Test 2 HIM - Chapters 3, 4, & 5 part 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

gastr/o-

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

intestin/o-

A

intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

-al

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Other terms for Gastrointestinal System:

A
  • gastrointestinal tract
  • digestive system
  • digestive tract
  • alimentary canal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

digest/o-

A

break down food; digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

-ive

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

aliment/o-

A

food; nourishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

-ary

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

or/o-

A

mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gastrointestinal system begins where?

A

In the mouth or oral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is contained in the oral cavity?

A

Teeth, gums, tongue, hard palate, soft palate, and uvula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

lingu/o-

A

tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

gloss/o-

A

tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

gustat/o-

A

sense of taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

-ory

A

having the function of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Receptors on the tongue perceive taste and send this sensory information where?

A

Gustatory cortex in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lubricant that moistens food as it is chewed and swallowed

A

saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What enzyme is contained in saliva?

A

Amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

saliv/o-

A

saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Three pairs of salivary glands:

A
  • parotid glands
  • sublingual glands
  • submandibular glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Process of chewing food

A

mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

par-

A

beside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ot/o-

A

ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

-id

A

origin; resembling; source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

sub-

A

below; underneath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

lingu/o-

A

tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mandibul/o-

A

lower jaw; mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

mastic/o-

A

chewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

-ation

A

being; having; process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Process of swallowing food

A

deglutition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

degluti/o-

A

swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

-tion

A

being; having; process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

pharyng/o-

A

pharynx; throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

-eal

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does the body prevent swallowed food from going into the larynx and into the lungs?

A

When the food is swallowed, muscles in the neck pull the larynx upward towards the epiglottis. This seals off the opening so that the food does not enter into the larynx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

flexible, muscular tube that connect the pharynx to the stomach

A

esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

esopha/o-

A

esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What process does the esophagus use to move food towards the stomach?

A

peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

peri-

A

around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

stal/o-

A

contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

-sis

A

condition; process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

pylor/o-

A

pylorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

-ic

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

large, elongated sac in the upper abdominal cavity

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Four regions of the stomach

A
  • Cardia
  • Fundus
  • Body
  • Pylorus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gastric mucosa is arranged in thick, deep folds called

A

Rugae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Two sphincters in the stomach

A
  • Lower esophageal sphincter

* Pyloric sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Semisolid mixture of partially digested food, saliva, digestive enzymes, and fluids in the stomach

A

Chyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Long, hollow tube that receives chyme from the stomach

A

Small intestine or small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Three parts of the small intestine:

A
  • Duodenum
  • Jejunum
  • Ileum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

duoden/o-

A

duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

10-inch, C shaped segment that begins at the stomach and ends at the jejunum

A

duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Second part of the small intestine; 8-foot segment that repeatedly twists and turns in the abdominal cavity

A

jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Final part of the small intestine; 12-foot long segment where absorption of nutrients is completed

A

ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

jejun/o-

A

jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

ile/o-

A

ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Ileum contains thousands of these small, thin structures

A

villi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Central, open area

A

lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Larger tube that receives undigested material and some water from the small intestine

A

Large intestine or large bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Four parts of the large intestine:

A
  • cecum
  • colon
  • rectum
  • anus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

short sac; appendix hangs from it

A

cecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

cec/o-

A

cecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

appendic/o-

A

appendic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

-ix

A

thing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The walls of the large intestine contain these puckered pouches that can greatly expand as needed

A

haustra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Longest part of the large intestine; travels through all 4 quadrants of the abdomen

A

colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

4 parts of the colon:

A
  • ascending colon
  • transverse colon
  • descending colon
  • sigmoid colon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

colon/o-

A

colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

short, straight segment that connects to the outside of the body

A

rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

the external opening of the rectum located between the buttocks

A

anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

rect/o-

A

rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

an/o-

A

anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

proct/o-

A

rectum and anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

celi/o-

A

abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

This cavity contains the largest organs of the GI system

A

abdominopelvic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

double-layer serous membrane; one later lines the walls of the abdominopelvic cavity and the other later surrounds each of the organs

A

peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

peritone/o-

A

peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

periton/o-

A

peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

watery fluid that fills the spaces between organs and allows them to slide past each other during the movements of digestion; secreted by the peritoneum

A

paritoneal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Supports the stomach and hangs down as a broad, fatty apron to cover and protect the small intestine; extension of the peritoneum

A

omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The peritoneum also becomes this thick, fan-shaped sheet that supports the jejunum and ileum

A

mesentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

meso-

A

middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The blood supply to the stomach, small intestine, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas comes from this branch of the aorta

A

celiac trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Accessory organs of digestion

A

liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Large, dark red-brown organ located in the upper abdomen.

