Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Perceptual disorder characterized by denial, neglect, and lack of awareness of the presence or severity of one’s paralysis.

A

Anosognoisa

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2
Q

Daily, direct contact at the site of work is _______ supervision.

A

Close

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3
Q

Direct contact every 2 weeks at site of work. Interim supervision by telephone, written, etc., is _______ supervision.

A

Routine

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4
Q

_______ supervision is at least monthly direct contact w/ supervision available as needed by other methods.

A

General

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5
Q

_______ supervision is provided only on a needed basis, and may be less than monthly.

A

Minimal

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6
Q

At 0-1mo a baby has ______ release and a strong _______ reflex.

A

no

grasp

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7
Q

At 1-4mo a baby has ________ release.

A

involuntary

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8
Q

At 4-8mo a baby ________ object from hand to hand.

A

transfers

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9
Q

At _______mo a baby has volitional release.

A

7-9

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10
Q

Picking up coins requires __________ translation.

A

finger-to-palm

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11
Q

Placing coins in a slot requires _________ translation.

A

palm-to-finger

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12
Q

Separating 2 pieces of paper requires a the manipulating skill of shift, which can be done at _____yrs

A

3-5

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13
Q

Rolling clay into a ball requires a the manipulating skill of shift, which can be done at _____yrs.

A

3-6+

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14
Q

Unscrewing a small bottle cap requires _______ rotation.

A

simple

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15
Q

Simple rotation can be done at ______yrs.

A

2-2.5

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16
Q

Turning a pencil over to erase requires _______ rotation.

A

complex

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17
Q

Complex rotation can be done at ____yrs.

A

6-7

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18
Q

Writing tool with fisted hand is ________ ________ grasp.

A

palmer-supinate

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19
Q

Digital pronate grasp is done at ____yrs.

A

2-3yrs

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20
Q

Static tripod is done at ____yrs.

A

3.5-4

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21
Q

Dynamic tripod is done at ____yrs.

A

4.5-6

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22
Q

A child can cut simple figure shapes at ____yrs and complex at _____yrs.

A

4-6

6-7

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23
Q

Left CVA affects the ________ side of the body, _______ memory, and speech.

A

right

verbal

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24
Q

Right CVA affects the _____ side of the body, ________ memory, and emotion.

A

left

non-verbal

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25
Q

Rancho levels 1, 2, 3 require _______ assistance.

A

total

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26
Q

Rancho levels:
1= ________ response
2= ________ response
3= ________ response

A

No
Generalized
Localized

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27
Q

Rancho levels ___ and ___ require maximum assistance.

A

4

5

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28
Q

Rancho levels:
4= confused and ________
5= confused and _________
6= confused and ________

A

agitated
inappropriate, nonagitated
appropriate

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29
Q

Rancho level ____ requires moderate assistance.

A

6

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30
Q

Rancho level ____ requires minimum assistance for ADLs.

A

7

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31
Q

Rancho level __ and __ requires stand-by assistance and level ___ is stand-by on request.

A

8

9

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32
Q

Rancho level ___ requires modified independence assistance.

A

10

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33
Q

Rancho level 7 is _________ and appropriate.

A

automatic

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34
Q

Rancho levels 8, 9,10 are ________ and appropriate.

A

purposeful

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35
Q

Practice under ________ conditions is a motor learning technique that increases generalization of learning to new situations.

A

variable

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36
Q

Sensations of pain, pinprick, and temperature are impaired, but proprioception is maintained in anterior or posterior spinal cord syndrome?

A

anterior

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37
Q

Many children with down syndrome struggle with _________ and limited attention spans.

A

distractibility

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38
Q

The Individuals with Disabilities Act (IDEA) mandates that an _______ be written within 30 days of evaluation.

A

IEP ( Individualized education plan)

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39
Q

Client with C3 SCI out in public wants to go back to rehab center b/c pounding headache and is sweating profusely. What should you check first?

A

Urinary catheter and collecting bag

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40
Q

Profuse sweating and headaches are signs of autonomic _________.

A

dysreflexia

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41
Q

Translation in-hand manipulation skills can assist a child to move from a ______ tripod to a ________ tripod grasp/

A

static

dynamic

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42
Q

One of the more common symptoms of COPD is d______

A

dyspnea

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43
Q

The best approach to decrease a tonic bite reflex is to press down firmly on the _______ of the tongue.

A

center

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44
Q

Primary generalized seizures begin w/ widespread involvement of ______ sides of the brain.

A

both

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45
Q

Partial seizures begin w/ involvement of a smaller, ________ area of the brain.

A

localized

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46
Q

An _____ is the brief warning stage before the tonic phase of an epileptic seizure.

