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CMA Course > NHA Test Review > Flashcards

NHA Test Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is Urticaria?

A

Hives (urticaria) are red, itchy welts that result from a skin reaction.

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2
Q

1 tbsp is ___ mL

A

15

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3
Q

Nystagmus and strabismus are both eye movement disorders, what is the difference between the two?

A

Nystagmus: fast, uncontrolled movement
Strabismus: due to weak muscles, two eyes don’t line up in same direction, cross eyed

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4
Q

List 5 symptoms of heat stroke

A 
Confusion, altered mental status, slurred speech
Loss of consciousness (coma)
Hot, dry skin or profuse sweating
Seizures
Very high body temperature
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5
Q

What is Atelectasis?

A

Collapse of all or part of lung

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6
Q

Despite the fact that insulin is a subcutaneous injection, what angle should it be injected?

A

90° unless pt is very thin in which it may be administered at 45°

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7
Q

The spleen is located close to your stomach, in such case, what quadrant would you expect to find the spleen?

A

Upper left

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8
Q

What is the suffix for vomiting?

A

-emesis

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9
Q

What is the difference between dorsal recumbent and lithotomy?

A

Same body positioning with the exception of the feet.
Dorsal Recumbent: feet on table, for catheter placement
Lithotomy: feet held up by stirrups

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10
Q

To perform ____________ test strike the fork against your knee or elbow, then place the base of the fork in the midline, high on the patient’s forehead
It is important to steady the patient’s head with your other hand so that reasonably firm pressure can be applied
Then ask the patient: “Do you hear the sound louder in one ear than the other?”
If so, in which ear is it louder?
If the patient is unclear, you may ask if they hear it “everywhere.” Be careful not to ask the question in a leading manner
What is the name of this test?

A

Weber test

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11
Q

This test aims compare air conduction with bone conduction
“I’m going to put this vibrating tuning fork in two positions, one touching the bone near you ear, one a short distance from the ear. I want you to tell me which position you hear the tuning fork loudest in”
Begin by striking the tuning fork against your knee or elbow
Hold the tuning fork in one hand and place the base against the patient’s mastoid process
Allow it to stay there for 2-3 seconds to allow them to appreciate the intensity of the sound
Then promptly lift the fork off the mastoid process and place the vibrating tips about 1cm from their external auditory meatus
Leave it there again for a few seconds before taking the tuning fork away from their ear
Ask the patient in which of the positions they were able to hear the note the loudest in
These instructions are indicative of the:

A

Rinnes test

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12
Q

What is the purpose of Weber and Rinne tests?

A

Conductive hearing loss and sensorimotor hearing loss

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13
Q

A ____________ is a flat, distinct, discolored area of skin. It usually does not include a change in skin texture or thickness.

A

Macule

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14
Q

A ____________ is a solid or cystic raised spot on the skin that is less than 1 centimeter (cm) wide. It is a type of skin lesion.

A

papule

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15
Q

Which three leads are considered bipolar?

A

Lead I, II, III (limb leads) compose Einthoven’s triangle

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16
Q

What does gravida mean?

A

Total number of pregnancies

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17
Q

As a pt. is healing from _____________ ____________ she should not insert anything into the vagina for at least two to three weeks. It is normal to experience slight cramping and watery or blood-tinged discharge for up to two weeks after the procedure

A

Cervical cryosurgery

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18
Q

List the 4 vital signs

A

Temperature
Pulse
BP
Respiration/O₂ stats

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19
Q

When is body temperature the lowest?

A

In the morning

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20
Q

The root word “pyel” indicates the pelvis of _________

A

kidney

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21
Q

What is the difference between the root words “vas” and “ven”

A

Vas: vessel (any vessel or duct in the body)
Ven: vein

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22
Q

What is the difference between the root words “ot-“ and “oclu”

A

Ot: ear
Oclu: eye

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23
Q

What is the difference between the root word “angi-“ and “vas-“

A

Angi: is for blood vessels only
Vas: can be vessels or ducts anywhere, cardiovascular, lymph system, renal syste, etc.

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24
Q

Kyphosis of the back is closer to the cervical spine, where would you see kyphosis

A

Abnormal curvature of spine on upper back

Hunchback

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25
Q

Lordosis of the back occurs on the thoracic portion of the spine, where would this be?

A

Lower back curvature, seen in pregnant women

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26
Q

The suffix “-sclerosis” means:

A

hardening condition

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27
Q

What is the difference between the suffix “-phagia” and “-phasia”

A
  • phaGia: eating, swallowing

- phaSia: speech

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28
Q

What is the normal needle gauge for a ID injection?

A

27-28 gauge

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29
Q

What is the normal needle gauge for a SC injection?

A

25-26 gauge

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30
Q

What is the normal needle gauge for an IM injection?

A

20-23 gauge

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31
Q

For what type of injection would you expect to see the highest number on the needle gauge and why?

A

An ID because it needs the smallest needle which would have a higher needle gauge number

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32
Q

What needle length would you expect to see for a ID injection?

