Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Wound healing: Proliferation phase
Second stage of wound healing that begins by day three after injury, includes:
• wound _________
• ______ formation
• wound re-epithelialization (new _____ _____)
• fibroblasts initiating contraction
• erythema and beginning of scar formation

A

revascularization
scab
skin layer

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2
Q

Generalization of skills

A

Ability to transfer a newly learned skill across a variety of contexts and activities, facilitated by:
• maintaining client motivation
• contextually relevant practice
• direct exposure to a task

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3
Q

Group maintenance roles types

A

Types include:
• harmonizer
• compromiser
• follower

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4
Q

Project group

A

A type of group in which there is a specific, outcome-based activity or project
• group members have some interaction through sharing and cooperation

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5
Q

Egocentric cooperative group

A

A type of group in which members focus on completing a project or activity over several sessions
• group members choose level of interaction with each other, which is often based on the need to complete various aspects of the project

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6
Q

Sensorimotor group

A

Intervention used primarily in pediatric and geriatric settings, includes the provision of sensory experiences through movement or play in a therapeutically structured group

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7
Q

Diplopia

A

Visual impairment secondary to a neurological event, also referred to as double vision, may cause loss of depth perception and increase risk of falls.

Interventions for managing symptoms may include:
• prism correction
• full occlusion eye-patching
• partial visual occlusion

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8
Q

3 Interventions for managing diplopia symptoms may include:

A
  • prism correction
  • full occlusion eye-patching
  • partial visual occlusion
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9
Q

Oculomotor dysfunction

A

Visual impairment characterized by lack of efficient eye movements and eye-tracking skills due to a cranial nerve lesion or neural disruption of the extraocular muscles, functional deficits may include difficulties with:
• reading speed
• copying skills
• writing skills

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10
Q

Unilateral spatial neglect

Interventions may include: awareness training, limb _______ , ____house strategy, partial visual occlusion, scanning techniques, videotaped feedback, and ________ adaptation

A

activation
light
environmental

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11
Q

Hemianopsia

A

Visual impairment secondary to a brain lesion that results in loss of vision to half the visual field

Compensatory strategies may include:
• visual anchoring
• scanning training
• environmental modification

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12
Q

Anchoring technique

A

Strategy used in visual scanning training where a visual cue (e.g., a solid line or a bright colored, thin strip) is placed in the impaired field of view and the client is encouraged to scan to the visual cue

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13
Q

Environmental adaptation: Contrast

Solution to enhance safety and performance for client’s with low vision, includes ensuring a distinct difference in _______ of the foreground in relation to the background of an item within the visual field (e.g., placing a white plate on a black tablecloth)

A

brightness

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14
Q

4 types of attention

A
  • selective
  • sustained
  • alternating
  • divided
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15
Q

Video detective

An intervention technique that addresses social skills used with individuals who have _____ spectrum disorder by presenting a mute video clip to the client, who must identify and interpret the _______ expressed through nonverbal behaviors.

A

autism

emotions

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16
Q

Power card

An intervention technique that addresses social skills used with individuals who have autism spectrum disorder by listing the steps of a ______ ______ on a card with a picture that shows the client’s special interest or hero

A

desired behavior

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17
Q

Scales and thermometer

An intervention technique that addresses ____-regulation skills that can assist a client in recognizing, quantifying, and describing energy level and _______

A

self-

emotion

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18
Q

Social autopsy

A

An intervention technique in which the client is asked to reflect on a social event to consider behaviors and motivations associated with the situation

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19
Q

Blocked practice

A

A method of learning that involves practicing the same skill or task over and over

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20
Q

Spaced retrieval

A

Cognitive intervention method in which the client is asked to recall information at expanding intervals (e.g., client will be asked to immediately recall names of people then recall 5 minutes later, then 10 minutes later)

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21
Q

Auscultation

A

Listening to internal sounds of the body typically with the use of a stethoscope

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22
Q

Dysphagia diet levels include:
• Level 1: Pureed Foods
• Level 2: ______ _______
• Level 3: Dysphagia-advanced

