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HIM 103 - Medical Terminology > Test 2 HIM - Chapters 3, 4, & 5 part 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 HIM - Chapters 3, 4, & 5 part 2 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

bacterial or viral infection of the nose and/or throat

A

upper respiratory infection (URI); common cold or head cold

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2
Q

infect/o-

A

disease within

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3
Q

-ion

A

action; condition

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4
Q

hyperreactivity of the bronchi and bronchioles with bronchospasm; inflammation and swelling severely narrow the lumens

A

asthma or reactive airway disease

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5
Q

-spasm

A

sudden, involuntary muscle contraction

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6
Q

prolonged, extremely severe, life-threatening asthma attack

A

status asthmaticus

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7
Q

asthm/o-

A

asthma

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8
Q

-atic

A

pertaining to

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9
Q

acute or chronic inflammation or infection of the bronchi

A

bronchitis

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10
Q

chronic, permanent enlargement and loss of elasticity of the broncioles

A

bronchiectasis

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11
Q

-ectasis

A

condition of dilation

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12
Q

types of abnormal breath sounds

A

pleural friction rub, rales, rhonchi, stridor, wheezes

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13
Q

creaking, grating or rubbing sound when the two layers of inflamed pleura rub against each other during inspiration

A

pleural friction rub

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14
Q

irregular crackling or bubbling sounds during inspiration

A

rales

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15
Q

humming, whistling, or snoring sounds during inspiration or expiration

A

rhonchi

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16
Q

high-pitched, harsh, crowing sound due to edema or obstruction in the trachea or larynx

A

stridor

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17
Q

high-pitched whistling or squeaking sounds during inspiration or expiration

A

wheezing

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18
Q

severe infection, extensive burns, or injury to the lungs damages the alveoli

A

adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

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19
Q

this develops in premature infants who produce too little surfactant because their lungs are not fully mature

A

respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) or hyaline membrane disease (HMD)

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20
Q

tract/o-

A

pulling

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21
Q

incomplete expansion or collapse of part or all of a lung due to mucus, tumor, trauma, or a foreign body that blocks the bronchus

A

atelectasis

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22
Q

atel/o-

A

incomplete

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23
Q

combination of chronic bronchitis and emphysema; caused by chronic exposure to pollution or smoking

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

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24
Q

chron/o-

A

time

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25
Q

obstruct/o-

A

blocked by a barried

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26
Q

-ive

A

pertaining to

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27
Q

em-

A

in

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28
Q

phys/o-

A

distend; grow; inflate

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29
Q

-ema

A

condition

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30
Q

hereditary, eventually fatal disease caused by a recessive gene

A

cystic fibrosis (CF)

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31
Q

cyst/o-

A

bladder; fluid-filled sac; semisolid cyst

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32
Q

fibr/o-

A

fiber

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33
Q

-osis

A

condition; process

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34
Q

localized collection of purulent material (pus) in the thoracic cavity from an infection in the lungs

A

empyema or pyothorax

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35
Q

py/o-

A

pus

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36
Q

-ema

A

condition

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37
Q

purul/o-

A

pus

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38
Q

-ent

A

pertaining to

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39
Q

chronic, irreversibly damaged alveoli that are enlarged and trap air in the lungs

A

emphysema

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40
Q

acute viral infection of the upper and lower respiratory sstem

A

influenza

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41
Q

severe, sometimes fatal, bacterial infection

A

legionnaries’ disease

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42
Q

canceorus tumor of the lungs that is more common in smokers than nonsmokers

A

lung cancer

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43
Q

malign/o-

A

cancer; intentionally causing harm

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44
Q

-ant

A

pertaining to

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45
Q

aden/o-

A

gland

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46
Q

constant exposure to inhaled particles that causes pulmonary fibrosis, and the alveoli lose their elasticity

A

occupational lung diseases

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47
Q

type of occupational lung disease caused by coal dust

A

anthracosis (col minger’s lung or black lung disease)

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48
Q

antrach/o-

A

coal

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49
Q

type of occupational lung disease caused by asbestos fibers

A

asbestosis

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50
Q

asbest/o-

A

asbestos

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51
Q

general word for any occupational lung disease caused by chronically inhaling some type of dust or particle

A

pneumoconiosis

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52
Q

coni/o-

A

dust

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53
Q

infection of some or all of the lobes of the lungs

A

pneumonia

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54
Q

-ia

A

condition; state; thing

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55
Q

caused by a foreign matter that is inhaled into the lungs

A

aspiration pneumonia

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56
Q

aspir/o-

A

breathe in; suck in

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57
Q

caused by bacteria

A

bacterial pneumonia

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58
Q

affects the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli in the lungs

A

bonchio-pneumonia

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59
Q

bacteri/o-

A

bacterium

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60
Q

involves both lungs

A

double pneumonia

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61
Q

affects part or all of just one lobe of the lung

A

lobar pneumonia

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62
Q

this type of lobar pneumonia affects all of the lobes of one lung

A

panlobar pneumonia

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63
Q

pan-

A

all

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64
Q

lob/o-

A

lobe of an organ

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65
Q

-ar

A

pertaining to

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66
Q

acute pneumonia caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

pneomococcal pneumonia

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67
Q

cocc/o-

A

spherical bacterium

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68
Q

-al

A

pertaining to

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69
Q

severe pneumonia caused by the fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci

A

Pneumocytis jiroveci pneumonia

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70
Q

type of infection that waits for an opportunity to cause disease in a person whose immune system is weakened

A

opportunistic infection

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71
Q

opportun/o-

A

taking advantage of an opportunity; well timed

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72
Q

type of pneumonia caused by a virus

A

viral pneumonia

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73
Q

mild form of pneumonia caused by the bacterium Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

walking pneumonia

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74
Q

fluid (edema) collections in the alveoli; result of backup of blood in the pulmonary circulation because of failure of the left side of the heart to adequately pump blood

A

pulmonary edema

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75
Q

vir/o-

A

virus

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76
Q

blockage of a pulmonary artery or one of its branches by an embolus

A

pulmonary embolism

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77
Q

embol/o-

A

embolus; occluding plug

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78
Q

acute viral respiratory illness that can be fatal; fever, dyspnea, and cough, together with a history of travel in an airplane or close contact with another patient w/ this syndrome

A

severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

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79
Q

lung infection caused by the bacterium Myobacterium tuberculosis and spread by airborne droplets and coughing

A

tuberculosis (TB)

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80
Q

soft nodules of necrosis produces by the bacteria in TB

A

tubercles

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81
Q

tuber/o-

A

nodule

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82
Q

-cle

A

small thing

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83
Q

presence of blood in the thoracic cavity, usually from trauma

A

hemothorax

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84
Q

accumulation of fluid in the pleural space due to inflammation or infection of the pleura and lungs

