Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SEM V - Rad Pathology II > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

0
Q

External reproductive structures of the male include:

A

penis and scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Internal reproductive structures of the male include:

A

testes, ductus or vas deferens, prostate, ejaculatory ducts, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Structures enclosed by the scrotal sac:

A

testes, epididymides, spermatic cords, and part of the ductus deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Testes:

A

primary male sex glands, paired and found within the male scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Seminiferous tubules:

A

sperm cell formation, create fluid for ejaculate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The scrotum is 3 degrees cooler than the normal body temperature and will either

A

sag or rise to maintain temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Spermatozoa is produced in:

A

seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Spermatozoa matures in:

A

epididymis as a product of meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Spermatozoa contain:

A

head, body/mid piece, tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Epididymis:

A

oblong structure attached to superior and laterosuperior aspects of the testes whose function is storage and maturation of sperm cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vas deferens aka:

A

ductus deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The male reproductive ducts include:

A

vas deferens, ejaculatory duct and urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ductus deferens (aka vas deferens) is:

A

16-18” long and extends from the tail of the epididymis to posteroinferior surface of the urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ampulla:

A

expanded end of the ductus deferens that serves as a reservoir for seminal fluid and unites with seminal vesicles to form ejaculatory duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of the:

A

vas deferens and duct of the seminal vesicle, averages 1/2” long, originates behind neck of bladder and enter the base of prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Seminal vesicles is approximately

A

2” long and situated obliquely on lateroposterior surface of bladder and functions to add fluid volume to ejaculate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bulbourethral glands aka

A

Cowper’s glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bulbourethral glands secrete fluid into

A

urethra just prior to ejaculation (pre cum) and lubricate urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Prostate:

A

accessory genital organ averaging 1.25” long and encircles proximal portion of uretha and lies anterior to rectal ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The prostate function is to

A

produce fluid to give volume to ejaculate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Male semen:

A

roughly 3-5ml of ejaculate, each ml contains 100 million sperm cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Functions of male penis:

A

convey urine (urethra), penetration of female (erectile tissue), passage of semen (urethra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Erectile tissue:

A

spongy tissue of penis which engorges with blood to form an erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Corpus cavernosum (2):

A

penile erectile tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Corpus spongiosum (1):

A

surrounds the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Glans penis aka:

A

penile tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Prepuce aka:

A

foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Internal structures of the female reproductive system consist of:

A

ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ovaries:

A

primary female sex glands which produce two hormones (estrogen and progesterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Estrogen:

A

produced by developing ovarian follicles responsible for female characteristics, “preparation” for pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Progesterone:

A

produced by the corpus luteum, “preparation” for menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ovaries:

A

two small glandular, almond shaped organs located on each side near the lateral wall of the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the internal secretion of the ovaries:

A

controls menstrual cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The external secretion of the ovaries is:

A

the ova, the female reproductive cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Medulla:

A

core of vascular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cortex:

A

outer glandular tissue containing ovarian follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Each follicle contains:

A

one ovum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Graafian follicle:

A

fully developed ovarian follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ovulation:

A

extrusion of an ovum by rupture of a follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Uterus:

A

pear shaped muscular organ situated in the central part of pelvic cavity posterior to urinary bladder and anterior to rectal ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The nulliparous uterus is:

A

about 3” long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Nulliparity:

A

condition of having borne no children (woman)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The female uterus contains four parts:

A

Fundus, body, isthmus, and cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Fundus:

A

blunt, rounded superior portion of uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Body of uterus:

A

narrows from the Fundus to the isthmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Isthmus:

A

superior part of the cervix; constricted area between the body and cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cervix:

A

cylindric vaginal end of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Fornix:

A

cuff like area surrounding the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The uterine cavity is triangular shaped

A

when viewed in the frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Endometrium:

A

inner mucosal lining of uterine cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Functions of the uterus:

A

receive and retain fertilized ovum until fetal development is complete, and expel mature fetus during birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Uterine tubes aka:

A

Fallopian tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The uterine tubes collect the