A

3/8 in

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33
Q

What needle length would you expect to see for a SQ injection?

A

1/2-5/8 in.

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34
Q

What needle length would you expect to see for an IM injection?

A

1-3 inches

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35
Q

At what angle is the pt seated in semi-fowlers position?

A

45°

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36
Q

What is the difference between Knee-chest position and Sims’ position?

A

Knee-chest: butt up in the air, prone position

Sims: laying on side with opposite leg flexed at 90° angle

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37
Q

What does the prefix “presby-“ mean?

A

Old-age related

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38
Q

What does the P wave represent?

A

Represents atrial depolarization or contraction

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39
Q

What does the QRS wave

A

Represents ventricular depolarization or contraction, no atrial activity included in this section

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40
Q

What does the T wave represent?

A

Represents ventricular repolarization is relaxtion

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41
Q

In EKGs, what is depolarization analogous to?

A

Contraction

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42
Q

In an EKG, what is repolarization analogous to?

A

Relaxation

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43
Q

______ gives patients rights over their health information and sets ______ and _______ on who can look at and receive ________ _________ _________-

A

HIPAA
rules and limits
patients’ private information

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44
Q

This organization deals with helps organizations position for the future of integrated care, strengthen patient safety and the quality of care, improve risk management and risk reduction, and provide a framework for organizational structure and management

A

TJ, The Joint Comission

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45
Q

If a provider asked you to perform a venipuncture for a blood culture, what color tube would you use and what additive is used in this scenario?

A

Color tube: Yellow

Additive: SPS

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46
Q

If a provider asked you to perform a venipuncture for a coagulation study including, PT, PTT, & thrombin, what color tube would you use and what additive is used in this scenario?

A

Color: Light blue
Additive: sodium citrate

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47
Q

If a provider asked you to perform a venipuncture for a BMP, CMP, Hgh, PSA, what color tube would you use and what additive is used in this scenario?

A

Color: Red
Additive: NONE

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48
Q

If a provider asked you to perform a venipuncture to study renal function, plasma, electrolytes what color tube would you use and what additive is used in this scenario?

A

Color: green
Additive: heparin

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49
Q

If a provider asked you to perform a venipuncture to study erythrocyte sedimentation rate & complete blood count, what color tube would you use and what additive is used in this scenario?

A

Color: lavender
Additive: EDTA

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50
Q

If a provider asked you to perform a venipuncture to determine blood glucose and lactic acid levels, which tube would you use and what additive is found here?

A

Color: gray
Additive: K+ oxalate, Na+ fluoride

51
Q

How many mL are in a fl. oz.?

A

30 mL=1 fl oz

52
Q

What is the most common size of syringes?

A

3 mL

53
Q

How would you differentiate the difference between say a bacterial infection and a fungal infection?

A

Fungal infections are going to be found on the skin more often, superficial ailment rather than bacteria that has a wider range of infection types

54
Q

What disease would you associate with the terms: muscle weakness, paralysis, fever…

A

Polio

55
Q

What type of microorganism is Trichomonsis?

A

Protozoa

56
Q

An MA applies a thin ribbon of ophthalmic ointment across the conjunctiva in which direction?

A

From Inner to Outer!

57
Q

Diabetes Mellitus is Type ___ diabetes and Diabetes Insipidus is Type ____ diabetes

A

Mellitus: Type I or II (high blood sugar)
Insipidus: not a “type of diabetes” has to do with ADH levels and ability to regulate fluids

58
Q

What is the injection site no longer used?

A

Ventro gluteal

59
Q

Which of the three types of immunity has “acquired” and “artificial” components?

A

Active immunity, antibodies & vaccine respectively

60
Q

What is the difference between standard and universal precautions?

A

STANDARD: handwashing, PPE, treating all pts as if they are infectious
UNIVERSAL: protection of healthcare workers and pts. from bloodborne pathogens, all bodily fluids are contaminated

61
Q

Which type of Hepatitis is spread via fecal/oral route?

A

Hep A

62
Q

Which form of Hepatitis has no vaccine available as treatment/prevention?

A

Hep C spread by contaminated blood i.e. needle sharing.

63
Q

Using 70% isopropyl alcohol is what type of asepsis?

A

Disinfection

64
Q

What is the name for “cleaning process that inhibits or inactivates pathogens through cleaning equipment and instruments. Rinsing and scrubbing with brush and detergent”

A

Sanitizing

65
Q

Women age 21-29 should have a pap performed every three years, after age 30 until age 65 they should have a pap every ___ years

A

5

66
Q

Seeing objects that are close well, while distant objects are blurry is known as myopia, also termed:

A

Nearsightedness

67
Q

Which type of cholesterol is considered “bad” and high levels are a risk factor for CAD

A

LDL is considered bad

68
Q

What is the range for a normal BMI?

A

18.5-24.9

69
Q

What is the BMI number seen in obese patients

A

> 30

70
Q

Hyperopia can be evaluated using the:

A

Jaeger chart

71
Q

In what direction do you apply a bandage?

A

From distal to proximal

72
Q

What is an example of a macule?

A

Freckle

73
Q

What is a pustule filled with?

A

Pus

74
Q

How many cm are in 1 inch?

A

approximately 2.5

75
Q

A interrupted base line is analogous to: _____________ ____________ wherein an electrode is disconnected and tracing goes up into the margins of the recording paper

A

Broken record

76
Q

How do you calculate an EKG?

A

Divide 1,500 by the number of small boxes between two 2 wave

77
Q

How long is an exhalation in spirometry testing?

A

6 seconds

78
Q

What type of antiseptic would you use for a blood culture draw?

A

Chlorohexadine

79
Q

Patient medical record involving: chief complaint, history, examination, detail of problem, drugs and dosages, assessment, and return for visit is ________________ medical record

A

CHEDDAR

80
Q

What types of testing require Chain of Custody

A

Drug scree, forensic studies, blood alcohol levels, and parentage studies

81
Q

What is a medicated lotion used for?

A

To control itching and reduce inflammation

82
Q

When does the MA collect vitals from a patient who is having Pulmonary function testing completed?

A

Before and after testing, not during

83
Q

What are three symptoms of Congestive Heart Failure?

A

Edema, Shortness of Breath, and Fatigue

84
Q

What angle is correct for insulin injection?

A

45°, 90° if pt is obese

85
Q

What is the normal range for Na+ levels?

A

135-145

86
Q

What is the normal range for RBC?

A

4.2-5.2

87
Q

What is the normal range for Platelets?

A

130-400

88
Q

What is the normal range for K+?

A

3.5-5.1

89
Q

What is the normal range for Hct?

A

37-54%

90
Q

What is the normal range for BUN?

A

7-25

91
Q

What is the normal range for Fasting Blood Glucose?

A

70-99

92
Q

What is the prediabetic range for Fasting blood glucose?

A

100-125

93
Q

What is the diabetic range for fasting blood glucose?

A

> 126

94
Q

What is the normal range for blood glucose?

A

70-110

95
Q

What is the expected Hgb for males?

A

15-17

96
Q

What is the expected Hgb for females

A

12-16

97
Q

In preparation for a Pap smear pt should NOT:
engage in sexual activity ____ hours prior to appt.
no douching ___-____ days prior to appt.
no OTC cream

A

24 hours

2-3 days

98
Q

How long is a cardiac event monitor worn?

A

30 days

99
Q

How many digits is the primary CPT code?

A

5

100
Q

What does AC stand for?

A

Before meal

101
Q

What does PC stand for?

A

After meal

102
Q

What does HS stand for?

A

Before bed

103
Q

If you see “determines if pt. can hear better in one ear compared to another” what audiometric test should you immediately think of?

A

Weber test

104
Q

If you see “mastiod process” what audiometric test should you automatically think of?

A

Rinne

105
Q

What is the difference between libel and slander?

A

Libel is written

Slander is Spoken

106
Q

Define a MOLST form

A

Document that specifies which treatments will be allowed during end-of-life care. Must be signed by a provider

107
Q

__________________ is the performance of an unlawful, wrongful act; for example, performing a procedure on the wrong patient

A

Malfeasance

108
Q

_______________ is the performance of a lawful action in an illegal or improper manner; for example performing the procedure on the correct patient, but doing so incorrectly

A

Misfesance

109
Q

______________ is the failure to do something that a reasonable person of ordinary prudence would do in a certain situation, or doing of something that such a person would not do

A

Negligence

110
Q

_____________________ is failure to perform a task, duty, or undertaking that one has agreed to perform or has legal duty to perform; for example, waiting to treat a patient until its too late

A

Nonfeasance

111
Q

What does the prefix “cyst-“ mean?

A

Bladder

112
Q

What insurance plan models requires a referral from a primary care provider to schedule an appointment with a dermatologist?

A

HMO

113
Q

MA can perform CLIA-waived test including: (2)

A

Centrifugation

Incubator

114
Q

What is the range for normal pH values

A

4.6-7.9

115
Q

What is normal range for specific gravity?

A

1.01-1.03

116
Q

What is the difference between CT and MRI?

A

CT: uses radiography with computer analysis of tissue density, exposure to radiation
MRI: powerful magnetic field to visualize internal tissues, organs, and structures

117
Q

What does the prefix “ipisi-“ mean?

A

Same

118
Q

What does the prefix “myringo-“ mean?

A

Tympanic membrane

119
Q

Half life of a medication referes to the:

A

Time it takes for half the medication to be processed and absorbed into the boy

120
Q

What is another name for a Mantoux test?

A

TB skin test

121
Q

Grains are most analogous to:

A

Fiber

122
Q

What is the purpose of ingesting fiber?

A

Lower cholesterol, protect against heart disease, and promote bowel movement

123
Q

Milk, eggs, butter, liver and fish are all good sources for

A

Vitamin D

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