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

hepat/o-

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

-cyte

A

cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

yellow-green, bitter-tasting, thick fluid

A

bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Bile is a combination of what?

A

bile acids, mucus, fluid, and two pigments, bilrubin and biliverdin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

all of the bile ducts are collectively known as

A

biliary tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Bile produced by the liver flows through the ____ and into the ____ towards the duodenum

A

common hepatic duct; common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

bili/o-

A

bile; gall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

rub/o-

A

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

-in

A

substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

teardrop-shaped, dark green sac posterior to the liver; concentrates and stores bile

A

gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The presence of what in the duodenum causes the gallbladder to contract and release it’s bile

A

fatty chyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

yellow gland shaped like an elongated triangle

A

pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Duct that the pancreas secrets its digestive enzymes through to the duodenumo

A

pancreatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Two types of digestion:

A
  • mechanical

* chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What processes are involved in mechanical digestion?

A
  • mastication
  • deglutition
  • peristalsis
  • emulsification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Hormone secreted by the duodenum that causes the gallbladder to contract and release bile

A

cholecystokin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

cholecyst/o-

A

gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

kin/o-

A

movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

emulsific/o-

A

liquid with suspended particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Chemical digestion uses what to break down foods?

A
  • enzymes

* acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

3 substances the stomach secretes during chemical digestion

A
  • hydrochloric acid (HCl)
  • pepsinogen
  • gastrin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

strong acid that breaks down food fibers, converts pepsinogen to the digestive enzyme pepsin, and kills microorganisms in food

A

HCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

inactive substance converted by HCl to pepsin

A

pepsinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

digestive enzyme that breaks down protein foods into protein molecules

A

pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

hydr/o-

A

fluid; water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

chlor/o-

A

cholide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

pepsin/o-

A

pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

-gen

A

that which produces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

peps/o-

A

digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

hormone that stimulates the release of more HCl and pepsinogen

A

gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Chemical digestion continues in the small intestine as cholecystokin from the duodenum stimulates the pancreas to secrete what?

A
  • amylase
  • lipase
  • protein-digesting enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

amyl/o-

A

carbohydrate; starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

-ase

A

enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

lip/o-

A

fat; lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

lact/o-

A

milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

villi of the small intestine produce this digestive enzyme

A

lactase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

This enzyme breaks down the sugars in carbohydrates, starches, and milk to the simple sugar glucose

A

lactase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is absorbed through the intestinal wall and into the blood in the small intestine?

A

nutrients and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is absorbed through the intestinal wall and into the blood in the large intestine?

A

any remaining water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

absorpt/o-

A

absorb; take in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

chez/o-

A

pass feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

fec/o-

A

feces; stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

fec/a-

A

feces; stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

This occurs when undigested materials and water are eliminated from the body in a solid waste form known as feces

A

elimination; defecation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

de-

A

reversal of; without

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

mucous membrane that lines the GI system and produces thin mucus

A

mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

hard bone and posterior soft tissues that form the roof of the mouth

A

palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

first part of the stomach just after the esophagus

A

cardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

rounded, top part of the stomach

A

fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

narrowed, last part of the stomach just before it joins the duodenum

A

pylorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

decreased appetite because of disease or gastrointestinal side effects of a drug

A

anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

an-

A

not; without

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

orex/o-

A

appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

-ia

A

condition; state; thing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

difficult or painful eating or swallowing

A

dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

dys-

A

painful; abnormal; difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

phag/o-

A

swallowing; eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

excessive overeating due to an overactive thyroid gland, diabetes mellitus, or a psychiatric illness

A

polyphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

poly-

A

many; much

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

inflammation and cracking of the lips and corners of the mouth due to infection, allergies, or a nutritional deficiency

A

cheilitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

cheil/o-

A

lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

-itis

A

infection of; inflammation of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

stone that forms in the salivary gland and becomes lodged in the duct, blocking the flow of saliva

A

sialolithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

sial/o-

A

saliva; salivary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

lith/o-

A

stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

-iasis

A

process; state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

-lith

A

stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

inflammation of the oral mucosa

A

stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

stomat/o-

A

mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

consists of reccuring outbreaks of small, painful ulcers (canker sores) on the lips or oral mucosa

A

aphthous stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

aphth/o-

A

ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

-ous

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

inflammation that involves only the tongue

A

glossitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Indigestion with mild, temporary epigastric pain, sometimes with gas or nausea

A

dyspepsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Swollen, protruding veins in the mucosa of the lower esophagus or stomach

A

esophageal varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach due to spicy foods, excess acid production, or a bacterial infection

A

gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Acute inflammation or infection of the stomach and intestines due to a virus (flu) or bacterium

A

gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Chronic inflammation and irritation due to reflux of stomach acid back into the esphagus because the LES does not close tightly.