A

aura

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47
Q

Awareness questioning is used in the dynamic interaction approach to help the individual estimate _____ difficulty, predict outcomes, and _____ for task success.

A

task

strategize

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48
Q

A project/associative group utilizes ______-term activities that require the participation of two or more people. Tasks are shared and the focus is on ________ rather than completion.

A

short

interaction

49
Q

Astereognosis, aka tactile _______, is the inability to recognize objects, forms, shapes, and sizes through touch alone

A

agnosia

50
Q

A child w/ hypotonia during feeding should be placed w/ their head in ________ and be semi-reclined w/ neck in _______ position.

A

midline

neutral

51
Q

An entry-level OTA is trained and qualified to perform ADL assessments.
True or false?

A

True

52
Q

__________ is the ability to identify objects through touch and cognition.

A

Stereognosis

53
Q

Allen’s cognitive level 1 presents w/ _______ motor actions, ________ from noxious stimuli, and may possibly ______ in bed.

A

automatic
withdraws
roll

54
Q

Allen’s cognitive level 2 presents w/ _______ motor functions, aimless _________ and possibly grabbing.

A

gross

walking

55
Q

Allen’s cognitive level 3 presents w/ _______ non-goal directed motor functions, _______ objects and can use most objects.

A

manual

grasping.

56
Q

When splinting a pt w/ a burn to the hand, the wrist should be in 20-30 degree _______, MCP joints in 70degree ______, IP joints in _______, and thumb _______ and extended.

A

extension
flexion
extension
abducted

57
Q

The forward protective extension reflex develops at __-__mo. The protective extension sideward reflex develops at __mo. The backward protective extension develops at __mo.

A

6-9
7
10

58
Q

The RADAR approach is used in the context of _______ abuse.

A

domestic

59
Q

Ama sensorimotor play, ________ ______ is a play occupation that uses sensory input to learn new experiences.

A

exploratory play

60
Q

Play occupation that uses toys consistent with their intended purpose (e.g., pretending to self-feed with a spoon)

Also referred to as functional play

A

Relational play

61
Q

Play ccupation that involvesmaking objects/toys perform intended actions (e.g., pretending to use a phone to talk)

Also referred to as symbolic or imaginary play

A

Pretend play

62
Q

Play occupation that includes:
• interaction with and emotionally relating to others
• behavior and skills to develop and progress through childhood

A

Social play

63
Q

Play occupation that involves full body, kinesthetic motor movements (e.g., climbing on a play structure)

A

Gross motor play

64
Q

Play occupation that involves using objects/toys to produce or build something (e.g., put together a puzzle

A

Constructive play

65
Q
Meaningful, intrinsically motivating, and purposeful performance activities of childhood, types include:
• exploratory play
• relational play
• pretend play
• constructive play
• social play
• gross motor play
A

Play occupations

66
Q

Fine motor function of the hand, either precision or power, used to manipulate items

Patterns include:
• cylindrical grasp
• power grasp
• tripod grasp

A

Grasp patterns

67
Q

Grasp used when stability and strength are required, involves:
• ulnar digits flexed and ulnar side of hand controlling the object
• radial digits less flexed while manipulating the object

A

Power grasp

68
Q

Type of prehension grasp used to carry an item with a handle (e.g., lunchbox, briefcase) without using thumb and palm

A

Hook grasp

69
Q

Grasp used for holding a tube-shaped item (e.g., drinking glass, baseball bat)

A

Cylindrical grasp

70
Q

Prehensile pattern used to grasp a small item with the thumb opposed to the radial side of the index finger (e.g., placing a key in a lock)

A

Lateral pinch

71
Q

Prehensile grasp used to manipulate small objects with the thumb opposed to the index and middle finger pad (e.g., picking up a pencil)

A

Pincer grasp

72
Q
Neurodegenerative condition associated with deterioration in the substantia nigra, characterized by:
• rigidity
• bradykinesia
• resting tremor
• festinating gait
A

Parkinson’s Disease

73
Q
Neurodegenerative condition associated with white matter lesions in the CNS and demyelination process, characterized by fluctuant changes in:
• energy level
• sensation
• weakness
• cognition
• vision
• mobility
A

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

74
Q

Acute demyelinating condition, characterized by:
• symmetrical and progressive paralysis
• ascending weakness starting at the feet
• possible involvement of cranial nerves and muscles of respiration

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome

75
Q

Neurodegenerative condition associated with progressive death of upper and lower motor neurons, characterized by:
• muscle weakness in one or more extremity
• difficulties with speech, swallowing, and / or breathing

