

A

Diabetes

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26
Q

What do Ketones in the urine indicate?

A

Fat is being burned instead of glucose for energy

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27
Q

What results can an occult hematuria provide?

A

Indications for anemia, UTI, Kidney Stones

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28
Q

A CBC is observing the:

A

Formed elements of blood

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29
Q

What can an irregular RBC indicate?

A

Anemia
Polycythemia

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30
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

Immature RBC

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31
Q

What is the difference between Hgb and Hct?

A

Hgb is Hemoglobin
Hct is Hematocrit

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32
Q

What do Hct levels indicate about the body?

A

Percent of the total volume of blood that is RBC

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33
Q

What is the term for preventing blood clotting

A

Anticoagulant

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34
Q

What is the usual ratio of Hct to Hgb

A

Hct is usually 3 times higher than Hgb

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35
Q

What do Hgb levels indicate?

A

Protein that indicates how much O2 and CO2 blood can transport

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36
Q

What does ESR stand for?

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

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37
Q

What could an elevated ESR indicate

A

Inflammation

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38
Q

What does PT/INR mean?

A

PT: Prothrombin time
INR: International Normalized Ratio - allows specimens performed at different laboratories to have consistent results

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39
Q

What was does an A1C tell us about the body?

A

Capillary blood test shows diabetes control over an approximate 3-month period

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40
Q

What is Troponin?

A

Cardiac enzyme released when heart is damaged

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41
Q

What does BMP stand for?

A

Basic Metabolic Panel

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42
Q

Define: infection

A

Invasion and proliferation of pathogens in body tissues

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43
Q

Define Fomite

A

Any non-living object/substance capable of carrying infectious organism

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44
Q

What is the study of fungi

A

Mycology

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45
Q

What is the technical term for head lice

A

Pediculosis

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46
Q

What shape are bacterial spores?

A

Bacillus

47
Q

What are three possible locations for a capillary puncture?

A

Great or ring finger
Infant Heel
Ear lobe

48
Q

Name the 4 prominent arm veins

A

1.) Median cubital
2.) Basilic
3.) Cephalic
4.) Median Antebrachial

49
Q

Where is the basilic vein?

A

Forearm & hand

50
Q

Where is the Cephalic vein?

A

Lateral side of the arm

51
Q

What is the most common vein for a venipuncture?

A

Median cubital

52
Q

What is the term for the inner elbow region?

A

Antecubital

53
Q

What is the semi-Fowler position used for?

A

Helps patients who feel woozy after a blood draw

54
Q

About how many inches above the elbow do you place a tourniquet for a venipuncture?

A

3-4” above venipuncture site

55
Q

What gauge needle is used for most adult blood draws?

A

21-22 gauge

56
Q

What is the vasovagal response?

A

Fainting because triggered from venipuncture, stress, anxiety

57
Q

What is the term for RBC breakdown?

A

Hemolysis

58
Q

The OTC Azo makes urine what color?

A

Orange

59
Q

What is a thrombocyte

A

Platelet

60
Q

What are 4 reasons you would not draw blood from a particular arm?

A

Recent mastectomy
Bruising
Tattoos
Fistual

61
Q

List the order of draw using color vacuum containers

A

1.) Yellow
2.) Blue
3.) Red
4.) Gold/Tiger Top
5.) Green
6.) Lavender
7.) Gray

62
Q

List the order of draw using names

A

1.) Blood culture
2.) Citrate
3.) Serum
4.) Serology
5.) Heparin
6.) EDTA
7.) Oxalate

63
Q

What is a specimen?

A

Sample from the body

64
Q

What does CLIA stand for?

A

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments

65
Q

Why was CLIA formed?

A

Developed by CMS in response to widespread concern over the accuracy of laboratory test

66
Q

What is the additive for a Yellow Top evacuated blood tube

A

SPS

67
Q

What is plasma

A

The liquid component of blood (mostly water)

68
Q

What is the additive in a Citrate evacuated tube?