A

Mechanical altered

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23
Q

Dysphagia diet level: Pureed

A

Dietary food texture modification described as smooth, uniform consistency for safer swallowing that requires very little chewing ability, examples include:
• pudding and plain yogurt
• smooth apple sauce
• whipped potatoes

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24
Q

Dysphagia diet level: Mechanically altered

A
Dietary food texture modification described as moist, semi-solid consistency for safer swallowing that requires some chewing ability, examples include:
• cottage cheese
• ripe banana
• moist meat loaf
• scrambled eggs
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25
Q

Dysphagia diet level: Advanced

A

Dietary food texture modification described as soft consistency for safer swallowing that requires more advanced chewing ability, examples include:
• baked potato with skin
• moist pancakes
• thin sliced meat

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26
Q

Supraglottic swallow

A

Compensatory swallowing technique used to close the vocal cords before and during swallow, typically completed under the supervision of a swallowing specialist, involves the following steps:

  1. Taking a deep breath
  2. Holding the breath while swallowing
  3. Coughing to clear saliva or food that may have passed beyond the vocal cords
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27
Q

Super-supraglottic swallow

A

Compensatory swallowing technique used to close the airway entrance above the vocal cords, typically completed under the supervision of a swallowing specialist, involves the following steps:

  1. Taking a deep breath
  2. Holding the breath and bearing down (as in a bowel movement) while swallowing
  3. Coughing to clear saliva or food that may have passed beyond the vocal cords
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28
Q

Mendelsohn maneuver

A

Technique used to prolong the opening of the upper esophageal sphincter during a swallow, typically completed under the supervision of a swallowing specialist, involves pushing the tongue into the upper palette while manually maintaining the Adam’s apple in an elevated position

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29
Q

Tenodesis grasp

Used as a functional advantage for clients with:
• spinal cord injury at the C_-C_ level
• ______ nerve palsy

A

6-7

radial

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30
Q

In-hand manipulation

Five patterns include:

A
  • finger-to-palm translation
  • palm-to-finger translation
  • shift
  • simple rotation
  • complex rotation
31
Q

Joint protection strategies

Techniques used to minimize stress or prevent excessive forces on a joint during daily tasks

Principles include:
• using the ______ joint possible for the task
• sliding items and performing tasks bilaterally
•________ the environment
• considering adaptive equipment

A

largest

modifying

32
Q

Energy conservation techniques

A

Strategies to minimize fatigue by reducing task demands or amount of effort exerted during daily routines

Includes:
• pacing
• planning
• prioritizing

33
Q
  • -.5MET’s = sweeping floors
  • .-4.0 MET’s = walking downstairs
  • 4.0-_.0 MET’s = weeding
  • .0-10.0 MET’s = jump rope
A
  • 1.0-2.5 MET’s = sweeping floors
  • 2.6-4.0 MET’s = walking downstairs
  • 4.0-6.0 MET’s = weeding
  • 6.0-10.0 MET’s = jump rope
34
Q

Cardiac rehabilitation 3 phases include:

A
  • phase 1: inpatient
  • phase 2: outpatient
  • phase 3: community-based
35
Q

Codman’s pendulum exercises

A

Therapeutic exercise for the shoulder joint in which the client bends forward at the waist with the arm perpendicular to the floor, then rocks the body side-to-side allowing the relaxed arm to freely move in a clockwise and counterclockwise direction

36
Q

Scar management

Technique best used _ to __ weeks after wound closure to minimize the risk of adhesions, contracture, hypertrophy or hypersensitivity.
Interventions include:
• mobilization orthoses (e.g., applying sub-maximal stretch)
• massage (e.g., graded vibration, manual)
• compression (e.g., gloves, tubular gauze)
• desensitization (e.g., graded touching, textures)
• ROM (e.g., active exercise and passive stretch)
• thermal modalities (e.g., ultrasound, moist heat)

Technique best used six to 12 weeks after wound closure to minimize the risk of adhesions, contracture, hypertrophy or hypersensitivity.