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

76
Q

Genetically-inherited degenerative neurological disease typically beginning between 30-50 years of age, characterized by choreiform movements, decline in thinking and reasoning skills, and alterations in mood

A

Huntington’s Disease

77
Q

Inherited genetic disorder resulting in muscular weakness and atrophy of the proximal musculature of the pelvis and shoulder girdle, symptoms more common in males and detected around 3 years of age

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

78
Q

Autoimmune inflammatory disease affecting, joints, skin, blood cells and vital organs, characterized by a distinct butterfly-shaped facial rash that crosses both cheeks

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

79
Q

Most common form of dementia characterized by a decline in memory, thinking and performance skills with 3 stages:
• mild
• moderate
• severe

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

80
Q

Progressive age-related visual condition, characterized by:
• atrophy of the macula (posterior part of the retina)
• decrease in central visual acuity
• blurry, distorted, or low vision

A

Macular degeneration

81
Q

Autoimmune motor unit disorder, characterized by:
• ptosis and double vision
• possible difficulty with chewing, swallowing, and speech
• weakness and fatigue that increases throughout the day

A

Myasthenia gravis

82
Q

Emergency medical condition characterized by blocked flow of blood to the heart muscle, resulting in damage to the heart

A

Myocardial infarction

83
Q
Chest pain or pressure in response to exertion or at rest radiating to:
• arms
• neck
• jaw
• back
A

Angina

84
Q

Shortness of breath due to impaired breathing when lying in a supine position

Recommendations may include for client to sleep in an upright position

A

Orthopnea

85
Q

Shortness of breath due to impaired breathing in response to activity or at rest, may require:
• medical attention
• modification to activity demands
• instruction in breathing techniques

A

Dyspnea

86
Q

Inability of the central nervous system to regulate tactile input resulting in overreaction to ordinary touch sensations on the skin or in the mouth

A

Tactile defensiveness

87
Q
Potentially fatal formation of a blood clot most often occurring in the calf area with high risk for pulmonary embolism, symptoms include:
• pain with dorsiflexion of the foot
• tenderness of the calf
• swelling of the leg
• warmth to touch
A

Deep vein thrombosis

88
Q

Deep vein thrombosis: Preventive strategies

A

Used with patients who are high-risk for developing blood clot in the legs and include:
• compression hosiery
• calf-pumping exercises
• functional mobility

89
Q
Potentially fatal condition resulting when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks arterial circulation, symptoms may be asymptomatic or may include one or more of the following:
• sudden shortness of breath (dyspnea)
• sharp chest pain
• rapid heart rate (tachycardia)
• rapid breathing (tachypnea)
• profuse sweating
• anxiety
Constitutes a medical emergency
A

Pulmonary embolism

90
Q

Expected functional outcome: Spinal cord injury Level C1-3

A

Expected functional outcome after SCI:
• ventilator dependent
• total physical assistance for BADL & IADL
• able to direct care needs

91
Q

Expected functional outcome: Spinal cord injury Level C4

A

Expected functional outcome after SCI:
• initially ventilator dependent; progress to breathing independently with reduced vital capacity
• total physical assistance for BADL & IADL
• able to direct care needs
• power wheelchair with adaptations for independence in mobility
• total assistance for bed mobility and transfers

92
Q

Expected functional outcome: Spinal cord injury Level C5

A

Expected functional outcome after SCI:
• independent respiratory function with reduced vital capacity; may need assistance for a productive cough
• total assistance for bowel and bladder management
• independent self-feeding with adaptive devices
• assistance for grooming with adaptive devices
• total assistance for bathing

93
Q

Expected functional outcome: Spinal cord injury Level C6

A

Expected functional outcome after SCI:
• independent respiratory function with reduced vital capacity; may need assistance for a productive cough
• minimal to total assistance for bowel and bladder management with adaptive devices
• may need some assistance for for basic ADL, transfers and bed mobility with adaptive devices, and outdoor wheelchair propulsion in a manual wheelchair
• total assistance for standing

94
Q

Expected functional outcome: Spinal cord injury Level C7-T1

A
Expected functional outcome after SCI:
• independent respiratory function
• assistance for bowel management
• modified independence for basic ADL
• some assistance for standing
• modified independence for bed mobility and transfer
• independent driving with modifications
95
Q

Expected functional outcome: Spinal cord injury Level T2-T12

A

Expected functional outcome after SCI:
• independent to modified independence for basic ADL
• modified independence for bowel and bladder management
• modified independence for bed mobility, transfer, and standing
• independent wheelchair mobility

96
Q

Expected functional outcome: Spinal cord injury Level L1-L5

A
Expected functional outcome after SCI:
• independent in ADL and bed mobility
• ambulate with assistive devices
• may use wheelchair for distance; independent with loading and unloading from the vehicle
• independent driving with hand controls
97
Q

Thromboangiitis obliterans is a smoking-related condition that results in ______ ______ formation (thrombosis) in small and medium-sized arteries, and less commonly veins. The affected areas are most commonly the hands and feet. Thromboangiitis obliterans is also known as Buerger disease.

A

blood clot

98
Q

A person w/ a C6 SCI cannot independently don underwear and pants while in bed.
True or false?

A

False

99
Q

A person w/ a C6 SCI uses what type of transfer?

A

Sliding board

100
Q

_____ _____ rigidity is a motor dysfunction secondary to a lesion of the basal ganglia in which the muscles respond in a jerky motion when force is applied during flexion of a joint, common symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

A

Cog-wheel

101
Q

_____ ______ rigidity is a motor dysfunction secondary to a lesion of the basal ganglia where during slow PROM, constant resistance is felt throughout; common symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

A

Lead pipe

102
Q

Reflexive abnormal motor movements in response to a tendon stretch (as in reflex testing), indicative of a cortical lesion, characterized by a series of involuntary rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscle

A

Clonus

103
Q

Joint deformity consisting of PIP flexion and DIP hyperextension, commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis and PIP joint trauma

Intervention may include fabrication of orthosis to support the PIP in extension while allowing movement at the DIP

A

Boutonnière deformity

104
Q

Joint deformity consisting of PIP hyperextension and DIP flexion commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis and tendon trauma

Intervention may include a tri-point ring orthosis to prevent PIP hyperextension

A

Swan neck deformity

105
Q

Inability to extend DIP joint due to rupture of the distal end of extensor tendon

Intervention may include static orthosis to maintain DIP in extension

A

Mallet finger

106
Q

_______ ______ is a hand deformity where MCP joints deviate to the small finger side of the hand, commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis

Intensified by functional activities requiring power grasp and lateral pinch

A

Ulnar drift

107
Q

Receptive and/or expressive language impairment secondary to a brain lesion

Typically sub-categorized as: Broca’s, Wernicke’s, global, anomic, conduction, or transcortical

A

Aphasia

108
Q

Figure-ground discrimination

A

The ability to focus on a single detail in a busy background, impairments may cause:
• locating personal items in a cluttered space
• finding information on a blackboard
• locating a person in a crowd

109
Q

Dysphagia

A

Difficulty in swallowing associated with:
• neurological, developmental, or oral motor condition
• sensory, motor, or behavioral dysfunction

110
Q

Muscle grade 1/5

A

Muscle grade assigned for:
• trace movement observed and palpated
• no active movement noted, but muscle contraction is observed or palpated

111
Q

Muscle grade 2/5

A

Muscle grade assigned for:

• poor strength observed where movement is noted only in a gravity-minimized plane

112
Q

Muscle grade 3/5

A

Muscle grade assigned for:
• fair strength observed where movement is noted against gravity

Score may range from:
• fair (-): incomplete ROM against gravity
• fair: full ROM against gravity with no resistance applied
• fair(+): full ROM against gravity and slight resistance

113
Q

Muscle Grade 4/5

A

Muscle grade assigned for:

• good strength observed with full ROM against gravity and moderate resistance

114
Q

Muscle grade 5/5

A

Muscle grade assigned for:

• normal strength observed with full ROM against gravity and maximal resistance

115
Q

Motor apraxia

A

Neurobehavioral deficit characterized by difficulty planning and sequencing the motor movements needed to complete a task (e.g., attempting to reposition the bristles of a toothbrush to brush teeth when moving it from one side of the mouth to the other)

116
Q

Ataxia

A

Abnormal movement pattern secondary to a cerebellar lesion, resulting in a lack of smooth-coordinated muscle movements, behavioral manifestations include:
• slurred speech (dysarthria)
• difficulty with alternating movements (dysdiadochokinesia)
• staggering gait (ataxic gait)
• swallowing difficulties (dysphagia)
• overshooting/undershooting during reach (dysmetria)

117
Q

Diaphoresis

A

Excessive sweating controlled by the central nervous system that may be associated with:
• increased exertion
• febrile condition
• symptom of a medical condition

118
Q

Dysphagia

A

Impairment in the ability to swallow that may cause difficulties in eating and risk of aspiration

Categories include:
• paralytic
• pseudo bulbar
• mechanical

119
Q

Homonymous _________ is a visual field impairment involving both eyes where the client only sees either to the right or left of midline.

A

hemianopsia