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Temporary inflammation of the esophagus due to reflux of stomach acid.

A

heartburn; pyrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

pyr/o-

A

burning; fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

-osis

A

condition; process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Vomitting of blood because of bleeding in the stomach or esophagus

A

hematemesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

eme/o-

A

vomitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

emet/o-

A

vomitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Expelled food or chyme

A

vomitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

reflux of small amounts of food and acid back into the mouth, but without vomitting

A

regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

regurgitat/o-

A

backward flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Excessive vomitting during the first months of pregnancy

A

hyperemisis gravidarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Chronic irritation, burning pain, and erosion of the mucosa to form an ulcer (stomach, esophagus, and duodenum)

A

peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

cancerous tumor of the stomach that begins in the glands in the gastric mucosa

A

stomach cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

stomach cancer is categorized as an?

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

cancer/o-

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

aden/o-

A

gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

carcin/o-

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

-oma

A

mass; tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

abnormal absence of peristalsis in the small and large intestines.

A

ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

occurs after the intestines are manipulated during abdominal surgery and peristalsis is slow to return

A

postoperative ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

post-

A

after; behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

operat/o-

A

perform a procedure; surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Telescoping of one segment of intestine inside the lumen of the next segment

A

intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

intussuscept/o-

A

receive within

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

twisting or rotating of the intestine around itself because of a structural abnormality of the mesentery

A

volvulus or malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

mal-

A

bad; inadequate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

rotat/o-

A

rotate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

inflammation and infection of the appendix

A

appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

common disorder in babies; crampy abdominal pain soon after eating

A

colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

cancerous tumor of the colon

A

colon cancer or colorectal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

weakness in the wall of the colon where the mucosa forms a pouch or tube

A

diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

condition of multiple diverticula

A

diverticulosis or diverticular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Inflammation, abdominal pain, infection, and fever caused by feces trapped inside of diverticulum

A

diverticulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

diverticul/o-

A

diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

bacterial infection caused by an unusual strain of E. coli; there is watery diarrhea mixed with blood and mucus

A

dysentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

-entery

A

condition of the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

autoimmune disorder and toxic reaction to the gluten found in certain grains; damages the small intestine

A

gluten sensitivity enteropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

-pathy

A

disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Gluten sensitivity enteropathy is also known as

A

celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

-ac

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

chronic inflammation of various parts of the small and large intestines

A

inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

204
Q

Type of IBD that affects the ileum and colon; has areas of normal mucosa, “skip areas,” and then inflammation

A

Chron’s disease or regional enteritis

205
Q

Type of IBD that affects the colon and rectum and causes inflammation and ulcers

A

Ulcerative colitis

206
Q

ulcerat/o-

A

ulcer

207
Q

disorder of the function of the colon, although the mucosa of the colon never shows any visible signs of inflammation

A

irritable bowel syndrome

208
Q

IBS is also known as

A

Spastic colon or mucous colitis

209
Q

spast/o-

A

spasm

210
Q

small, fleshy, benign, or precancerous growth in the mucosa of the colon

A

polyp

211
Q

has a thin stalk that supports an irregular, ball-shaped top

A

pedunculated polyp

212
Q

mound with a broad base

A

sessile polyp

213
Q

an inherited condition in which family members have multiple colon polyps

A

benign familial polyposis

214
Q

polyp/o-

A

polyp

215
Q

swollen, protruding veins in the rectum (internal) or on the skin around the anus (external)

A

hemorrhoid

216
Q

hemorrh/o-

A

flowing of blood

217
Q

-oid

A

resembling

218
Q

inflammation of the rectum due to radiation therapy for cancer or from ulcers or infection

A

proctitis

219
Q

protruding wall of the rectum pushes on the adjacent vaginal wall, causing it to collapse inward and block the vaginal canal or even to protrude to the outside of the body

A

rectocele

220
Q

-cele

A

hernia

221
Q

failure to have a regular, soft bowel movement

A

constipation

222
Q

constip/o-

A

compacted feces

223
Q

severe, unrelieved constipation that can lead to a mechanical obstruction of the bowel

