Test 2

Question 1

Wound healing: Proliferation phase
Second stage of wound healing that begins by day three after injury, includes:
• wound _________
• ______ formation
• wound re-epithelialization (new _____ _____)
• fibroblasts initiating contraction
• erythema and beginning of scar formation

Answer 1

revascularization
scab
skin layer

Question 2

Generalization of skills

Answer 2

Ability to transfer a newly learned skill across a variety of contexts and activities, facilitated by:
• maintaining client motivation
• contextually relevant practice
• direct exposure to a task

Question 3

Group maintenance roles types

Answer 3

Types include:
• harmonizer
• compromiser
• follower

Question 4

Project group

Answer 4

A type of group in which there is a specific, outcome-based activity or project
• group members have some interaction through sharing and cooperation

Question 5

Egocentric cooperative group

Answer 5

A type of group in which members focus on completing a project or activity over several sessions
• group members choose level of interaction with each other, which is often based on the need to complete various aspects of the project

Question 6

Sensorimotor group

Answer 6

Intervention used primarily in pediatric and geriatric settings, includes the provision of sensory experiences through movement or play in a therapeutically structured group

Question 7

Diplopia

Answer 7

Visual impairment secondary to a neurological event, also referred to as double vision, may cause loss of depth perception and increase risk of falls.

Interventions for managing symptoms may include:
• prism correction
• full occlusion eye-patching
• partial visual occlusion

Question 8

3 Interventions for managing diplopia symptoms may include:

Answer 8

• prism correction
• full occlusion eye-patching
• partial visual occlusion

Question 9

Oculomotor dysfunction

Answer 9

Visual impairment characterized by lack of efficient eye movements and eye-tracking skills due to a cranial nerve lesion or neural disruption of the extraocular muscles, functional deficits may include difficulties with:
• reading speed
• copying skills
• writing skills

Question 10

Unilateral spatial neglect

Interventions may include: awareness training, limb _______ , ____house strategy, partial visual occlusion, scanning techniques, videotaped feedback, and ________ adaptation

Answer 10

activation
light
environmental

Question 11

Hemianopsia

Answer 11

Visual impairment secondary to a brain lesion that results in loss of vision to half the visual field

Compensatory strategies may include:
• visual anchoring
• scanning training
• environmental modification

Question 12

Anchoring technique

Answer 12

Strategy used in visual scanning training where a visual cue (e.g., a solid line or a bright colored, thin strip) is placed in the impaired field of view and the client is encouraged to scan to the visual cue

Question 13

Environmental adaptation: Contrast

Solution to enhance safety and performance for client’s with low vision, includes ensuring a distinct difference in _______ of the foreground in relation to the background of an item within the visual field (e.g., placing a white plate on a black tablecloth)

Answer 13

brightness

Question 14

4 types of attention

Answer 14

• selective
• sustained
• alternating
• divided

Question 15

Video detective

An intervention technique that addresses social skills used with individuals who have _____ spectrum disorder by presenting a mute video clip to the client, who must identify and interpret the _______ expressed through nonverbal behaviors.

Answer 15

autism

emotions

Question 16

Power card

An intervention technique that addresses social skills used with individuals who have autism spectrum disorder by listing the steps of a ______ ______ on a card with a picture that shows the client’s special interest or hero

Answer 16

desired behavior

Question 17

Scales and thermometer

An intervention technique that addresses ____-regulation skills that can assist a client in recognizing, quantifying, and describing energy level and _______

Answer 17

self-

emotion

Question 18

Social autopsy

Answer 18

An intervention technique in which the client is asked to reflect on a social event to consider behaviors and motivations associated with the situation

Question 19

Blocked practice

Answer 19

A method of learning that involves practicing the same skill or task over and over

Question 20

Spaced retrieval

Answer 20

Cognitive intervention method in which the client is asked to recall information at expanding intervals (e.g., client will be asked to immediately recall names of people then recall 5 minutes later, then 10 minutes later)