A

ova released by the ovaries and convey it to the uterine cavity, approximately 3-5” long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Each uterine tube is divided into three parts:

A

isthmus, ampulla, and infundibulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Isthmus of uterine tube:

A

short segment near uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Ampulla of uterine tube:

A

majority of tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Infundibulum:

A

terminal, lateral portion or uterine tube, flared in appearance which ends in a series of irregular prolonged processes called fimbriae which “sweep” ova into tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Zygote:

A

a fertilized egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Female external genitalia:

A

clitoris, labia, bartholins glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

@@@

Clitoris:

A

sensitive external female generalized containing erectile tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Labia:

A

“lips” of female external genitalia containing major labia and minor labia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Bartholins glands:

A

provide lubircating fluid for female genitalia located on either side of vaginal opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Menstrual cycle:

A

oocytes develops withing ovarian follicle, as follicle grows it produces estrogen, follicle matures (graafian follicle), follicle ruptures (ovulation), oocyte is expelled into peritoneum, follicle now called corpus luteum, corpus luteum slowly breaks down, as it breaks down it produces progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Breast anatomy:

A

lobular, glandular structures located in the superficial fascia of the anterolateral wall of the thorax which vary considerably in size and shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Female breasts are

A

secondary sex characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Breasts and mammary glands are

A

synonymous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Breasts are usually

A

cone shaped with the base overlying the pectorals major and serratus anterior muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The Axillary tail of the breast

A

extends upper, lateral base to the Axillary fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Coopers ligaments

A

support breasts

69
Q

There are 15-20 lobes

A

in the adult female breast

70
Q

Each lobe of the breast is divided into

A

many lobules which are the basic structural unit of the breast

71
Q

Lobules of the breasts include:

A

several acini, draining ducts, and inter lobule stromatolites (connective tissue)

72
Q

involution:

A

the normal process of decreasing lobule size (breast) with age and after pregnancy

73
Q

Acini:

A

glandular elements of breast lobules

74
Q

Lactiferous ductules are formed by:

A

the openings of each acini

75
Q

Lymphatic vessels of breast drain into two sets of nodes:

A

the axillary lymph nodes laterally and the internal mammary lymph nodes medially

76
Q

Axillary nodes are often evaluated on:

A

mammograms

77
Q

Glandular tissue:

A

increases during pregnancy and lactation, decreases postpartum and with age

78
Q

Connective tissue:

A

dense and casts homogenous shadow, the primary component of postpubertal adolescent breast

79
Q

Fatty tissue:

A

replaces glandular tissue after lactation and advancing age, increases natural radiograohic contrast

80
Q

Nonpregnant female radiographic procedures:

A

HYSTEROSALPINGOGRAPHY (hsg), pelvic pneumonography, vaginography

81
Q

Pregnant female radiographic procedures:

A

FETOGRAPHY, PELVIMETRY, fetal cephalometry

82
Q

Male radiographic procedures:

A

seminal ducts (vesiculography, epididymography), prostatography, cavernosogram

83
Q

Nongravid

A

not pregnant

84
Q

Nulliparity -

A

having never borne a child

85
Q

Bicornuate uterus -

A

The most common congenital anomaly of the female reproductive system where the uterus is divided into a pair of “horns” which are linked to its own fallopian tube (2 ovaries, 1 cervix, 1 vagina)

86
Q

Unicornuate uterus -

A

a single elongated uterine cavity with a single Fallopian tube which can have 1 or 2 ovaries, 1 cervix, and 1 vagina; usually asymptomatic

87
Q

Uterus didelphys -

A

very rare anomaly with a complete duplication of uterus, cervix, vagina (one vagina is usually larger than the other)

88
Q

Anteverted uterus -

A

where the uterus is tilted forward towards the bladder, common in approximately 75% of women

89
Q

Mastitis -

A

Inflammation of the breast, usually bacterial, most commonly caused by staph, and commonly occurs with breast feeding, signs include pain, redness, swelling, temperature, abscess formation, treatment is antibiotics

90
Q

Follicular ovarian cyst -

A

a type of functional[ simple cyst, and is the most common type of ovarian cyst which can form when ovulation doesn’t occur, and a follicle doesn’t rupture or release its egg but instead grows until it becomes a cyst

91
Q

Corpus luteum cyst -

A

a type of ovarian cyst which may rupture about the time of menstruation, and take up to three months to disappear entirely. may contain blood and other fluids; the physical shape may appear as an enlargement of the ovary itself, rather than a distinct mass -like growth on the surface of the ovary.