A

obstipation

224
Q

obstip/o-

A

severe constipation

225
Q

hardened feces that becomes a stone-like mass

A

fecalith

226
Q

abnormally frequent, loose, and sometimes watery feces

A

diarrhea

227
Q

dia-

A

completely; through

228
Q

-rrhea

A

discharge; flow

229
Q

presence of excessive amounts of gas (flatus) in the stomach or intestines

A

flatulence

230
Q

flatul/o-

A

gas; flatus

231
Q

-ence

A

state

232
Q

blood in the feces

A

hematochezia

233
Q

chez/o-

A

pass feces

234
Q

dark, tar-like feces that contains digested blood from bleeding in the esophagus or stomach

A

melena

235
Q

inability to voluntarily control bowel movements

A

incontinence

236
Q

in-

A

in; not; within

237
Q

contin/o-

A

hold together

238
Q

greasy, frothy, foul-smelling feces that contain undigested fats

A

steatorrhea

239
Q

steat/o-

A

fat

240
Q

fibrous bands that form after surgery in the abdominal cavity; bind intestines to each other or other organs

A

adhesions

241
Q

adhes/o-

A

stick to

242
Q

weakness in the muscle of the diaphragm or abdominal wall; intestine bulges through this defect

A

hernia

243
Q

Hernias are named after what?

A

how easily the intestine can move back into its normal position and their location

244
Q

moves back and forth between the hernia sac and the abdominopelvic cavity

A

sliding or reducible hernia

245
Q

intestine swells within the hernia sac and becomes trapped; the intestine can no longer be pushed back into the abdomen

A

incarcerated (irreducible) hernia

246
Q

incarcer/o-

A

imprison

247
Q

-ated

A

composed of; pertaining to a condition

248
Q

incarcerated hernia whose blood supply has been cut off; leads to tissue death (necrosis)

A

strangulated hernia

249
Q

hernia where the stomach bulges up into the opening where the esophagus comes through the diaphragm

A

hiatal hernia

250
Q

hiat/o-

A

gap; opening

251
Q

hernia that occurs anywhere on the anterior abdominal wall (except at the umbilicus)

A

ventral hernia

252
Q

ventr/o-

A

abdomen; front

253
Q

hernia at the umbilicus (navel)

A

umbilical hernia

254
Q

umbilic/o-

A

umbilicus; navel

255
Q

umbilical hernia that is present at birth and is only covered with peritoneum, without any fat or abdominal skin

A

omphalocele

256
Q

omphal/o-

A

navel; umbilicus

257
Q

hernia in the groin; in a male patient, the intestine can slide through the inguinal canal and into the scrotum

A

inguinal hernia

258
Q

hernia along the suture line of a prior abdominal surgical incision

A

incisional hernial

259
Q

incis/o-

A

cut into

260
Q

inflammation and infection of the peritoneum; occurs when an ulcer, diverticulum, or cancerous tumor breaks through the wall of the stomach or intestines or when an inflamed appendix ruptures

A

peritonitis

261
Q

accumulation of ascitic fluid in the abdominopelvic cavity

A

ascites

262
Q

ascit/o-

A

ascites

263
Q

chronic, progressive inflammation and finally irreversible degeneration of the liver, with nodules and scarric

A

cirrhosis

264
Q

cirrh/o-

A

yellow

265
Q

inflammation and infection of the liver from the hepatitis virus

A

hepatitis or viral hepatitis

266
Q

vir/o-

A

virus

267
Q

acute but short-lived infection; most people recover completely. caused by exposure to water or food that is contaminated with feces from a person who is infected with this virus

A

hepatitis A virus or infectious hepatitis

268
Q

acute infection; many people recover completely. when it is chronic, there may not be symptoms for 20 years but during this time the person is a carrier and can infect others. Spread via blood or during sexual activity via saliva or vaginal secretions.

A

hepatitis B virus or serum hepatitis

269
Q

begins as an acute infection that continues as a chronic infection. caused by exposure to contaminated needles or the blood of an infected person. not readily transmitted via sexual activity.

A

hepatitis C virus

270
Q

secondary infection caused by a mutated hepatitis virus. only develops in patients who already have hepatitis B.

A

hepatitis D virus or delta hepatitis

271
Q

similar to hepatitis A but rarely occurs in the USA

A

hepatitis E virus

272
Q

enlargement of the liver due to cirrhosis, hepatitis, or cancer

A

hepatomegaly

273
Q

enlargement of both the liver and the spleen

A

hepatosplenomegaly

274
Q

splen/o-

A

spleen

275
Q

yellowish discoloration of the skin and whites of the eyes; increased level of unconjugated bilirubin in the blood

A

jaundice

276
Q

a patient that does not have jaundice is?