A

pleural effusion

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85
Q

effus/o-

A

pouring out

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86
Q

inflammation or infection of the pleura due to pneumonia, trauma, or tumor

A

pleurisy or pleuritis

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87
Q

-isy

A

condition of infection; condition of inflammation

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88
Q

large volume of air in the pleural space; increasingly separates the two layers of the pleura and compresses or collapses the lung

A

pneuomothorax

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89
Q

brief or prolonged absence of spontaneous respirations due to respiratory failure or respiratory arrest

A

apnea

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90
Q

a-

A

away from; without

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91
Q

middle-aged, obese patients who snore excessively have this

A

obstructive sleep apnea

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92
Q

abnormally slow rate of breathing (less than 10 breaths per minute in adults)

A

bradypnea

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93
Q

protective mechanism to forcefully expel accidentally inhaled food, irritating particles, or internally produced mucos

A

coughing

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94
Q

brady-

A

slow

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95
Q

coughing up sputum from the lungs

A

expectoration

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96
Q

coughing up blood-tinged sputum

A

hemoptysis

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97
Q

-ptysis

A

condition of coughing up

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98
Q

difficult, labored, or painful respiration due to lung disease

A

dyspnea, shortness of breath (SOB)

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99
Q

form of dyspnea that occurs after brief activity in patients with severe COPD

A

dyspnea on exertion (DOE)

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100
Q

form of dyspnea where shortness of breath is occurs at night because fluid builds up in the lungs while the patient is lying down

A

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

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101
Q

paroxysm/o-

A

sudden, sharp attack

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102
Q

need to be propped in an upright or semi-upright position in order to breathe and sleep comfortable

A

orthopnea

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103
Q

orth/o-

A

straight

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104
Q

abnomally rapid rate of breathing (greater than 20 breaths per minute in adults) that is caused by lung disease

A

tachypnea

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105
Q

complete lack (or a severely decreased level) of oxygen in the arterial blood and body tissues

A

anoxia

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106
Q

an-

A

not; without

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107
Q

decrease in heart rate and blueness of the skin that occur because of an abnormally high level of carbon dioxide and an abnormally low level of oxygen

A

asphyxia

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108
Q

bluish-gray discoloration of the skin because of a very low level of oxygen and a very high level of carbon dioxide in the blood and tissues

A

cyanosis

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109
Q

circum-

A

around

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110
Q

very high level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood

A

hypercapnia

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111
Q

very low level of oxygen in the arterial blood

A

hypoxemia

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112
Q

very low level of oxygen in the cells

A

hypoxia

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113
Q

blood test to measure the partial pressure (P) of the gases oxygen (PO2) and carbon dioxide (PCO2) in a sample of arterial blood

A

arterial blood gases (ABG)

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114
Q

blood test to measure the level of carbon monoxide in the blood of patients exposed to fires, smoke, or fumes in a closed, unventilated space

A

carboxyhemoglobin

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115
Q

procedure in which a small, noninvasive clip device is place on the patient’s index finger or earlobe to measure the degree of oxygen saturation of the blood

A

oximetry

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116
Q

procedure to measure the capacity of the lungs and the volume of air during inhalation and exhalation

A

pulmonary function test

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117
Q

procedure to determine if a patient has sleep apnea and what is causing it

A

sleep study or polysomnography

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118
Q

test to identify which bacterium is causing a pulmonary infection and to determine its sensitivity to various antibiotic drugs

A

sputum culture and sensitivity

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119
Q

poly-

A

many; much

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120
Q

somn/o-

A

sleep

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121
Q

sensitiv/o-

A

affected by; sensitive to

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122
Q

-ity

A

condition; state

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123
Q

test to determine if a patient has TB

A

tuberculosis tests

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124
Q

type of TB screening test that uses a four-pronged device to puncture the skin and introduce PPD (purified protein derivative), part of the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

tine test

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125
Q

type of TB test that uses an intradermal inject of PPD

A

Mantoux test

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126
Q

radiologic procedure that uses x-rays to create an image of the lungs

A

chest radiography or chest x-ray (CXR)

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127
Q

radiologic procedures that scan a narrow slice of tissues and create an image

A

computerized axial tomography, computerized tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging

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128
Q

nuclear medicine procedure that uses inhaled radioactive gas to show air-flow in the lungs.

A

ventilation and perfusion scan (V/Q)

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129
Q

procedure that uses a stethoscope to listen to breath sounds

A

auscultation

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130
Q

uses the finger of one hand to tap over the finger of the other hand that is spread across the patient’s back over a lobe of the lung

A

percussion

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131
Q

auscult/o-

A

listening

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132
Q

percuss/o-

A

tapping

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133
Q

procedure to ventilate the lungs and circulate the blood if the patient has stopped breathing and the heart has stopped beating

A

cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

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134
Q

procedure in which an endotracheal tube (ETT) is inserted

A

endotracheal intubation

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135
Q

tub/o-

A

tube

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136
Q

alternative to the endotracheal tube where the tube is insurted through the nasopharynx to reach the trachea

A

nasotracheal tube

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137
Q

procedure to assist a choking victim with an airway obstruction

A

heimlich maneuver

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138
Q

medical device to encourage patients to breathe deeply to prevent atelectasis

A

incentive spirometry

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139
Q

portable plastic device with a mouthpiece

A

spirometer

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140
Q

procedure to provide additional oxygen to patents with pulmonary disease

A

oxygen therapy

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141
Q

oxygen from oxygen therapy delivered through this device

A

nasal cannula or face mask

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142
Q

-ator

A

person who does; person who produces; thing that does; thing that produces

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143
Q

mechanical device that breathes for a patient or assists with some breaths

A

ventilator or respirator

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144
Q

hand-held device that is used to manually breathe for the patient on a temporary basis

A

ambu bag

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145
Q

procedure during a physical examination in which the temperature, pulse, respirations (TPR), and blood pressure (BP) are measured

A

vital signs

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146
Q

procedure that uses a lighted bronchoscope inserted through the mouth and larynx to examine the trachea and bronchi

A

bronchoscopy

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147
Q

procedure that inserts a plastic tube between the ribs and into the thoracic cavity to remove accumulated air, fluid, pus, or blood due to trauma or infection

A

chest tube insertion

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148
Q

procedure to remove part or all of a lung

A

lung resection

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149
Q

type of lung resection where a small wedge-shaped piece of lung tissue is removed

A

wedge resection

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150
Q

type of lung resection where a large piece or a segment of a lobe is removed

A

segmental resection

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151
Q

type of lung resection where an entire lobe is removed

A

lobectomy

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152
Q

type of lung resection where an entire lung is removed

A

pneumonectomy

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153
Q

resect/o-

A

cuto out; remove

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154
Q

procedure that uses a needle and a vacuum container to remove pleural fluid from the pleural space

A

thoracentesis or thoracocentesis

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155
Q

-centesis

A

procedure to puncture

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156
Q

incision into the thoracic cavity; first step of a surgical procedure involving the thoracic cavity and the lungs

A

thoracotomy

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157
Q

procedure that begins with an incision into the trachea to create an opening; tracheostomy tube is then inserted to keep the opening from closing

A

tracheostomy

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158
Q

treat respiratory infections caused by bacteria

A

antibiotic drugs

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159
Q

treat tuberculosis; several of these must be used together to be effective

A

antitubercular drugs

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160
Q

suppress the cough center in the brain

A

antitussive drugs

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161
Q

prevent and treat influenza virus infection in at-risk patients with asthma or lung disease

A

antiviral drugs

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162
Q

dilate constricted airways by relaxing the smooth muscles that surround the bronchioles

A

bronchodilator drugs

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163
Q

block the immune system from causing inflammation in the lung

A

corticosteroid drugs

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164
Q

reduce the thickness of sputum so that it can be coughed up

A

expectorant drugs

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165
Q

cortic/o-

A

cortex; outer region

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166
Q

-steroid

A

steroid

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167
Q

block leuotriene, which causes inflammation and edema

A

leukotriene receptor blocker drugs

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168
Q

stabilize mast cells and prevent them from releasing histamine that causes brochospasm during an allergic reaction

A

mast cell stabilizer drugs

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169
Q

bind to nicotine receptors and prevent them from being activated by nicotine from smoking

A

stop smoking drugs

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170
Q

A&P

A

ausculation and percussion

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171
Q

ABG

A

arterial blood gases

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172
Q

AFB

A

acid-fast bacillus

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173
Q

AP

A

anteroposterior

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174
Q

ARDS

A

adult respiratory distress syndrome; acute respiratory distress syndrome

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175
Q

BS

A

breathing sounds

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176
Q

C&S

A

culture and sensitivity

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177
Q

CF

A

cystic fibrosis

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178
Q

CO

A

carbon monoxide

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179
Q

CO2

A

carbon dioxide

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180
Q

COPD

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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181
Q

CPAP

A

continuous positive airway pressure

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182
Q

CPR

A

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

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183
Q

CT

A

computerized tomography

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184
Q

CXR

A

chest x-ray

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185
Q

DOE

A

dyspnea on exertion

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186
Q

ETT

A

endotracheal tube

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187
Q

FEV1

A

forced expiratory volume in one sec

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188
Q

FiO2

A

fraction (percentage) of inhaled oxygen

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189
Q

FVC

A

forced vital capacity

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190
Q

HMD

A

hyaline membrane disease

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191
Q

LLL

A

left lower lobe

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192
Q

LUL

A

left upper lobe

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193
Q

MDI

A

metered-dose inhaler

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194
Q

MRI

A

magnetic resonance imaging

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195
Q

O2

A

oxygen

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196
Q

PA

A

posteroanterior

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197
Q

PCO2, pCO2

A

partial pressure of carbon dioxide

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198
Q

PFT

A

pulmonary function test

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199
Q

PND

A

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

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200
Q

PO2, pO2

A

partial pressure of oxygen

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201
Q

PPD

A

packs per day (of cigs); purified protein test (TB test)

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202
Q

RA

A

room air

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203
Q

RDS

A

respiratory distress syndome

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204
Q

RLL

A

right lower lobe

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205
Q

RML

A

right middle lobe

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206
Q

RRT

A

registered respirator therapist

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207
Q

RUL

A

right upper lobe

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208
Q

SARS

A

severe acute respiratory syndrome

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209
Q

SIDS

A

sudden infant death syndrome

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210
Q

SOB

A

shortness of breath

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211
Q

TB

A

tuberculosis

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212
Q

TPR

A

temperature, pulse, and respiration

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213
Q

URI

A

upper respiratory infection

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214
Q

V/Q

A

ventilation and perfusion (scan)

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215
Q

continuous, circular body system that includes the heart and the vascular structures (blood vessels)

A

cardiovascular or circulatory system

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216
Q

vacul/o-

A

blood vessel

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217
Q

angi/o-

A

blood vessel; lymphatic vessel

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218
Q

vas/o-

A

blood vessel; vas deferens

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219
Q

circulat/o-

A

movement in a circular route

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220
Q

-ory

A

having the function of

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221
Q

purpose of the cardiovascular system

A

move the blood to every part of the body as it transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste

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222
Q

muscular organ that contracts at least once every second to pump blood throughout the body

A

heart

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223
Q

heart contains these four champers

A
  • right atrium
  • right ventricle
  • left atrium
  • left ventricle
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224
Q

atri/o-

A

atrium; chamber that is open at the top

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225
Q

ventricul/o-

A

ventricle; chamber that is filled

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226
Q

central wall that divides the heart into right and left sides

A

septum

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227
Q

inferior tip of the heart

A

apex

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228
Q

sept/o-

A

dividing wall; septum

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229
Q

apic/o-

A

apex; tip

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230
Q

these four valves control the flow of blood through the heart

A
  • tricuspid
  • pulmonary
  • mitral
  • aortic
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231
Q

this valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle; it has 3 triangular cusps

A

tricuspid valve

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232
Q

this valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

A

pulmonary valve

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233
Q

this valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle; it has 2 cusps

A

mitral or bicuspid valve

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234
Q

this valve is located between the left ventricle and aorta

A

aortic valve

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235
Q

rope-like stands attached to their valve leaflets; found in the tricuspid and mitral valves

A

chordae tendinae

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236
Q

S1 or first heart sound, “lubb,” is caused by?

A

sound is made as the tricuspid and mitral valves close

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237
Q

S2 or second heart sound, “dubb,” is caused by?

A

sound is made as the pulmonary and aortic valves close

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238
Q

muscular layer of the heart

A

myocardium

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239
Q

my/o-

A

muscle

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240
Q

innermost layer that lines the atria, ventricles, and heart valves

A

endocardium

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241
Q

outermost layer; surrounds the heart as the pericardial sac and secretes paricardial fluid

A

pericardium

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242
Q

part of the pericardium that is next to the surface of the heart

A

visceral pericardium or epicardium

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243
Q

part of the pericardium that is the outer wall of the pericardial sac

A

parietal pericardium

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244
Q

slippery, watery fluid that allows the two membranes to slide past each other as the heart contracts and relaxes

A

pericardial fluid

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245
Q

explain the process that pumps blood to the body

A

myocardium around the two atria contracts, forcing blood into the two ventricles > myocardium around the two ventricles contracts > blood in the right ventricle goes into the pulmonary trunk and pulmonary arteries that go to the lungs > blood in the left ventricle goes into the aorta that goes to the entire body

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246
Q

why is the myocardium the thickest on the left side of the heart?