92
Q

Endometriosis -

A

hormonal and immune system disease in which cells similar to that which line the uterus (endometrium) grow outside the uterine cavity, most commonly on the membrane which lines the peritoneum. Common symptoms are pain and infertility. The pain often is worse with the menstrual cycle and is the most common cause of secondary dysmenorrhea.

93
Q

Polycystic ovaries -

A

Enlarged ovaries with small cysts. Can cause endocrina abnormalities and can result in amennorhea and or sterility

94
Q

Dermoid cyst/cystic teratoma -

A

benign neoplasm which arise from unfertilized ova and can contain hair, teeth, thyroid tissue, and sebaceous secretions. Have to be surgically removed

95
Q

Cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary -

A

a malignant form of a cystic adenoma developed in the ovary(s), the most common malignant ovarian tumor

96
Q

Cervical carcinoma -

A

cancer arising from the cervix, due to the abnormal growth of cells that have the ability to spread to other parts of the body. HPV seems to be the cause of over 90% of cases

97
Q

Cervical dysplasia -

A

abnormal changes in the cells on the surface of the cervix. HPV infection is the cause of these changes

98
Q

Leiomyoma/Uterine fibroid -

A

benign tumors that arise from the overgrowth of smooth muscle and connective tissue in the uterus

99
Q

Endometrial carcinoma -

A

most common gynecological malignancy, frequently present with vaginal bleeding

100
Q

Fibroadenoma -

A

fibrous non cancerous breast tumors that occur most often in adolescent girls and women under age 30. A firm, smooth, rubbery growth, or hard lump with well defined shape

101
Q

Fibrocystic breasts -

A

breasts that are lumpy in one or both, can be tender or painful, a very common benign condition mainly affecting women over age 30

102
Q

Breast carcinoma -

A

cancer that forms in the tissue of the breast, most common type is ductal carcinoma which begins in the lining of the milk ducts

103
Q

Oligohydramnios -

A

too little amniotic fluid present, fetus swallows amniotic fluid - normal, fetal urination after kidneys develop – normal, adds to amniotic volume, too little fluid = fetal urinary anomalies

104
Q

Polyhydramnios -

A

too much amniotic fluid present, fetus is unable to swallow fluid, Anencephaly or gastrointestinal obstruction, an indicator of fetal distress or fetal death

105
Q

Ectopic pregnancy -

A

Development of embryo outside of uterus, most commonly seen in fallopian tube, aka tubal pregnancy, fetus cannot survive, risk of rupture and hemorrhage

106
Q

Placenta previa -

A

a problem in which the placenta grows in the lowest part of the womb (uterus) and covers all or part of the opening of the cervix

107
Q

Placental abruption -

A

a complication in pregnancy where the placental lining has been separated from the uterus of the mother prior to delivery

108
Q

Placenta percreta -

A

a condition in which the placenta invades the uterine wall and can cause an incomplete rupture of the uterus

109
Q

Hydatidiform mole -

A

a rare mass or growth that forms inside the womb (uterus) at the beginning of a pregnancy

110
Q

Cryptorchism -

A

failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotom

111
Q

Erectile dysfunction -

A

the inability of a man to have an erection hard enough to have sexual intercourse

112
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) -

A

enlarged prostate usually idiopathic in men age 50+, not a cancer

113
Q

TURP –

A

transurethral resection of prostate - a type of prostate surgery done to relieve moderate to severe urinary symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate

114
Q

Prostatic calculi -

A

small stones in the prostate gland which do not cause symptoms

115
Q

Prostatic adenocarcinoma -

A

prostate cancer starting in the prostate gland and can spread if not treated early, is second to skin cancer as the most common form of cancer in men