A

Sodium citrate

69
Q

What is the additive in a Serum evacuated tube

A

No additive

70
Q

What is the additive in the Heparin evacuate blood collection tube?

A

Heparin

71
Q

What is the additive in the EDTA evacuated blood collection tube?

A

EDTA

72
Q

What is the additive in the Oxalate tube?

A

Either Sodium Flouride (NaF) or Potassium Oxalate

73
Q

What is serum?

A

Plasma without the fibrinogen

74
Q

What does QC stand for?

A

Quality control

75
Q

What is the technical term for fainting?

A

Sycope

76
Q

What does C & S stand for?

A

Culture and Sensitivity

77
Q

What is the normal color of Urine

A

Straw/pale yellow

78
Q

What are the 5 routine urinalysis categories?

A

Appearance (clarity/turbity)
Color
Specific gravity
Odor
Quantity

79
Q

What is pyuria?

A

Pus or WBC in the urine

80
Q

What is the normal amount of urine excretion for an adult?

A

700-2,000 mL

81
Q

What kind of pH could you expect in a patient with a possible UTI?

A

Alkaline (more basic/<7)

82
Q

What is the definition of POC?

A

Tests that can be done during a physical exam or at a patient’s beside with results that can be quickly received to help the physician make patient care decisions

83
Q

List the 4 main components of blood

A

RBC
WBC
Platelets
Plasma

84
Q

What is the most common method of venipuncture?

A

Vacuum container

85
Q

Define Hematopoiesis

A

Formation of RBC

86
Q

What do Hematocrit levels tell us about the body?

A

How much of the total volume of blood is composed of Erythrocytes

87
Q

What does BUN stand for?

A

Blood urea nitrogen

88
Q

What do BUN levels indicate about the body?

A

Indications for liver metabolism

89
Q

What are the 3 main sites for venipuncture

A

Median cubital
Cephalic
Basilic

90
Q

What cell shape are STDs?

A

Spirillum

91
Q

Staphylococci bacteria are in what configuration?

A

Clusters

92
Q

Streptococci bacteria are in what configuration?

A

Chains

93
Q

Diplococci bacteria are in what configuration?

A

Pairs

94
Q

In a Gram stain test, what color is a Gram Negative bacteria

A

Pink

95
Q

In a Gram stain test, what color are Gram Positive Bacteria?

A

Purple

96
Q

What does PTT stand for?

A

Partial Thromboplastin Time

97
Q

What is PTT used for?

A

Determines the length of time it takes for a fibrinin clot to form and thus helps provider determine which specific clotting factors are affected

98
Q

What solution is used in a wet mount?

A

KOH AKA Potassium Hydroxide

99
Q

What does PP/PC mean?

A

Post prandial

100
Q

What is normal Hgb for a male?

A

13-18

101
Q

What is normal Hgb for a female?

A

12-16

102
Q

What is the difference between a WBC and a CBC?

A

CBC is Complete Blood Count, so a WBC (White Blood Count) is a component of a CBC

103
Q

Heparin is an:

A

Anticoagulant

104
Q

What is a monocyte?

A

A type of leukocyte

105
Q

How often would you perform a QC test on a glucometer?

A

Everyday

106
Q

Define Fistula in regards to phlebotomy

A

Abnormal connection between an artery/vein

107
Q

A BMP is what type of test?

A

Blood test

108
Q

What is being tested in the Citrate blood test?

A

Coagulation, PT, PTT

109
Q

What is being tested in the Culture blood draw?

A

Bacterial studies

110
Q

What is being tested in the Serum blood collection?

A

Chemistry

111
Q

What 4 things are being tested in a Heparin blood draw?

A

Electrolyte
Renal Function
Plasma
Anticoagulation

112
Q

What is being tested in the EDTA blood collection?

A

CBC
ESR

113
Q

What is being tested in the Oxalate blood test?

A

Glucose
Lactic Acid

114
Q

What does the afferent arteriole in the kidney use to move filtrate into the glomerulus?

A

Hydrostatic pressure: the large arteriole into the small corpuscle to force it to filter want max flow/volume

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