A

6-12

37
Q

Scar management Interventions include:
• ________ orthoses (e.g., applying sub-maximal stretch)
• _______ (e.g., graded vibration, manual)
• _________ (e.g., gloves, tubular gauze)
•________(e.g., graded touching, textures)
•____ (e.g., active exercise and passive stretch)
• _______ modalities (e.g., ultrasound, moist heat)

A
mobilization
massage
compression
desensitization 
ROM
thermal
38
Q
Names commonly used to describe this category of orthotic device include:
• buttonhole PIP extension orthosis
• anticlaw buckle orthosis
• MCP joint ulnar deviation orthosis
• Meunster orthosis
A

Common names of restriction orthoses

39
Q
Names commonly used to describe this category of orthotic device include:
• tenodesis orthosis
• radial nerve palsy orthosis
• palmar abduction orthosis
• dynamic flexion assist orthosis
• interphalangeal flexion orthosis
A

Common names of mobilization orthoses

40
Q
Names commonly used to describe this category of orthotic device include:
• volar wrist orthosis
• thumb spica orthosis
• dorsal blocking orthosis
• resting hand orthosis
• metacarpal fracture brace
A

Common names of immobilization orthoses

41
Q

Intrinsic-plus position

Term used in orthotic positioning, commonly referred to as the “____-_______” or “safe position” of the hand, intended to place the ____ joint collateral ligaments in an elongated position to reduce contracture risk

A

anti-deformity

MCP

42
Q
Intrinsic-plus position consists of:
• wrist in neutral or slight \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
• finger MCP joints in 75-90° of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
• finger IP joints in complete \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
• thumb in abduction and opposition
A

extension
flexion
extension

43
Q

Clinometer

A

Environmental assessment tool used to measure lateral slope of a ramp, floor, or pathway

44
Q

Accessibility Standards: Ramp slope

A

Rise to run gradient recommended as an alternative to stairs for facilitating accessible entry into homes or buildings (e.g., 1 inch (2.54 cm) of rise should have 12 inches (30.5 cm) of length)

45
Q

Wheelchair measurement: Seat width

A

Measurement used as part of a comprehensive wheelchair prescription, determined by measuring the widest point across the hips when client is in sitting then adding 2 inches (5 cm)

46
Q

Wheelchair measurement: Seat depth

A

Measurement used as part of a comprehensive wheelchair prescription, determined by measuring from the base of the posterior aspect of the buttocks to the popliteal fossa, then subtracting 1-2 inches (2.5 – 5 cm)

Recommended to measure each leg individually

47
Q

Muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition, True or false?

A

True

48
Q

The spinal cord of the child w/ spina bifida is sometimes attached to the ________ column.

A

column

49
Q

Patients in the acute phase of RA who have pain and inflammation can benefit from ______ hand splints.

A

resting

50
Q

A score of 6 on the Glasglow Coma Scale is ___ level above a completely nonresponsive coma.

A

one

51
Q

STNR is facilitated by ________ of the neck followed by ________ of the neck.

A

flexion

extension

52
Q

STNR results of flexion of the neck is BUE _______ with BLE _______.

A

flexion

extension

53
Q

STNR results of extension of the neck is BUE ________ with BLE _______.

A

extension

flexion

54
Q

The next developmental level of grasp after a palmer grasp is a _______ palmer grasp.

A

radial

55
Q

________ is the inability to control the distance, speed, and range of motion necessary to perform smoothly coordinated movements.

A

Dysmetria

56
Q

Inhibitory therapeutic handling techniques such as slow _______ or rolling are used to influence hypertonicity that interfere with functional performance.

A

rocking

57
Q

Strong thermoplastic materials with high rigidity and ____ conformability are recommended for immobilizing a large surface area, such as when fabricating a long-arm posterior elbow orthosis.

A

low

58
Q

Thermoplastic material with ______ rigidity and strength is recommended for an anti-spasticity orthosis to tolerate the forces and maintain optimal alignment of the hand.

A

high

59
Q

Anticontracture positioning: Positioning is critical because the position of greatest comfort is usually the position of contracture

A

Neck: neutral to slight extension
Chest and abdomen: trunk extension, shoulder retraction
Axilla: shoulder abduction 100° to 120°, slight external rotation
Elbow: extension
Forearm: neutral to supination
Wrist
Dorsal wrist: wrist in neutral to 30° extension
Volar wrist: wrist in 30°–45° extension
Hand: metacarpal, 70° flexion; interphalangeal 0° extension, thumb abducted and extended
Hip: 10°–15° abduction, neutral extension
Knee: extension; with anterior burn, slight flexion
Ankle: Neutral to 5° dorsiflexion

60
Q

Pacemaker precautions include no shoulder flexion or abduction greater than 90° on the side on which the pacemaker was implanted for the first __ weeks.

A

4

61
Q

Paresthesia refers to a _______ or prickling sensation that is usually felt in the hands, arms, legs, or feet, but can also occur in other parts of the body. The sensation, which happens without warning, is usually painless and described as tingling or numbness, skin crawling, or itching

A

burning

62
Q
The PICO method is an approach used to identify a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_-relevant, answerable question for the purpose of searching for evidence.
P – Populations/People/Patient/Problem
I – Intervention(s) or issues
C – Comparison
O – Outcome
A

clinically

63
Q

What items MUST be included in legal medical documentation? Pick 3

A.Date of service
B.Summary statement
C.Location of clinical site
D.Client's full name
E.Signature of service provider
F.Abbreviations
A

A.Date of service
D.Client’s full name
E.Signature of service provider

64
Q

The objective section of a weekly progress note provides _________ details about the session, specific information about intervention provided and the client’s response.

A

quantitative

65
Q

Post-operative ________ hip precautions include prevention of hip external rotation to promote effective healing and prevent hip dislocation.

A

anterior

66
Q

Beneficence involves ensuring the client understands the _______ and risks associated with an intervention method.

A

benefits

67
Q

A common side effect of beta blocker medication is ________ putting the client at-risk for falling. Teaching the client to move slowly during transition movements will minimize the risk of falling.

A

dizziness

68
Q

Extreme fatigue can trigger an exacerbation of _______ sclerosis.

A

multiple

69
Q

A person who incurred a peripheral nerve injury is referred to an outpatient clinic for occupational therapy services. After the occupational therapist screens the client and determines that further evaluation is needed, the OTA completes an evaluation of the client’s sensation. When administering the different types of sensory tests, which is the best protocol for the OTA to follow?

Test proximal to distal for all sensory tests.

Test distal to proximal for all sensory tests.

Test according to dermatome patterns for all sensory tests.

A

Test distal to proximal for all sensory tests.

70
Q

The correct procedure for administering sensory tests to a person with a peripheral nerve injury is to test ______ to _______ following the peripheral nerves.

A

distal to proximal

71
Q

Spinal cord injuries are tested _______ to _______ following dermatome patterns.

A

proximal to distal

72
Q

The minimum space to accommodate the swing of a door for a person using a walker is __ inches.

A

18

73
Q

The maximal height a person can reach from a seated position in a wheel chair is __inches and the minimal height to which a person should reach is __ inches.

A

48

15

74
Q

A client sustained a below knee (BK) amputation on the right side secondary to complications of diabetes myelitis. The client is being treated on the rehabilitation unit while waiting for the prosthesis. The occupational therapist has determined that the client will utilize a stand–pivot–sit transfer for mobility. The client is attempting to transfer independently for the first time. Which position should the OTA assume to insure safety?

Stand on the client’s left side.

Stand at the client’s midline.

Stand on the client’s right side.

A

Stand on the client’s right side.