Question 21

Auscultation

Answer 21

Listening to internal sounds of the body typically with the use of a stethoscope

Question 22

Dysphagia diet levels include:
• Level 1: Pureed Foods
• Level 2: ______ _______
• Level 3: Dysphagia-advanced

Answer 22

Mechanical altered

Question 23

Dysphagia diet level: Pureed

Answer 23

Dietary food texture modification described as smooth, uniform consistency for safer swallowing that requires very little chewing ability, examples include:
• pudding and plain yogurt
• smooth apple sauce
• whipped potatoes

Question 24

Dysphagia diet level: Mechanically altered

Answer 24

Dietary food texture modification described as moist, semi-solid consistency for safer swallowing that requires some chewing ability, examples include:
• cottage cheese
• ripe banana
• moist meat loaf
• scrambled eggs

Question 25

Dysphagia diet level: Advanced

Answer 25

Dietary food texture modification described as soft consistency for safer swallowing that requires more advanced chewing ability, examples include: • baked potato with skin • moist pancakes • thin sliced meat

Question 26

Supraglottic swallow

Answer 26

Compensatory swallowing technique used to close the vocal cords before and during swallow, typically completed under the supervision of a swallowing specialist, involves the following steps: 1. Taking a deep breath 2. Holding the breath while swallowing 3. Coughing to clear saliva or food that may have passed beyond the vocal cords

Question 27

Super-supraglottic swallow

Answer 27

Compensatory swallowing technique used to close the airway entrance above the vocal cords, typically completed under the supervision of a swallowing specialist, involves the following steps: 1. Taking a deep breath 2. Holding the breath and bearing down (as in a bowel movement) while swallowing 3. Coughing to clear saliva or food that may have passed beyond the vocal cords

Question 28

Mendelsohn maneuver

Answer 28

Technique used to prolong the opening of the upper esophageal sphincter during a swallow, typically completed under the supervision of a swallowing specialist, involves pushing the tongue into the upper palette while manually maintaining the Adam's apple in an elevated position

Question 29

Tenodesis grasp Used as a functional advantage for clients with: • spinal cord injury at the C_-C_ level • ______ nerve palsy

Answer 29

6-7 | radial

Question 30

In-hand manipulation | Five patterns include:

Answer 30

* finger-to-palm translation * palm-to-finger translation * shift * simple rotation * complex rotation

Question 31

Joint protection strategies Techniques used to minimize stress or prevent excessive forces on a joint during daily tasks Principles include: • using the ______ joint possible for the task • sliding items and performing tasks bilaterally •________ the environment • considering adaptive equipment

Answer 31

largest | modifying

Question 32

Energy conservation techniques

Answer 32

Strategies to minimize fatigue by reducing task demands or amount of effort exerted during daily routines Includes: • pacing • planning • prioritizing

Question 33

* _-_.5MET's = sweeping floors * _._-4.0 MET's = walking downstairs * 4.0-_.0 MET's = weeding * .0-10.0 MET's = jump rope

Answer 33

* 1.0-2.5 MET's = sweeping floors * 2.6-4.0 MET's = walking downstairs * 4.0-6.0 MET's = weeding * 6.0-10.0 MET's = jump rope

Question 34

Cardiac rehabilitation 3 phases include:

Answer 34

* phase 1: inpatient * phase 2: outpatient * phase 3: community-based

Question 35

Codman's pendulum exercises

Answer 35

Therapeutic exercise for the shoulder joint in which the client bends forward at the waist with the arm perpendicular to the floor, then rocks the body side-to-side allowing the relaxed arm to freely move in a clockwise and counterclockwise direction

Question 36

Scar management Technique best used _ to __ weeks after wound closure to minimize the risk of adhesions, contracture, hypertrophy or hypersensitivity. Interventions include: • mobilization orthoses (e.g., applying sub-maximal stretch) • massage (e.g., graded vibration, manual) • compression (e.g., gloves, tubular gauze) • desensitization (e.g., graded touching, textures) • ROM (e.g., active exercise and passive stretch) • thermal modalities (e.g., ultrasound, moist heat) Technique best used six to 12 weeks after wound closure to minimize the risk of adhesions, contracture, hypertrophy or hypersensitivity.