A

nonicteric

277
Q

non-

A

not

278
Q

icter/o-

A

jaundice

279
Q

jaundice caused by a gallstone obstructing the flow of bile in the bile ducts

A

obstructive jaundice

280
Q

obstruct/o

A

blocked by a barrier

281
Q

cancerous tumor of the liver

A

liver cancer, hepatoma, or hepatocellular carcinoma

282
Q

cellul/o-

A

cell

283
Q

-ar

A

pertaining to

284
Q

acute or chronic inflammation of the bile ducts because of cirrhosis or gallstones

A

cholangitis

285
Q

acute or chronic inflammation of the gallbladder

A

cholecystitis

286
Q

one or more gallstones in the gallbladder

A

cholelithiasis

287
Q

chol/e-

A

bile; gall

288
Q

cholecyst/o-

A

gallbladder

289
Q

cholangi/o-

A

bile duct

290
Q

cancerous tumor of the pancreas

A

pancreatic cancer

291
Q

inflammation or infection of the pancreas

A

pancreatitis

292
Q

blood test for the major protein molecule in the blood; liver disease results in low levels

A

albumin

293
Q

blood test for the enzyme found in both liver cells and bone cells; elevated level due to liver or bone disease

A

alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

294
Q

blood test for the enzymes which are mainly found in the liver; elevated blood levels occur when damaged liver cells release these enzymes

A

alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST)

295
Q

blood test for unconjugated, conjugated, and total bilirubin levels; levels are abnormal when these is liver diease or gallstones

A

bilirubin

296
Q

conjugated bilirubin is also known as _____ because it reacts directly with the reagent used to perform the lab test

A

direct bilirubin

297
Q

Unconjugated bilirubin or ______ only reacts when another substance is added to the reagent

A

indirect bilirubin

298
Q

blood test for this enzyme found mainly in the liver; elevated blood level occurs when damaged liver cells release this enzyme into the blood

A

gamma-glutamyl tanspeptidase (GGT, GGTP)

299
Q

panel of individual blood tests performed at the same time to give a comprehensive picture of liver function

A

liver function tests (LFTs)

300
Q

rapid screening test to detect the presence of the bacterium Helicobacter pylori

A

CLO test

301
Q

test that uses a culture to determine which bacterium is causing an intestinal infection and a sensitivity test to determine which antibiotic drugs it is sensitive to.

A

culture and sensitivity (C&S)

302
Q

test for occult (hidden) blood in the feces

A

fecal occult blood test or stool guaiac test

303
Q

test to determine the amount of hydrocloric acid in the stomach

A

gastric analysis

304
Q

test to determine if these is a parasitic infection in the GI tract

A

ova and parasites

305
Q

procedure that uses liquid contrast medium inserted into the rectum and colon

A

barium enema (BE)

306
Q

procedure that uses a contrast dye to outline the bile ducts

A

cholangiography

307
Q

contrast dye is injected intravenously, travels through the blood to the liver, and is excreted with the bile into the gallbladder

A

intravenous cholangiography (IVC)

308
Q

needle is passed through the abdominal wall, and the contrast dye is injected into the liver

A

percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)

309
Q

endoscope is used and the contrast dye is injected by a catheter to visualize the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

310
Q

per-

A

through; throughout

311
Q

retro-

A

backward; behind

312
Q

-grade

A

pertaining to going

313
Q

procedure that uses x-rays to create images of abdominal organs and structures in many thin, successive “slices”

A

computerized axial tomography (CAT, CT)

314
Q

procedure that uses an x-ray without contrast dye. patient lies flat, in te supine position, on the x-ray table

A

flat plate of the abdomen

315
Q

procedure that uses ultra high-frequency sound waves to create images of the gallbladder

A

gallbladder ultrasound

316
Q

procedure that uses a strong magnetic field to align protons in the atoms of the patient’s body; protons emit signals to form very detailed images of abdominal organs and structures as thin, successive “slices”

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

317
Q

procedure that uses tablets of iodinated contrast dye taken orally. contrast dye is dissolved in the small intestine, absorbed into the blood, travels to the liver, and is excreted with bile into the gallbladder.