116
Q

Cryptorchism -

A

the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, the most common birth defect of the male genetalia

117
Q

Orchitis -

A

inflammation of the testicles, usually bacterial and bilateral, treated with antibiotics

118
Q

Hydrocele/Spermatocele -

A

pathological accumulation of serous fluid, a benign cystic accumulation of sperm that arises from the head of the epididymis

119
Q

Testicular seminoma -

A

the most common testicular tumors accounting for approximately 45% of all primary testicular tumors

120
Q

Testicular teratoma -

A

type of germ cell testicular tumor that may include mature elements such as hair, muscle, and bone. May be benign or malignant

121
Q

Testicular embryonal carcinoma -

A

relatively uncommon type of germ cell tumor occurring in the testes, average age at diagnosis is 31 years and is usually in the form of a testicular lump

122
Q

Testicular choriocarcinoma -

A

rare, germ cell testicular tumor/cancer in adult males, has the worst prognosis of all germ cell cancers

123
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

A

Bacterial infection of female reproductive system, Specifically uterine tubes, Usually bilateral
Common pathogens: gonorrhea, staph, strep
Treated with antibiotics

124
Q

Placenta

A

Temporary organ of pregnancy

Exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste

125
Q

Brachytherapy

A

Insertion of radioactive “seeds” (prostate and breast)

–Iodine 125, Palladium 103

126
Q

Nongravid

A

not pregnant

127
Q

Nulliparity -

A

having never borne a child

128
Q

Bicornuate uterus -

A

The most common congenital anomaly of the female reproductive system where the uterus is divided into a pair of “horns” which are linked to its own fallopian tube (2 ovaries, 1 cervix, 1 vagina)

129
Q

Unicornuate uterus -

A

a single elongated uterine cavity with a single Fallopian tube which can have 1 or 2 ovaries, 1 cervix, and 1 vagina; usually asymptomatic

130
Q

Uterus didelphys -

A

very rare anomaly with a complete duplication of uterus, cervix, vagina (one vagina is usually larger than the other)

131
Q

Anteverted uterus -

A

where the uterus is tilted forward towards the bladder, common in approximately 75% of women

132
Q

Mastitis -

A

Inflammation of the breast, usually bacterial, most commonly caused by staph, and commonly occurs with breast feeding, signs include pain, redness, swelling, temperature, abscess formation, treatment is antibiotics

133
Q

Follicular ovarian cyst -

A

a type of functional[ simple cyst, and is the most common type of ovarian cyst which can form when ovulation doesn’t occur, and a follicle doesn’t rupture or release its egg but instead grows until it becomes a cyst

134
Q

Corpus luteum cyst -

A

a type of ovarian cyst which may rupture about the time of menstruation, and take up to three months to disappear entirely. may contain blood and other fluids; the physical shape may appear as an enlargement of the ovary itself, rather than a distinct mass -like growth on the surface of the ovary.

135
Q

Endometriosis -

A

hormonal and immune system disease in which cells similar to that which line the uterus (endometrium) grow outside the uterine cavity, most commonly on the membrane which lines the peritoneum. Common symptoms are pain and infertility. The pain often is worse with the menstrual cycle and is the most common cause of secondary dysmenorrhea.

136
Q

Polycystic ovaries -

A

Enlarged ovaries with small cysts. Can cause endocrina abnormalities and can result in amennorhea and or sterility

137
Q

Dermoid cyst/cystic teratoma -

A

benign neoplasm which arise from unfertilized ova and can contain hair, teeth, thyroid tissue, and sebaceous secretions. Have to be surgically removed

138
Q

Cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary -

A

a malignant form of a cystic adenoma developed in the ovary(s), the most common malignant ovarian tumor

139
Q

Cervical carcinoma -

A

cancer arising from the cervix, due to the abnormal growth of cells that have the ability to spread to other parts of the body. HPV seems to be the cause of over 90% of cases

140
Q

Cervical dysplasia -

A

abnormal changes in the cells on the surface of the cervix. HPV infection is the cause of these changes