Answer 36

6-12

Question 37

Scar management Interventions include: • ________ orthoses (e.g., applying sub-maximal stretch) • _______ (e.g., graded vibration, manual) • _________ (e.g., gloves, tubular gauze) •________(e.g., graded touching, textures) •____ (e.g., active exercise and passive stretch) • _______ modalities (e.g., ultrasound, moist heat)

Answer 37

``` mobilization massage compression desensitization ROM thermal ```

Question 38

``` Names commonly used to describe this category of orthotic device include: • buttonhole PIP extension orthosis • anticlaw buckle orthosis • MCP joint ulnar deviation orthosis • Meunster orthosis ```

Answer 38

Common names of restriction orthoses

Question 39

``` Names commonly used to describe this category of orthotic device include: • tenodesis orthosis • radial nerve palsy orthosis • palmar abduction orthosis • dynamic flexion assist orthosis • interphalangeal flexion orthosis ```

Answer 39

Common names of mobilization orthoses

Question 40

``` Names commonly used to describe this category of orthotic device include: • volar wrist orthosis • thumb spica orthosis • dorsal blocking orthosis • resting hand orthosis • metacarpal fracture brace ```

Answer 40

Common names of immobilization orthoses

Question 41

Intrinsic-plus position Term used in orthotic positioning, commonly referred to as the “____-_______” or “safe position” of the hand, intended to place the ____ joint collateral ligaments in an elongated position to reduce contracture risk

Answer 41

anti-deformity | MCP

Question 42

``` Intrinsic-plus position consists of: • wrist in neutral or slight ________ • finger MCP joints in 75-90° of _______ • finger IP joints in complete ________ • thumb in abduction and opposition ```

Answer 42

extension flexion extension

Question 43

Clinometer

Answer 43

Environmental assessment tool used to measure lateral slope of a ramp, floor, or pathway

Question 44

Accessibility Standards: Ramp slope

Answer 44

Rise to run gradient recommended as an alternative to stairs for facilitating accessible entry into homes or buildings (e.g., 1 inch (2.54 cm) of rise should have 12 inches (30.5 cm) of length)

Question 45

Wheelchair measurement: Seat width

Answer 45

Measurement used as part of a comprehensive wheelchair prescription, determined by measuring the widest point across the hips when client is in sitting then adding 2 inches (5 cm)

Question 46

Wheelchair measurement: Seat depth

Answer 46

Measurement used as part of a comprehensive wheelchair prescription, determined by measuring from the base of the posterior aspect of the buttocks to the popliteal fossa, then subtracting 1-2 inches (2.5 – 5 cm) Recommended to measure each leg individually

Question 47

Muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition, True or false?

Answer 47

True

Question 48

The spinal cord of the child w/ spina bifida is sometimes attached to the ________ column.

Answer 48

column

Question 49

Patients in the acute phase of RA who have pain and inflammation can benefit from ______ hand splints.

Answer 49

resting

Question 50

A score of 6 on the Glasglow Coma Scale is ___ level above a completely nonresponsive coma.

Answer 50

one

Question 51

STNR is facilitated by ________ of the neck followed by ________ of the neck.

Answer 51

flexion | extension

Question 52

STNR results of flexion of the neck is BUE _______ with BLE _______.

Answer 52

flexion | extension

Question 53

STNR results of extension of the neck is BUE ________ with BLE _______.

Answer 53

extension | flexion

Question 54

The next developmental level of grasp after a palmer grasp is a _______ palmer grasp.

Answer 54

radial

Question 55

________ is the inability to control the distance, speed, and range of motion necessary to perform smoothly coordinated movements.

Answer 55

Dysmetria

Question 56

Inhibitory therapeutic handling techniques such as slow _______ or rolling are used to influence hypertonicity that interfere with functional performance.

Answer 56

rocking

Question 57

Strong thermoplastic materials with high rigidity and ____ conformability are recommended for immobilizing a large surface area, such as when fabricating a long-arm posterior elbow orthosis.

Answer 57

low

Question 58

Thermoplastic material with ______ rigidity and strength is recommended for an anti-spasticity orthosis to tolerate the forces and maintain optimal alignment of the hand.

Answer 58

high

Question 59

Anticontracture positioning: Positioning is critical because the position of greatest comfort is usually the position of contracture

Answer 59

Neck: neutral to slight extension Chest and abdomen: trunk extension, shoulder retraction Axilla: shoulder abduction 100° to 120°, slight external rotation Elbow: extension Forearm: neutral to supination Wrist Dorsal wrist: wrist in neutral to 30° extension Volar wrist: wrist in 30°–45° extension Hand: metacarpal, 70° flexion; interphalangeal 0° extension, thumb abducted and extended Hip: 10°–15° abduction, neutral extension Knee: extension; with anterior burn, slight flexion Ankle: Neutral to 5° dorsiflexion

Question 60

Pacemaker precautions include no shoulder flexion or abduction greater than 90° on the side on which the pacemaker was implanted for the first __ weeks.

Answer 60

4

Question 61

Paresthesia refers to a _______ or prickling sensation that is usually felt in the hands, arms, legs, or feet, but can also occur in other parts of the body. The sensation, which happens without warning, is usually painless and described as tingling or numbness, skin crawling, or itching

Answer 61

burning

Question 62