A

oral cholecystography (OCG)

318
Q

procedure that uses a liquid contrast medium that is swallowed; medium coats and outlines the walls of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum

A

upper GI series (UGI) or barium swallow

319
Q

procedure to insert a long, flexible nasogastric tube through the nose into the stomach

A

insertion of nasogastric (NG) tube

320
Q

procedure to remove fluid from the abdomen using a needle and a vacuum contained

A

abdominocentesis

321
Q

-centesis

A

procedure to puncture

322
Q

procedure to remove the appendix because of appendicitis

A

appendectomy

323
Q

-ectomy

A

surgical removal

324
Q

procedure to remove a small piece of tissue from an ulcer, polyp, mass, or tumor

A

biopsy

325
Q

bi/o-

A

life; living organism; living tissue

326
Q

-opsy

A

process of viewing

327
Q

procedure to remove a section of diseased intestine and rejoin the intestine

A

bowel resection and anastomosis

328
Q

anastom/o-

A

create an opening between two structures

329
Q

resect/o-

A

cut out; remove

330
Q

procedure to remove the gallbladder

A

cholecystectomy

331
Q

minimally invasive cholecystectomy that uses a laparoscope

A

laparoscopic cholecystectomy

332
Q

lapar/o-

A

abdomen

333
Q

scop/o-

A

examine with an instrument

334
Q

-scope

A

instrument used to examine

335
Q

procedure to make an incision in the common bile duct to remove a gallstone

A

choledocholithotomy

336
Q

choledoch/o-

A

common bile duct

337
Q

-tomy

A

process of cutting; process of making an incision

338
Q

procedure to remove the diseased part of the colon and create a new opening in the abdominal wall where feces can leave the body

A

colostomy

339
Q

type of colostomy where part of the ileum and colon are removed and a stoma is created

A

ileostomy

340
Q

-stomy

A

surgically created opening

341
Q

procedure that uses an endoscope to interally examine the GI tract

A

endoscopy

342
Q

endo-

A

innermost; within

343
Q

visualization and examination of the esphagus

A

esophagoscopy

344
Q

visualization and examination of the stomach

A

gastroscopy

345
Q

visualization and examination of the esophagus first, followed by the stomach, and then the duodenum.

A

esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

346
Q

visualization and examination of the rectum and sigmoid colon using a sigmoidoscope

A

sigmoidoscopy

347
Q

visualization and examination of the entire colon after the colonoscope is passed through the rectum

A

colonoscopy

348
Q

procedure that uses a long abdominal incision to open the abdominopelvic cavity widely so that it can be explored

A

exploratory laparotomy

349
Q

procedure to remove all or part of the stomach because of a cancerous or benign tumor

A

gastrectomy

350
Q

procedure to treat severe obesity

A

gastroplasty, gastric stapling, gastric bypass

351
Q

procedure to create a temporary or permanent opening from the abdominal wall into the stomach to insert a gastrostomy feeding tube.

A

gastrostomy

352
Q

-plasty

A

process of reshaping by surgery

353
Q

permanent feeding tube is inserted through the abdominal wall and then guided via endoscope to be positioned in the stomach

A

percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)

354
Q

procedure to remove hemorrhoids from the rectum or around the anus

A

hemorrhoidectomy

355
Q

procedure that uses sutures to close a defect in the muscle wall where there is a hernia

A

heniorrhaphy

356
Q

-rrhaphy

A

procedure of suturing

357
Q

procedure to create a temporary or permanent opening from the abdominal wall into the jejunum to insert a jejunostomy feeding tube

A

jejunostomy

358
Q

procedure to remove a severely damaged liver from a patient with end-stage liver disease and insert a new liver from a donor

A

liver transplantation

359
Q

transplant/o-

A

move something across and put in another place

360
Q

procedure to remove one or more polyps from the colon using forceps or a snare positioned around the thin stalk of a pedunculated polyp

A

polypectomy

361
Q

drugs that treat heartburn by neutralizing acid in the stomach

A

antacid drugs

362
Q

treat gastrointestinal infections caused by bacteria

A

antibiotic drugs

363
Q

treat diarrhea by slowing peristalsis which increases water absorption from the feces

A

antidiarrheal drugs

364
Q

treat nausea and vomitting and motion sickness

A

antiemetic drugs

365
Q

dissolve gallstones (instead of surgical removal)

A

drugs for gallstones

366
Q

treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers by blocking H2 (histamine 2) receptors in the stomach that trigger the release of HCl acid.

A

H2 blocker drugs

367
Q

treat constipation by softening the stool, adding dietary fiber, or directly stimulating the intestinal mucosa

A

laxative drugs

368
Q

treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers by blocking the final step in the production of HCl acid

A

proton pump inhibitor drugs

369
Q

bullet-shaped capsule that contains a drug and is inserted into the rectum

A

suppository

370
Q

supposit/o-

A

placed beneath

371
Q

-ory

A

having the function of

372
Q

ABD, abd

A

abdomen

373
Q

AC, a.c.