A

because it is the left ventricle that must work the hardest to pump blood to the entire body

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247
Q

what are the great vessels?

A

aorta, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and pulmonary arteries and veins

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248
Q

reflects the close relationship between the heart and the thoracic cavity

A

cardiothoracic

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249
Q

pariet/o-

A

wall of a cavity

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250
Q

peri-

A

around

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251
Q

-um

A

period of time; structure

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252
Q

vascular channels through which blood circulates in the body

A

blood vessels

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253
Q

refers to the blood vessels associated with a particular organ

A

vasulature

254
Q

-ature

A

system composed of

255
Q

smooth inner lining that promotes the flow of blood

A

endothelium or intima

256
Q

theli/o-

A

cellular layer

257
Q

large blood vessels

A

arteries

258
Q

arteries branch into smaller _____

A

arterioles

259
Q

arteri/o-

A

artery

260
Q

arter/o-

A

artery

261
Q

-ole

A

small thing

262
Q

Characteristics/functions shared by arteries

A
  1. carry blood away from the heart to the body or to the lungs
  2. most arteries carry bright red blood that has a high level of oxygen. the pulmonary arteries from the heart to the lungs cary dark red-purple blood that has a low level of oxygen.
  3. most arteries lie deep beneath the skin. the few that lie near the surface bulge each time they contract and can be felt as a pulse.
  4. all arteries have smooth muscle in their walls
263
Q

contraction of the smooth muscle that causes the lumen of the artery decreases in size

A

vasoconstriction

264
Q

relaxation of the smooth muscle that causes the lumen of the artery to increase in size

A

vasodilation

265
Q

constrict/o-

A

drawn together; narrowed

266
Q

dilat/o-

A

dilate; widen

267
Q

smallest blood vessels in the body; lumen of these blood vessels is so small that blood cells must pass through in a single file

A

capillaries

268
Q

capill/o-

A

capillary; hair-like structure

269
Q

what connects the arterioles and venules?

A

a network of capillaries

270
Q

these small veins combine to form a large vein

A

venules

271
Q

ven/o-

A

vein

272
Q

characteristics/fuctions shared by veins

A
  1. all veins carry blood from the body and lungs to the heart
  2. most veins carry dark red-purple blood that has a low level of oxygen. the pulmonary veins from the lungs to the heart carry bright red blood that has just picked up oxygen in the lungs.
  3. largest veins have valves that keep the blood flowing in one direction–back toward the heart
  4. many veins are near the surface of the body and can be seen just under the skin as bluish, sometimes bulging lines
273
Q

phleb/o-

A

vein

274
Q

largest artery in the body

A

aorta

275
Q

travels from the heart in a superior direction

A

ascending aorta

276
Q

these arteries to the myocardium are the first arteries to branch off from the ascending aorta

A

coronary arteries

277
Q

coron/o-

A

structure that encircles like a crown

278
Q

the ascending aorta becomes this inverted, U-shaped segment

A

aortic arch

279
Q

3 major arteries that branch off from the aortic arch

A
  • brachiocephalic trunk
  • left common carotid artery
  • left subclavian artery
280
Q

what two arteries does the brachiocephalic trunk branch into?

A
  • right common carotid artery

* right subclavian artery

281
Q

carot/o-

A

sleep; stupor

282
Q

-id

A

origin; resembling; source

283
Q

sub-

A

below; underneath

284
Q

clav/o-

A

clavicle; collar bone

285
Q

-ian

A

pertaining to

286
Q

these arteries bring oxygenated blood to the neck, face, head, and brain

A

carotid arteries

287
Q

these arteries bring oxygenated blood to the shoulders

A

subclavian arteries

288
Q

continuation of the subclavian arteries in the area of the armpit

A

axillary arteries

289
Q

axill/o-

A

armpit

290
Q

continuation of the axillary arteries that brings oxygenated blood to the upper arm

A

brachial artery

291
Q

brachi/o-

A

arm

292
Q

two divisions of the brachial artery

A

radial and ulnar arteries

293
Q

division of the brachial artery that brings oxygenated blood to the thumb side of the lower arm

A

radial artery

294
Q

division of the brachial artery that brings oxygenated blood to the little finger side of the lower arm

A

ulnar artery

295
Q

radi/o-

A

forearm bone; radiation; x-rays

296
Q

uln/o-

A

forearm bone; ulna

297
Q

this artery travels inferiorly through the thoracic cavity and branches into arteries that bring oxygenated blood to the esophagus, intercostal muscles, diaphragm, upper spinal cord, and back

A

thoracic aorta

298
Q

as the thoracic aorta goes through the diaphragm it becomes this artery; brings oxygenated blood to the organs in the abdominopelvic cavity

A

abdominal aorta

299
Q

branches of the abdominal aorta that provide blood to the kidneys

A

renal arteries

300
Q

ren/o-

A

kidney

301
Q

ilio-

A

hip bones; ilium

302
Q

in the pelvic cavity, the abdominal aorta ends and splits in two to form the inverted Y of these arteries

A

right and left iliac arteries

303
Q

bring oxygenated blood to the hip and groin

A

iliac arteries

304
Q

continuation of the iliac artery which brings oxygenated blood to the upper leg

A

femoral artery

305
Q

as the femoral artery nears the knee joint, it becomes this artery

A

popliteal artery

306
Q

poplite/o-

A

back of the knee

307
Q

femor/o-

A

femur; thigh bones

308
Q

popliteal artery divides into these arteries

A

tibial and peroneal arteries

309
Q

artery that brings oxygenated blood tot he front and back of the lower leg

A

tibial artery

310
Q

artery that brings oxygenated blood to the little toe side of the lower leg along the fibula bone

A

peroneal artery

311
Q

tibi/o-

A

shin bone; tibia

312
Q

perone/o-

A

fibula; lower leg bone

313
Q

originate from the pulmonary trunk which comes from the right ventricle of the heart; carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs

A

pulmonary arteries

314
Q

two major veins of the body

A

superior vena cava and inferior vena cava

315
Q

carries deoxygenated blood from the head, neck, arms, and chest to the right atrium

A

superior vena cava

316
Q

carries deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body (abdomen, pelvis, and legs, but not the lungs)

A

inferior vena cava

317
Q

carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart

A

pulmonary veins

318
Q

carries deoxygenated blood from the head to the superior vena cava

A

jugular vein

319
Q

carries blood from the intestines to the liver

A

portal vein

320
Q

carries deoxygenated blood from the leg to the groin

A

saphenous and femoral veins

321
Q

jugul/o-

A

jugular; throat

322
Q

port/o-

A

point of entry

323
Q

saphen/o-

A

clearly visible

324
Q

two pathways through which blood circulation occurs

A
  • systemic

* pulmonary

325
Q

arteries, arterioles, cappilaries, venules, and veins everywhere in the body except the lungs

A

systemic circulation

326
Q

arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins going to, within, and coming from the lungs

A

pulmonary circulation

327
Q

refers to the close connection between the heart and the lungs

A

cardiopulmonary

328
Q

system/o-

A

body as a whole

329
Q

systemic circulation through the veins

A

dark red-purple blood coming from cells in the upper body travels through capillaries, venules, and veins to the superior vena cava > blood coming from cells in the lower body travels through capillaries, venules, and veins to the inferior vena cava > blood from the superior and inferior venae cavae travels through the right atrium > tricuspid vale > right ventricle

330
Q

pulmonary circulation

A

once blood enters the right ventricle, pulmonary circulation begins > blood travels through the pulmonary valve, pulmonary trunk, and pulmonary arteries and arterioles to the capillaries in the lungs > in a capillary beside an alveolus, gas exchange occurs > blood becomes bright red > blood travels through the pulmonary veins > left atrium of the heart

331
Q

systemic circulation through the arteries

A

once blood enters the left atrium of the heart, circulation is systemic again > blood travels through the mitral valve > left ventricle > aortic vale > aorta > upper and lower body > oxygenated blood is distributed to the entire body via arteries, arterioles, and capillaries

332
Q

heart contracts and relaxes in a regular rhythm that is coordinated by

A

the conduction system

333
Q

conduct/o-

A

carrying; conveying

334
Q

pacemaker of the heart located in the wall of the right atrium

A

sinoatrial node (SA node)

335
Q

sin/o-

A

channel; hollow cavity

336
Q

electrical impulse travels from the SA node through ___ located in the right atrium near the septum

A

atrioventricular node (AV node)

337
Q

electrical impulse travels from the AV node through the _____

A

bundle of His

338
Q

electrical impulse travels from the bundle of His and into the right and left _____

A

bundle branches

339
Q

bundle branches end in a network of nerves called

A

Purkinje fibers

340
Q

heartbeat physiology

A

SA node sends electrical impulse > both atria contract > impulse travels to the AV node > bundle of His > right and left bundle branches > Purkinje fibers > both ventricles contract

341
Q

contraction

A

systole

342
Q

resting period between contractions

A

diastole

343
Q

systol/o-

A

contracting

344
Q

diastol/o-

A

dilating

345
Q

when the SA node controls the heart beat, the heart is in?

A

normal sinus rhythm

346
Q

these sites can take over and produce an abnormal heart rhythm is the SA node fails to produce impulses, those impulses are blocked, or if these areas become hyperexcited

A

ectopic sites

347
Q

ectop/o-

A

outside

348
Q

polar/o-

A

negative state; positive state

349
Q

fract/o-

A

bend; break up

350
Q

cusp/o-

A

point; projection

351
Q

syndrome that includes acute ischemia of the myocardium and unstable angina pectoris

A

acute coronary syndome

352
Q

ich/o-

A

block; keep back

353
Q

-emia

A

condition of the blood; substance in the blood

354
Q

mid-to-severe chest pain caused by ischemia of the myocardium

A

angina pectoris

355
Q

crushing, squeezing, heaviness, or pressure-like sensation in the chest, with pain extending up into the jaw, teeth, neck, or down the left arm, often with extreme sweating and a sense of doom

A

anginal pain

356
Q

angin/o-

A

angina

357
Q

enlargement of the heart, usually due to congestive heart failure

A

cardiomegaly

358
Q

any disease condition of the heart muscle that includes heart enlargement and heart failure

A

cardiomyopathy

359
Q

-pathy

A

disease

360
Q

left ventricle is dilated and the myocardium is so stretched that it can no longer contract to pump blood

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

361
Q

cardiomyopathy with an unknown cause

A

idiopathic cardiomyopathy

362
Q

idi/o-

A

unknown; individual

363
Q

inability of the heart to pump sufficient ammounts of blood; caused by coronary artery disease or hypertension

A

congestive heart failure (CHF)

364
Q

during early CHF, the myocardium undergoes hypertrophy (enlargement) and this temporarily improves blood flow; patient is in ____?

A

compensated heart failure

365
Q

congest/o-

A

accumulation of fluid

366
Q

-trophy

A

process of development

367
Q

compens/o-

A

compensate; counterbalance

368
Q

-ated

A

composed of; pertaining to a condition

369
Q

in later stages of CHF, the heart can no longer enlarge and the myocardium becomes flabby and loses its ability to contract; patient is in _____

A

decompensated heart failure

370
Q

de-

A

reversal of; without

371
Q

death of myocardial cells due to severe ischemia

A

myocardial infarction (MI); heart attack

372
Q

infarct/o-

A

small area of dead tissue

373
Q

necr/o-

A

dead body; dead cells; dead tissue

374
Q

inflammation and bacterial infection of the endocardium lining a heart valve

A

endocarditis

375
Q

structural abnormality in which the leaflets of the mitral valve do not close tightly; can be congenital or caused by infection

A

mitral valve prolapse (MVP)

376
Q

(occurs in fetal heart as it develops) congenital heart abnormality where the aorta is abnormally narrow

A

coarctation of the aorta

377
Q

coarct/o-

A

pressed together

378
Q

(occurs in fetal heart as it develops) congenital heart abnormality where there is a permanent hole in the interatrial septum

A

atrial septal defect (ASD)

379
Q

(occurs in fetal heart as it develops) congenital heart abnormality where there is a pemanent hole in the interventricular septum

A

ventricular septal defect (VSD)

380
Q

(occurs in fetal heart as it develops) congenital heart abnormality where there are four defects: ventricular septal defect, narrowing of the pulmonary trunk, hypertrophy of the right ventricle, and abnormal posotion of the aorta

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

381
Q

tetr/a-

A

for

382
Q

(occurs in fetal heart as it develops) congenital heart abnormality where the aorta incorrectly comes from the right ventricle, and the pulmonary trunk incorrectly comes from the left ventricle

A

transposition of the great vessels

383
Q

(occurs at the time of birth during the change from fetal circulation to normal newborn circulation) ductus arteriosus fails to close

A

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

384
Q

pat/o-

A

open

385
Q

-ent

A

pertaining to

386
Q

(occurs at the time of birth during the change from fetal circulation to normal newborn circulation) foramen ovale fails to close

A

Patent foramen ovale

387
Q

abnormal heart sound created by turbulence as the blood leaks through a defective heart valve

A

murmur

388
Q

infection or inflammation of the pericardial sac with an excessive accumulation of pericardial fluid

A

pericarditis

389
Q

when an excessive accumulation of pericardial fluid compressed the heart and prevents it from beating

A

cardiac tamponade

390
Q

tampon/o-

A

stop up

391
Q

-ade

A

action; process

392
Q

autoimmune response to a noncardiac streptococcal infection, such as strep throat

A

rheumatic heart disease

393
Q

rheumat/o-

A

watery discharge

394
Q

these irregular collections of platelets, fibrin, and bacteria form on the valves during rheumatic heart disease

A

vegetations

395
Q

vegetat/o-

A

frowth

396
Q

condition where the valves become scarred and narrowed

A

stenosis

397
Q

sten/o-

A

constriction; narrowness

398
Q

any type of irregularity in the rate or rhythm of heart

A

arrhythmia or dysrhythmia

399
Q

a-

A

away from; without

400
Q

rrhythm/o-

A

rhythm

401
Q

-ia

A

condition; state; thing

402
Q

arrhythmia in which the heart beats too slowly

A

bradycardia

403
Q

arrhythmia in which there is a very fast, uncoordinated quivering of the myocardium

A

fibrillation

404
Q

arrhythmia in which there is a very fast but regular rhythm (250 beats per minute) of the atria or ventricles

A

flutter

405
Q

arrhythmia in which electrical impulses cannot travel normally from the SA node to the Purkinje fibers

A

heart block

406
Q

in ____ degree heart block, the electrical impulses reach the ventricles but are very delayed

A

first

407
Q

in ____ degree heart block, only some of the electrical impulses reach the ventricles

A

second

408
Q

in ____ degree heart block (complete heart block), no electrical impulses reach the ventricles

A

third

409
Q

in ____ block, the electrical impulses are unable to travel down the right or left bundle of His

A

right or left bundle branch

410
Q

fibrill/o-

A

muscle fiber; nerve fiber

411
Q

arrhythmia in which there are one or more extra contractions in between systole and distole

A

premature contraction

412
Q

two types of premature contractions

A

premature atrial contractions (PACs) and premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)

413
Q

repeating pattern of one premature contraction followed by one normal contractions

A

bigeminy

414
Q

repeating pattern of one premature contraction followed by two normal contractions

A

trigeminy

415
Q

extra contraction between systole and distole

A

extrasystole

416
Q

contract/o-

A

pull together

417
Q

extra-

A

outside

418
Q

-systole

A

contraction

419
Q

two premature contractions occurring together

A

couplet

420
Q

arrhythmia in which bradycardia alternates with tachycardia

A

sick sinus syndrome

421
Q

arrhythmia in which there is a fast but regular rhythm (up to 200 beats/minute)

A

tachycardia

422
Q

type of tachycardia that occurs because of an abnormality in the SA node.

A

sinus tachycardia

423
Q

type of tachycardia that occurs when an ectopic site somewhere in the atrium prduces an electrical impulse that overrides the SA node rhythm

A

atrial tachycardia

424
Q

type of tachycardia that occurs when an ectopic site above (superior to) the ventricles produces an electrical impulse

A

supraventricular tachycardia

425
Q

supra-

A

above

426
Q

episode of tachycardia that occurs suddenly and then goes away without treatment

A

paroxysmal tachycardia

427
Q

complete absence of a heartbeat

A

asystole; cardiac arrest

428
Q

uncomfortable sensation felt in the chest during a premature contraction of the heart

A

palpitation

429
Q

palpit/o-

A

throb

430
Q

area of dilation and weakness in the wall of an artery; with each heartbeat, the weakened artery wall balloons outward

A

aneurysm

431
Q

aneurysm that enlarges by tunneling between the layers of the artery wall

A

dissecting aneurysm

432
Q

dissect/o-

A

cut part

433
Q

-ing

A

doing

434
Q

aneurysm/o-

A

aneurysm; dilation

435
Q

progressive degenerative changes that produce a narrowed, hardened artery.

A

arteriosclerosis; arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)

436
Q

low-density lipoproteins (LPDs) in the blood deposit cholesterol and form an _____ inside the artery

A

atheroma or atheromatous plaque

437
Q

scler/o-

A

hard; sclera of the eye

438
Q

ather/o-

A

soft, fatty substance

439
Q

-oma

A

mass; tumor

440
Q

atheromat/o-

A

fatty deposity; fatty mass

441
Q

harsh, rushing sound made by blood passing through an artery narrowed and roughed by atherosclerosis

A

bruit

442
Q

arteriosclerosis of the coronary arteries

A

coronary artery disease (CAD)

443
Q

elevated levels of lipids (fats) in the blood

A

hyperlipidemia

444
Q

lipid/o-

A

fat; lipid

445
Q

elevated level of cholesterol in the blood

A

hypercholesterolemia

446
Q

cholesterol/o-

A

cholesterol

447
Q

elevated level of triglycerides in the blood

A

hypertriglyceridemia

448
Q

triglycerid/o-

A

triglyceride

449
Q

elevated blood pressure (above 140/90 mm Hg)

A

hypertension (HTN)

450
Q

blood pressure readings between 120/80 mm Hg and 140/90 mm Hg

A

prehypertension

451
Q

tens/o-

A

tension; pressure

452
Q

pre-

A

before; in front of

453
Q

blood pressure lower than 90/60 mm Hg

A

hypotension

454
Q

sudden, temporary, but self-correcting decrease in systolic blood pressure that occurs when the patient changes from a lying to a standing position and experiences lightheadedness

A

orthostatic hypotension

455
Q

stat/o-

A

standing still; staying in one place

456
Q

atherosclerosis of the arteries in the legs

A

peripheral artery disease (PAD)

457
Q

in PAD, blood flow or _____ to the extremities is poor, and there is ischemia of the tissues

A

perfusion

458
Q

In PAD, patient experiences pain in the calf or ______ while walking

A

intermittent claudication

459
Q

fus/o-

A

pouring out

460
Q

per-

A

through; through out

461
Q

claudicat/o-

A

limping pain

462
Q

peripher/o-

A

outer aspects

463
Q

any disease of the arteries of the extremities; includes PAD and Raynaud’s

A

peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

464
Q

inflammation of a vein, usually accompanied by infection; area around the vein is painful and the skin overlying the vein may show a red streak

A

phlebitis

465
Q

phleb/o-

A

vein

466
Q

phlebitis with the formation of a blood clot

A

thrombophlebitis

467
Q

thromb/o-

A

blood clot

468
Q

sudden, severe vasoconstriction and spasm of the arterioles in the fingers and toes, often triggered by cold or emotional upset

A

Raynaud’s disease

469
Q

damaged or incompetent valves in a vein that allow blood to flow backward and collect in the preceding section of vein. the vein becomes distended with blood, twisting and bulging under the surface of the skin

A

varicose veins

470
Q

varic/o-

A

varicose vein; varix

471
Q

-ose

A

full of

472
Q

test to measure the levels of enzymes that are released into the blood when myocardial cells die during a myocardial infarction

A

cardiac enzymes

473
Q

Creatine kinase (CK) is found in all muscle cells, but a specific form of it (____) is only found in myocardial cells; rises 2-6 hours after a myocardial infarction

A

CK-MB or creatine phosphokinase (CPK)

474
Q

Found in many different cells, including the heart; level begins to rise 12 hours after a myocardial infarction

A

Lactate dehyrogenase (LDH)

475
Q

test to measure the level of inflammation in the body

A

c-reactive protein (CRP)

476
Q

test included as part of a cardiac risk assessment; this amino acid damages the blood vessel walls

A

homocysteine

477
Q

test that provides a comprehensive picture of the blood levels of cholesterol and triglycerides and their lipoprotein carriers

A

lipid profile

478
Q

test to measure the level of two proteins that are released into the blood when myocardial cells dia

A

troponin

479
Q

procedure performed to study the anatomy and pressures in the heart

A

cardiac catheterization

480
Q

catheter/o-

A

catheter

481
Q

-ization

A

process of creating; process of inserting; process of making

482
Q

procedure performed to evaluate the heart’s response to exercise in patients with chest pain, palpitations, or arrhythmias

A

cardiac exercise stress test

483
Q

procedure that records the electrical activity of the heart

A

electrocardiography (ECG, EKG)

484
Q

electr/o-

A

electricity

485
Q

procedure to map the heart’s conduction system in a patient with an arrhythmia

A

electrophysiologic study (EPS)

486
Q

physi/o-

A

physical function

487
Q

procedure during which the patients heart rate and rhythm are continuously monitored as an outpatient for 24 hours

A

Holter monitor

488
Q

procedure performed instead of a cardiac stress test for patients who cannot exercise vigorously.

A

pharmacologic stress test

489
Q

procedure to monitor a patient’s heart rate and rhythm in the hospital

A

telemetry

490
Q

tele/o-

A

distance

491
Q

procedure in which radiopaque contraste dye is injected into a blood vessel to fill and outline it

A

angiography

492
Q

radiopaque conrast dye is injected into an artery to show blockage, narrowed areas, or aneurysms

A

arteriography

493
Q

radiopaque contrast dye is injected into a vein to show weakened valves and dilated walls

A

venography

494
Q

procedure that uses a transducer to produce ultra high-frequency sound waves that are bounced off of the heart to create an image

A

echocardiography

495
Q

creates a real-time picture of the heart and its chambers and valves as it contracts and relaxes

A

two-dimensional echocardiography

496
Q

patient swallows an endoscopic tube that contains a tiny, sound-emitting transducer. this is positioned in the esophagus directly behind the heart

A

transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)

497
Q

images the flow of blood in an artery or vein

A

doppler ultrasonography

498
Q

son/o-

A

sound

499
Q

ultra-

A

beyond; higher

500
Q

combines the ultrasound image with a color-coded Doppler image; variations in blood flow and turbulence are shown (faster flow = red, slower flow = blue)

A

color flow duplex ultrasonography

501
Q

nuclear medicine procedure that uses the radioactive tracer technetium-99m; also calculates the ejection fraction

A

multiple-gated acquisition (MUGA) scan, radionuclide ventriculography (RNX), or gated blood pool scan

502
Q

nucle/o-

A

nucleus of an atom; nucleus of a cell

503
Q

-ide

A

chemically modified structure

504
Q

nuclear medicine procedure that combines a cardiac exercise stress test with intravenous injections of a radioactive tracer; tracer collects in those parts of the myocardium that have the best perfusion

A

myocardial perfusion scan or cardiolite stress test

505
Q

procedure that is a variation of a myocardial perfusion scan or a MUGA scan. instead of being stationary above the patient’s chest, the gamma camera is moved in a circle around the patient; creates images that are “slices”

A

single-photon emission computerized tomography (SPECT)

506
Q

procedure that uses a stethoscope to listen to the heart sounds

A

auscultation

507
Q

during auscultation, stethoscope is placed at the ____, which is at the apex of the heart

A

point of maximum impulse (PMI)

508
Q

procedure to circulate the blood and ventilate the lungs after a patient has stopped breathing and the heart has stopped

A

cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

509
Q

procedure to treat an arrhythmia that cannot be controlled with antiarrhythmic drugs; uses a defibrillator

A

cardioversion

510
Q

procedure in which a sclerosing drug is injected into a varicose vein

A

sclerotherapy

511
Q

-therapy

A

treatment

512
Q

pulse in the wrist; most commonly used site

A

radial pulse

513
Q

pulse used during an emergency because, if the patient is in shock, there is less blood flow to the extremities

A

carotid pulse

514
Q

pulse that can be heard with a stethoscope and is also used to evaluate the heart rhythm and heart sounds

A

apical pulse

515
Q

blood pressure is measured with a _____ and a stethoscope

A

sphygmomanometer

516
Q

sphygm/o-

A

pulse

517
Q

man/o-

A

frenzy; thin

518
Q

top number in blood pressure reading, which represents the force of the contraction of the ventricles

A

systolic pressure

519
Q

second number in blood pressure reading

A

diastolic pressure

520
Q

procedure to remove an aneurysm and repair the defect in the artery wall

A

aneurysmectomy

521
Q

procedure used during open heart surgery inwhich the patient’s blood is rerouted through a cannula in the femoral vein to a heart-lung machine

A

cardiopulmonary bypass

522
Q

procedure to remove plaque from an occluded carotid artery

A

carotid endarterectomy

523
Q

procedure to bypass an occluded coronary artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium

A

coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

524
Q

suturing of one blood vessel to another

A

anastomosis

525
Q

anastom/o-

A

create an opening between two structures

526
Q

procedure to remove a severely damaged heart from a patient with end-stage heart failure and insert a new heart rom a donor

A

heart transplantation

527
Q

procedure in which an automated device is implanted to control the heart rate and rhythm in a patient with an arrhythmia

A

pacemaker insertion

528
Q

procedure to reconstruct a coronary artery that is narrowed because of atherosclerosis

A

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

529
Q

balloon within the catherer is inflated. it compresses the atheromatous plaque and widens the lumen of the artery. the balloon is then deflated and the catheter is removed

A

balloon angioplasty

530
Q

procedure that uses a needle to puncture the pericardium and withdraw inflammatory fluid accumulated in the pericardial sac

A

pericardiocentesis

531
Q

-centesis

A

procedure to puncture

532
Q

procedure to destroy ectopic areas in the heart that are emitting electrical impulses and producing arrhythmias

A

radiofrequency ablation (RDA)

533
Q

ablat/o-

A

destroy; take away

534
Q

uses heat to collapse and seal large varicose veins

A

radiofrequency catheter occlusion

535
Q

occlus/o-

A

close against

536
Q

procedure to replace a severely damaged or prolapsed heart valve with an artificial valve or posthesis

A

valve replacement

537
Q

if the replacement heart valve comes from an animal, it is known as a ____

A

xenograft

538
Q

prosthet/o-

A

artificial part

539
Q

xen/o-

A

foreign

540
Q

-graft

A

tissue for implant; tissue for transplant

541
Q

procedure to reconstruct a heart valve to correct stenosis or prolapse

A

valvoplasty or valvuloplasty

542
Q

used the cult the valve during valvoplasty

A

valvulotome

543
Q

valv/o-

A

valve

544
Q

valvul/o-

A

valve

545
Q

-tome

A

area with distinct edges; instrument used to cut

546
Q

treat congestive heart failure and hypertension

A

ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor drugs

547
Q

treat arrhythmias

A

antiarrhythmic drugs

548
Q

prevent a blood blot from forming in patients with arteriosclerosis, atrial fibrillation, previous myocardial infarction, or an artificial heart valve

A

anticoagulant drugs

549
Q

anti-

A

against

550
Q

coagul/o-

A

clotting

551
Q

-ant

A

pertaining to

552
Q

treat hypertension

A

antihypertensive drugs

553
Q

prevents heart attacks; prevents blood cloths from forming by keeping platelets from sticking together

A

aspirin

554
Q

treat angina pectoris and hypertension; decrease the heart rate and dilate the arteries by block B receptors

A

beta-blocker drugs

555
Q

treat angina pectoris and hypertension; block the movement of Na ions into myocardial cells and smooth muscle cells of the artery walls, causing the heart rate and blood pressure to decrease

A

calcium channel blocker drugs

556
Q

treat congestive heart failure; decrease heart rate and strengthen heart’s contractions

A

digitalis drugs

557
Q

block sodium from being absorbed from the tubule back into the blood

A

diuretic drugs

558
Q

treat a nonbeating heart by stimulating it to contract

A

drugs for cardiac arrest

559
Q

treat hypercholesterolemia

A

drugs for hyperlipidemia

560
Q

treat angina pectoris; dilate veins to decrease amount of work that the heart must due and dilate arteries to decrease blood pressure

A

nitrate drugs

561
Q

treat a blood clot that is blocking blood flow through an artery

A

thrombolytic drugs

562
Q

lyt/o-

A

break down; destroy

563
Q

AAA

A

abdominal aortic aneurysm

564
Q

ACE

A

angiotension-converting enzyme

565
Q

ACS

A

acute coronary syndrome

566
Q

AED

A

automatic external defibrillator

567
Q

AI

A

aortic insufficiency; apical impulse

568
Q

AICD

A

automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator; automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

569
Q

AMI

A

acute myocardial infarction

570
Q

AS

A

aortic stenosis

571
Q

ASCVD

A

arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease

572
Q

ASD

A

atrial septal defect

573
Q

ASHD

A

arteriosclerotic heart disease

574
Q

AV

A

atrioventricular

575
Q

BP

A

blood pressure

576
Q

BPM, bpm

A

beats per minute

577
Q

CABG

A

coronary artery bypass graft

578
Q

CAD

A

coronary artery disease

579
Q

CCU

A

coronary care unit

580
Q

CHF

A

congestive heart failure

581
Q

CK-MB

A

creatine kinase-MB

582
Q

CPK-MB

A

creatine phosphokinase-MB

583
Q

CPR

A

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

584
Q

CRP

A

C-reactive protein

585
Q

CV

A

cardiovascular

586
Q

DSA

A

digital subtraction angiography

587
Q

ECG/EKG

A

electrocardiography; electrocardiogram

588
Q

HDL

A

high-density lipoprotein

589
Q

HTN

A

hypertension

590
Q

JVD

A

jugular venous distention

591
Q

LA

A

left atrium

592
Q

LBBB

A

left bundle branch block

593
Q

LDH

A

lactic dehydrogenase

594
Q

LDL

A

low-density lipoprotein

595
Q

LV

A

left ventricle

596
Q

LVAD

A

left ventricular assist device

597
Q

LVH

A

left ventricular hypertrophy

598
Q

MI

A

myocardial infarction

599
Q

mm HG

A

millimeters of mercury

600
Q

MR

A

mitral regurgitation

601
Q

MUGA

A

multiple-gated acquisition scan

602
Q

MVP

A

mitral valve prolapse

603
Q

NSR

A

normal sinus rhythm

604
Q

P

A

pulse (rate)

605
Q

PAC

A

premature atrial contraction

606
Q

PAD

A

peripheral artery disease

607
Q

PCI

A

percutaneous coronary intervention

608
Q

PDA

A

patent ductus arteriosus

609
Q

PMI

A

point of maximum impulse

610
Q

PTCA

A

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

611
Q

PVC

A

premature ventricular contraction

612
Q

PVD

A

peripheral vascular disease

613
Q

RA

A

right atrium

614
Q

RBBB

A

right bundle branch block

615
Q

RFA

A

radiofrequency ablation

616
Q

RNV

A

radionuclide ventriculography

617
Q

S1

A

first heart sound

618
Q

S2

A

second heart sound

619
Q

S3

A

third heart sound

620
Q

S4

A

fourth heart sound

621
Q

SA

A

sinoatrial

622
Q

SBE

A

subacute bacterial endocarditis

623
Q

SPECT

A

single-photon emission computerized tomography

624
Q

SVT

A

supraventricular tachycardia

625
Q

TEE

A

transesophageal echocardiography; transesophageal echocardiogram

626
Q

TPR

A

temperature, pulse, and respiration

627
Q

V fib

A

ventricular fibrillation

628
Q

VLDL

A

very-low density lipoprotein

629
Q

VSD

A

ventricular septal defect

630
Q

V tach

A

ventricular tachycardia

HIM 103 - Medical Terminology (5 decks)

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