``` The PICO method is an approach used to identify a ________-relevant, answerable question for the purpose of searching for evidence. P – Populations/People/Patient/Problem I – Intervention(s) or issues C – Comparison O – Outcome ```

Answer 62

clinically

Question 63

What items MUST be included in legal medical documentation? Pick 3 ``` A.Date of service B.Summary statement C.Location of clinical site D.Client's full name E.Signature of service provider F.Abbreviations ```

Answer 63

A.Date of service D.Client's full name E.Signature of service provider

Question 64

The objective section of a weekly progress note provides _________ details about the session, specific information about intervention provided and the client’s response.

Answer 64

quantitative

Question 65

Post-operative ________ hip precautions include prevention of hip external rotation to promote effective healing and prevent hip dislocation.

Answer 65

anterior

Question 66

Beneficence involves ensuring the client understands the _______ and risks associated with an intervention method.

Answer 66

benefits

Question 67

A common side effect of beta blocker medication is ________ putting the client at-risk for falling. Teaching the client to move slowly during transition movements will minimize the risk of falling.

Answer 67

dizziness

Question 68

Extreme fatigue can trigger an exacerbation of _______ sclerosis.

Answer 68

multiple

Question 69

A person who incurred a peripheral nerve injury is referred to an outpatient clinic for occupational therapy services. After the occupational therapist screens the client and determines that further evaluation is needed, the OTA completes an evaluation of the client’s sensation. When administering the different types of sensory tests, which is the best protocol for the OTA to follow? Test proximal to distal for all sensory tests. Test distal to proximal for all sensory tests. Test according to dermatome patterns for all sensory tests.

Answer 69

Test distal to proximal for all sensory tests.

Question 70

The correct procedure for administering sensory tests to a person with a peripheral nerve injury is to test ______ to _______ following the peripheral nerves.

Answer 70

distal to proximal

Question 71

Spinal cord injuries are tested _______ to _______ following dermatome patterns.

Answer 71

proximal to distal

Question 72

The minimum space to accommodate the swing of a door for a person using a walker is __ inches.

Answer 72

18

Question 73

The maximal height a person can reach from a seated position in a wheel chair is __inches and the minimal height to which a person should reach is __ inches.

Answer 73

48 | 15

Question 74

A client sustained a below knee (BK) amputation on the right side secondary to complications of diabetes myelitis. The client is being treated on the rehabilitation unit while waiting for the prosthesis. The occupational therapist has determined that the client will utilize a stand–pivot–sit transfer for mobility. The client is attempting to transfer independently for the first time. Which position should the OTA assume to insure safety? Stand on the client’s left side. Stand at the client’s midline. Stand on the client’s right side.

Answer 74

Stand on the client’s right side.