141
Q

Leiomyoma/Uterine fibroid -

A

benign tumors that arise from the overgrowth of smooth muscle and connective tissue in the uterus

142
Q

Endometrial carcinoma -

A

most common gynecological malignancy, frequently present with vaginal bleeding

143
Q

Fibroadenoma -

A

fibrous non cancerous breast tumors that occur most often in adolescent girls and women under age 30. A firm, smooth, rubbery growth, or hard lump with well defined shape

144
Q

Fibrocystic breasts -

A

breasts that are lumpy in one or both, can be tender or painful, a very common benign condition mainly affecting women over age 30

145
Q

Breast carcinoma -

A

cancer that forms in the tissue of the breast, most common type is ductal carcinoma which begins in the lining of the milk ducts

146
Q

Oligohydramnios -

A

too little amniotic fluid present, fetus swallows amniotic fluid - normal, fetal urination after kidneys develop – normal, adds to amniotic volume, too little fluid = fetal urinary anomalies

147
Q

Polyhydramnios -

A

too much amniotic fluid present, fetus is unable to swallow fluid, Anencephaly or gastrointestinal obstruction, an indicator of fetal distress or fetal death

148
Q

Ectopic pregnancy -

A

Development of embryo outside of uterus, most commonly seen in fallopian tube, aka tubal pregnancy, fetus cannot survive, risk of rupture and hemorrhage

149
Q

Placenta previa -

A

a problem in which the placenta grows in the lowest part of the womb (uterus) and covers all or part of the opening of the cervix

150
Q

Placental abruption -

A

a complication in pregnancy where the placental lining has been separated from the uterus of the mother prior to delivery

151
Q

Placenta percreta -

A

a condition in which the placenta invades the uterine wall and can cause an incomplete rupture of the uterus

152
Q

Hydatidiform mole -

A

a rare mass or growth that forms inside the womb (uterus) at the beginning of a pregnancy

153
Q

Cryptorchism -

A

failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotom

154
Q

Erectile dysfunction -

A

the inability of a man to have an erection hard enough to have sexual intercourse

155
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) -

A

enlarged prostate usually idiopathic in men age 50+, not a cancer

156
Q

TURP –

A

transurethral resection of prostate - a type of prostate surgery done to relieve moderate to severe urinary symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate

157
Q

Prostatic calculi -

A

small stones in the prostate gland which do not cause symptoms

158
Q

Prostatic adenocarcinoma -

A

prostate cancer starting in the prostate gland and can spread if not treated early, is second to skin cancer as the most common form of cancer in men

159
Q

Cryptorchism -

A

the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, the most common birth defect of the male genetalia

160
Q

Orchitis -

A

inflammation of the testicles, usually bacterial and bilateral, treated with antibiotics

161
Q

Hydrocele/Spermatocele -

A

pathological accumulation of serous fluid, a benign cystic accumulation of sperm that arises from the head of the epididymis

162
Q

Testicular seminoma -

A

the most common testicular tumors accounting for approximately 45% of all primary testicular tumors

163
Q

Testicular teratoma -

A

type of germ cell testicular tumor that may include mature elements such as hair, muscle, and bone. May be benign or malignant

164
Q

Testicular embryonal carcinoma -

A

relatively uncommon type of germ cell tumor occurring in the testes, average age at diagnosis is 31 years and is usually in the form of a testicular lump

165
Q

Testicular choriocarcinoma -

A

rare, germ cell testicular tumor/cancer in adult males, has the worst prognosis of all germ cell cancers

166
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

A

Bacterial infection of female reproductive system, Specifically uterine tubes, Usually bilateral
Common pathogens: gonorrhea, staph, strep
Treated with antibiotics

167
Q

Placenta

A

Temporary organ of pregnancy

Exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste

168
Q

Brachytherapy

A

Insertion of radioactive “seeds” (prostate and breast)

–Iodine 125, Palladium 103

169
Q

Testicular torsion

A

Torsion means “to twist”
Twisting of the spermatic cord within scrotum
Often the result of trauma

SEM V - Rad Pathology II (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions