Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the significance of Jenkins v. United States to forensic psychology?

A

allowed psychologists to serve as expert witnesses in matters involving criminal responsibility

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2
Q

Explain what is meant by the term jurisdiction.

A

authority

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3
Q

What are the four stages of the judicial process? (Be aware of tasks forensic psychologists might perform at each stage.)

A
  1. Pretrial
    -psychologists frequently assess the juvenile and file a report (or testify) as to the juvenile’s level of development and ability to be rehabilitated.
    -The psychologist is again called to perform an assessment when the mental health of a defendant is in question.
    -If a defendant is subsequently determined not competent to stand trial, psychologists may be involved in treating the defendant to restore competency
  2. Trial
    -Serve as trial consultants to lawyers by helping in ongoing case preparation
    -Expert witnesses
  3. Disposition
    -Evaluate a defendant’s potential for responding favorably to treatment
    -Assess risk for violent behavior
    -Offer opinions on types of rehabilitation strategies that could be used for a
    particular juvenile
  4. Appeals
    -Some consult with attorneys when they are preparing their appeals
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4
Q

Know the types of challenge during jury selection.

A

Peremptory challenge: A rule that allows a lawyer to request the removal of a prospective juror without giving a reason.

Challenge for cause: Exercised by an attorney or judge whenever it can be demonstrated that a would-be juror does not satisfy the statutory or other requirements for jury duty.

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5
Q

Know the definition and purpose of amicus curiae briefs (and why a psychological association or organization would want to file them).

A

Amicus curiae briefs: Document submitted to appellate courts by outside parties to call
attention to some matter that might otherwise escape the courts’ attention.

Filing amicus brief:
-document filed by interested parties who did not participate directly
in the trial but either have a stake in the outcome or have research knowledge to offer the appellate court
-typically filed by organizations on behalf of their members

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6
Q

Know the definition and purpose of the voir dire (and distinguish it from the venire)

A

voir dire: A process through which the judge and attorneys question the prospective jurors and possibly disqualify them from jury duty

Venire: a pool or panel of persons from which a jury is chosen (called to come to court as a juror)

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7
Q

Distinguish between the Frye general acceptance standard and the Daubert standard for evaluating expert testimony. (Understand why the Frye standard lost favor and was replaced by the Daubert standard.)

A

Focus of Daubert guidelines: evidence must be relevant, reliable, legally sufficient, and the probative value must outweigh the prejudicial value of the evidence

General acceptance rule: Standard for admitting scientific evidence into court proceedings that allows it if it is generally accepted as valid in the scientific community (obtained using the scientific method).

Frye standard lost favor because it was considered too stringent, presenting an obstacle to the introduction of evidence that had not yet reached “general acceptance”

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8
Q

Explain the difference between actuarial predictions, clinical predictions, and structured professional judgment as they relate to assessments of risk (and pros and cons of actuarial vs. clinical judgment).

A

Actuarial predictions: based on statistics and data

Clinical predictions: rely on experience and judgment

Structured professional judgment (SPJ): Relevant to risk assessment, it refers to a mental health practitioner assessing the likelihood of violence by using clinical judgment aided by guidelines.

Actuarial assessment better than clinical assessment: Predictions of violence based on clinical assessment rely on clinical experience and professional judgment and have not fared well when compared to actuarial assessments.

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9
Q

Examine confidentiality and ultimate issue testimony as they relate to expert witnesses.
(Understand the role of expert witnesses in court.)

A

Expert witnesses testify to facts they have observed directly, to tests they may have conducted, and to the research evidence in their field and their opinions and inferences are not only are admissible but are also often sought by the courts (know more than judge and jury about a particular area)

Ultimate issue: Final question that must be decided by the court. For example, should the expert provide an opinion about whether the defendant was indeed legally insane (and therefore not responsible) at the time of his crime?

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10
Q

Recognize concrete examples of static and dynamic risk factors.

A

Dynamic risk factors: Those that change over time and situation. Examples are substance abuse or negative attitudes toward women.

Static risk factors: Aspects of a person’s developmental history that place the person at risk for antisocial activity but that cannot be changed. Examples are parents with a history of criminal activity or the person’s own early-onset of criminal offending. Also called historical factors.

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11
Q

insanity plea (NGRI)

A

takes place at the time of the crime

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12
Q

competence to stand trial

A

takes place at the time of the trial

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13
Q

List at least five [adjudicative] competencies in criminal suspects and defendants that might have to be assessed by forensic psychologists.

A

competency to stand trial, competency to plead guilty, competency to waive one’s rights, competency to serve as one’s own lawyer, competency to plea bargain

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14
Q

What are the requirements of the two-pronged Dusky standard?

A

Dusky standard:
The “two-pronged” Dusky standard holds that (a) defendants must be able to understand
and appreciate the criminal proceedings against them and (b) be able to assist their attorneys in their defense.

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15
Q

What are the legal burdens of proof in criminal and civil adversarial proceedings?

A

Beyond a reasonable doubt: The burden of proof that must be met by the government in all criminal cases.

Clear and convincing evidence: Legal standard achieved when the truth of the facts asserted is highly probable but does not reach the standard of beyond a reasonable doubt

Preponderance of the evidence:
1. Proof that one side in a legal dispute has more evidence in its favor than the other.
2. It is the standard required in most civil suits and may be relevant to criminal proceedings
as well, but not to establish guilt

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16
Q

What is the case law (legal precedent) dealing with forced medication of incompetent defendants?

A

Case of Sell v. United States (2003):
1. Charles Sell was a former dentist who was charged with fraud, and he had a history of
mental disorder
2. Court did not consider him dangerous, but they did approve the forced medication to render him competent to stand trial.

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17
Q

What is the distinction between legal sanity and competency with reference to mental state?

A

Competency relates to the defendant’s state of mind at the present time
Sanity refers to the defendant’s state of mind at the time of the offense

18
Q

What is the common element among all insanity standards?

A

the defendant does not know the difference between right and wrong

19
Q

What is the middle-ground alternative between not guilty and NGRI?

A

Guilty but mentally ill (GBMI): A verdict alternative in some states that allows defendants to
be found guilty while seemingly affording them treatment for mental disorders.

20
Q

What are some problems/concerns with sex offender typologies?

A

few have received empirical support

21
Q

What is are some aggravating factors in sentencing sexual homicide offenders?

A

Aggravating factors: Circumstances surrounding a crime that heighten its seriousness for purposes of sentencing. An example would be an excessively heinous or cruel method of carrying out a crime, such as a torture murder or kidnapping

22
Q

mitigating factors

A

make it better for the individual (ex. abused by partner before killing them or someone else started the fight)

23
Q

What is the role of the forensic psychologist in (a) capital sentencing and (b) sexually violent predator proceedings?

A

Work with the defense with their mitigation arguments or with the prosecution against mitigations.

Provide assessments of the offender to aid in serving just punishments, civil commitment process assessments

24
Q

What has been the national trend in the U.S. with respect to the involuntary civil commitment of sexually violent predators (SVPs) at the conclusion of their prison sentences?

A

it increased greatly

25
Q

mens rea

A

wrong mind (criminal intent)

26
Q

actus rea

A

wrongful act (criminal act/offense)

27
Q

Who makes the custody decision in the majority of divorce cases involving dependent children?

A

the parents

28
Q

Evolution of the dominant standard for determining child custody in the past century.

A

tender years doctrine to the best interest of the child standard

29
Q

List and describe the different standards for determining child custody (tender years doctrine, BIC standard, least detrimental alternative standard, approximation rule, friendly-parent rule).

A

Best interest of the child (BIC) standard: The legal doctrine that the parents’ legal rights should be secondary to what is best for the child.

Tender years doctrine:
1. A legal assumption, derived from the traditional belief that the mother is the parent
ideally and inherently best suited to care for children of a “tender age.”
2. The doctrine is no longer officially used in virtually all states, though in many the mother
is presumptively given custody of the child.

Least detrimental alternative standard:
1. In custody decisions, the standard that chooses the arrangement that would cause the
child the least amount of harm.
2. Psychological knowledge can help in identifying which arrangement would do the least
harm.
3. Psychological assessment instruments tend to be pathology focused, identifying deficits
more than strengths.

Approximation rule: The court looks at the amount of caretaking done by each parent before making a decision on child custody.

Friendly-parent rule:
1. In child custody determinations, the rule that preference will be given to the parent who is most likely to nurture the child’s relationship with the other parent, provided the other parents is not abusive.
2. For that reason, custody is weighed toward the parent who is most likely to encourage contact with the noncustodial parent, rather than to try to limit that contact.

30
Q

What is the most common custody arrangement in the United States?

A

sole custody

31
Q

Know the major research findings on the impact or effects of divorce on children.

A

child should have a good relationship with both parents

32
Q

What is the “ultimate issue” question in a child custody cases?

A

who should be the custodial parent?

33
Q

Know the technical terms in civil litigation for the person filing the lawsuit and the person or organization alleged to have done harm (in contrast to prosecutor and defendant in criminal cases).

A

Plaintiff: person filing the lawsuit

Defendant or respondent: person or organization alleged to have caused the harm

34
Q

What is the technical term for a proven wrongful act that may be subject to recoverable damages in a civil lawsuit?

A

tort

35
Q

elements of a tort

A

duty, breach, harm, causation

36
Q

What are the principal types of damages awarded to plaintiffs in civil litigation?

A
  1. Compensatory damages: Money awards given in civil suits to make up for the harm that
    the plaintiff has suffered.
  2. Punitive damages: Awards in civil cases that are assessed to punish the defendant or
    respondent for the harm caused to the plaintiff.
37
Q

What is the standard of proof for most civil cases? (in contrast to criminal cases)

A

preponderance of the evidence (more likely than not)

38
Q

What is the term for a legal document to make one’s health wishes known, should one become physically incapacitated?

A

advance directive

39
Q

What burden of proof is required for involuntary civil commitment of mentally disordered individuals?

A

In most cases the party claiming that a person is not competent bears the burden of proving that by a preponderance of the evidence

40
Q

What is the distinction between sexual harassment and gender harassment?

A

Sexual harassment: A form of discrimination evidenced by unwelcome sexual comments or behavior directed toward a person based on sex; creates a hostile working environment.

Gender harassment:
1. A form of discrimination, and sometimes recognized in sexual harassment law, it refers
to persistent, unwanted comments or behavior directed at an individual because of his or
her gender.
2. Distinguished from sexual harassment in that it implies the harasser has no interest in sexual contact with the target of the harassment.
3. This is behavior directed at individuals who appear to violate their so-called gender roles, such as women who work in a previously all-male environment; women who are assertive, competent, and persistent; or men who are perceived as weak or emotional.

41
Q

What are the legal requirements for sexual harassment to qualify as unlawful?

A

Points to qualify as illegal behavior:
1. To qualify as illegal in the workplace, the behavior must be more than irritating or mildly offensive.
2. It must be severe and pervasive, so much so that it alters conditions of the victim’s employment.

42
Q

McDonald’s case

A

-tort
-both compensatory and punitive damages seemed excessive