A

before meals (Latin: ante cibum)

374
Q

ALP

A

alkaline phosphatase

375
Q

ALT

A

alanine aminotransferase; alanine transaminase

376
Q

AST

A

aspartate aminotransferase; aspartate transaminase

377
Q

BE

A

barium enema

378
Q

BM

A

bowel movement

379
Q

BRBPR

A

bright red blood per rectum

380
Q

BS

A

bowel sounds

381
Q

C&S

A

culture and sensitivity

382
Q

CAT

A

computerized axial tomography

383
Q

CBD

A

common bile duct

384
Q

CLO

A

Campylobacter-like organism

385
Q

CT

A

computerized tomography

386
Q

EGD

A

esophagogastroduodenoscopy

387
Q

ERCP

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

388
Q

GERD

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease

389
Q

GGPT, GGT

A

gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase

390
Q

GI

A

gastrointestinal

391
Q

HAV

A

hepatitis A virus

392
Q

HBV

A

hepatitis B virus

393
Q

HCl

A

hydrochloric acid

394
Q

HCV

A

hepatitis C virus

395
Q

IBD

A

inflammatory bowl disease

396
Q

IBS

A

irritable bowel syndrome

397
Q

IVC

A

intravenous cholangiography

398
Q

LES

A

lower esophageal sphincter

399
Q

LFTs

A

liver function tests

400
Q

LLQ

A

left lower quadrant

401
Q

LUQ

A

left upper quadrant

402
Q

MRI

A

magnetic resonance imaging

403
Q

N&V

A

nausea and vomitting

404
Q

NG

A

nasogastric

405
Q

NPO, n.p.o

A

nothing per mouth (Latin: nil per os)

406
Q

O&P

A

ova and parasites

407
Q

OCG

A

oral cholecystography

408
Q

PC, p.c.

A

after meal (Latin: post cibum)

409
Q

PEG

A

percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy

410
Q

PEJ

A

percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy

411
Q

PO, p.o.

A

by mouth (Lation: per os)

412
Q

PTC

A

percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography

413
Q

PUD

A

peptic ulcer disease

414
Q

RLQ

A

right lower quadrant

415
Q

RUQ

A

right upper quadrant

416
Q

SGOT

A

serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (older name for AST)

417
Q

SGPT

A

serum glutamix-pyruvic transaminase (older name for ALT)

418
Q

UGI

A

upper gastrointestinal (series)

419
Q

consists of the right and left lungs and the air passageways that connect the lungs to the outside of hte body

A

respiratory system

420
Q

re-

A

again and again; backward; unable to

421
Q

spir/o-

A

breathe; coil

422
Q

-atory

A

pertaining to

423
Q

What makes up the upper respiratory system?

A

nose, nasal cavity, and pharynx (throat)

424
Q

What makes up the lower respiratory system?

A

larynx (voice box), trachea (windpipe), bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

425
Q

Purpose of the respiratory system?

A

bring oxygen into the body and expel the waste product carbon dioxide

426
Q

this divides the nasal cavity in the center

A

nasal septum

427
Q

sept/o-

A

dividing wall; septum

428
Q

The 3 long, bony projections on each side of the nasal cavity

A

superior, middle, and inferior turbinates or nasal conchae

429
Q

turbin/o-

A

scroll-like structure; turbinate

430
Q

-ate

A

composed of; pertaining to

431
Q

nasal cavity is lined with what?

A

mucosa

432
Q

area of the throat that is posterior to the nasal cavity

A

nasopharynx

433
Q

area of the throat that is posterior to the oral cavity

A

oropharynx

434
Q

area of the throat that is posterior to the larynx

A

laryngopharynx

435
Q

-pharynx

A

pharynx; throat

436
Q

or/o-

A

mouth

437
Q

laryng/o-

A

larynx; voice box

438
Q

pharynx divides into these two parts

A

larynx and esophagus

439
Q

voice box; remains open during respiration and speech, allowing air to pass in and out through the vocal cords

A

larynx

440
Q

lid-like structure

A

epiglottis

441
Q

epi-

A

above; upon

442
Q

glott/o-

A

glottis of the larynx

443
Q

vertical passageway for inhaled and exhaled air

A

trachea

444
Q

trache/o-

A

trachea; windpipe

445
Q

inferior end of the trachea splits to become the right and left primary ____

A

bronchi

446
Q

primary bronchus enters the lung and branches into smaller _____

A

bronchioles

447
Q

unlike the trachea and bronchi, the smallest bronchioles have no what?

A

cartilage for support; they have walls of smooth muscle

448
Q

bronchiol/o-

A

bronchiole

449
Q

refers to the bronchi and the lungs

A

bronchopulmonary

450
Q

pulmon/o-

A

lung

451
Q

trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles look like the trunk and branches of an upside-down tree and are called ____

A

bronchial tree

452
Q

bronchial tree is line with these small hairs

A

cilia

453
Q

spongy, air-filled structures

A

lungs

454
Q

large divisions whose dividing lines are visible on the outer surface of the lung

A

lobes

455
Q

which lung is larger and has one more lobe than the other?

A

right; has 3 lobes

456
Q

rounded top of each lung

A

apex

457
Q

an indentation on the medial surface of the lung; bronchus enters the lung through here

A

hilum

458
Q

Inside the long, the bronchus branches into bronchioles, which branch into these hollow spheres of cells that expand and contract with each breath

A

alveoli

459
Q

secreted by the alveoli; a protein-fat compound that reduces surface tension and keeps the walls of the alveoli from collapsing with each exhalation

A

surfactant

460
Q

the alveoli are the pulmonary ____, the functional part of the lung

A

parenchyma

461
Q

hil/o-

A

indentation

462
Q

bony cage that consists of the sternum anteriorly, ribs laterally, and vertebrae posteriorly

A

thorax

463
Q

thorac/o-

A

chest; thorax

464
Q

pector/o-

A

chest

465
Q

steth/o-

A

chest

466
Q

between the lungs lies this irregularly shaped area that contains the trachea, heart, and esophagus

A

mediastinum

467
Q

sheet of skeletal muscle that lies along the inferior border of the thoracic cavity

A

diaphragm

468
Q

each lung is located within a ____ that is surrounded by ____, a double-layered serous membrance

A

pleural cavity; pleura

469
Q

layer next to the lung’s surface

A

visceral pleura

470
Q

layer next to the wall of the thoracic cavity

A

parietal pleura

471
Q

pleur/o-

A

lung membrane

472
Q

viscer/o-

A

large internal organs

473
Q

pariet/o-

A

wall of a cavity

474
Q

the pleura secretes pleural fluid into this narrow space between its two layers

A

pleural space

475
Q

slipper, watery fluid that allows the 2 layers to slide smoothly past each other as the lungs expand and contract during respiration

A

pleural fluid

476
Q

breathing in

A

inhalation; inspiration

477
Q

breathing out

A

exhalation; expiration

478
Q

in-

A

in; not; within

479
Q

hal/o-

A

breathe

480
Q

pne/o-

A

breathing

481
Q

these centers in the brain regulate the depth and rate of respiration; send nerve impulses to the phrenic nerve that cause the diaphragm to contract

A

respiratory control centers

482
Q

phren/o-

A

diaphragm; mind

483
Q

ex-

A

away from; out

484
Q

normal depth and rate of respiration

A

eupnea

485
Q

Five separate process of respiration

A
  • Ventiliation
  • External respiration
  • Gas transport
  • Internal respiration
  • Cellular respiration
486
Q

eu-

A

good; normal

487
Q

-pnea

A

breathing

488
Q

movement of air in and out of the lungs

A

ventilation

489
Q

movement of oygen from inhaled air into the alveoli and then into the blood and movement of carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveoli and then into exhaled air

A

external respiration

490
Q

ventil/o-

A

movement of air

491
Q

ox/i, ox/o-, ox/y

A

oxygen

492
Q

capn/o-

A

carbon dioxide

493
Q

hem/o-

A

blood

494
Q

glob/o-

A

comprehensive; shaped like a globe

495
Q

gen/o-

A

arising from; produced by

496
Q

-ated

A

composed of; pertaining to a condition

497
Q

transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood

A

gas transport

498
Q

compound formed when oxygen molecules in the blood bind with the hemoglobin in red blood cells

A

oxyhemoglobin

499
Q

movement of oxygen from the blood into the cells and movement of carbon dioxide from the cells into the blood

A

internal respiration

500
Q

oxygen is used by the cells to produce energy in the process of metabolism

A

cellular respiration

501
Q

metabol/o-

A

change; transformation

502
Q

-ism

A

disease from a specific cause; process

503
Q

pneum/o-

A

air; lung

504
Q

pneumon/o-

A

air; lung

505
Q

diaphragmat/o-

A

disaphragm

506
Q

cost/o-

A

rib