Test 1

Question 1

What do the broad and narrow definitions of forensic psychology have in common?

Answer 1

both definitions involve a contribution to the legal system

Question 2

Identify some forensic fields in addition to forensic psychology

Answer 2

forensic engineering, forensic linguistics, forensic pharmacy, forensic oceanography, forensic medicine, forensic digital investigation, forensic social work, forensic nursing, forensic pathology, forensic anthropology, and forensic archaeology

Question 3

What are the five major areas in forensic psychology in which forensic psychologists are employed in addition to academic settings?

Answer 3

police and public safety psychology, legal psychology, psychology of crime and
delinquency, victimology and victim services, and correctional psychology

Question 4

A forensic psychologist conducting child custody evaluations, visitation risk assessments, and child abuse evaluations is practicing the forensic psychology subspecialty of __________.

Answer 4

legal
psychology

Question 5

Five areas in which forensic psychologists are employed in addition to academic settings. Subareas of forensic psychology in which forensic psychologists are employed (i.e., types of services provided).

Answer 5

private practice, victim services, sex offender treatment programs, research
organizations, and legal advocacy centers

Question 6

What type of education/training is offered at the undergraduate and graduate levels to provides students real-world exposure to the field?

Answer 6

internships

Question 7

There has been a global increase in forensic psychology graduate programs within the past few years. What conclusion can you draw about the field of forensic psychology from this statement?

Answer 7

the field is growing

Question 8

What are some limitations of a master’s degree compared with a doctoral degree in forensic psychology?

Answer 8

with a master’s degree, one cannot independently practice psychology (not technically a psychologist)

Question 9

What are some distinctions between the PhD the PsyD degrees?

Answer 9

the PsyD is focused on clinical training, while the PhD focuses on scientific research

Question 10

What is board certification and what is the most rigorous certification in American forensic psychology?

Answer 10

board certification means that an individual meets the most rigorous standards for practice in the field, and it adds stature to the credentials of individuals who are called to testify in court; the American Board of Forensic Psychology

Question 11

Recognize examples of what forensic psychologists do within the five major areas of forensic psychology.

Answer 11

Police and public safety psychology (PPSP) is the research and application of psychological principles and clinical skills to law enforcement, and public safety (fitness for duty evals.)

Legal psychology: Scientific study of a wide assortment of topics reflecting the close relationship between psychology and the law (perform evaluations)

Psychology of Crime and Delinquency: Science of the behavioral and mental processes of the adult and juvenile offender. It is primarily concerned with how antisocial behavior is acquired, evoked, maintained, and modified (research and consult)

Victimology and Victim Services: Study of persons who have experienced either actual or threatened physical, psychological, social, or financial harm as the result of the commission or attempted commission of crime against them.

Correctional psychology: Assessment, crisis intervention, substance abuse treatment, or reentry planning.

Question 12

Know the five major research and practice areas in forensic psychology and identify the most rapidly growing branch.

Answer 12

correctional psychology

Question 13

Areas in which psychologists have traditionally provided service to police Four general and overlapping domains of police practice

Answer 13

assessment, clinical intervention, operational support, and organizational counseling

Question 14

Define “police culture.”

Answer 14

the rules, attitudes, beliefs, and practices that are thought to be accepted among law enforcement officers as an occupational group

Question 15

Understand what is meant by job analysis and distinguish it from preemployment screening and fitness-for-duty evaluations (FFDEs).

Answer 15

Job Analysis: a systematic procedure for identifying the skills, abilities, knowledge, and
psychological characteristics that are needed to do public safety work successfully

Fitness-for-duty evaluations: assessments conducted to determine the psychological ability of law enforcement officers to perform their essential job functions, particularly after experiencing a major stressful event

Preemployment screening: the psychological evaluation that is conducted prior to a conditional offer of employment

Question 16

What are considered critical traits for successful police officers?

Answer 16

good judgment and common sense, appropriate decision-making skills, interpersonal skills, a solid memory, good observation talents, and communication skills, integrity, trustworthiness, emotional stability, and the ability to remain steady under stress

Question 17

Understand the meaning of validity, know the various types of validity (concurrent, predictive, content/face), know which type is the most desirable yet most difficult to achieve, and know the distinction between validity and reliability.

Answer 17

Validity: accuracy

Concurrent validity: the extent of the agreement between two measures or assessments taken at the same time

Predictive validity: The degree to which an inventory or test predicts a person’s subsequent performance on the dimensions or attributes the inventory (or test) is designed to measure.

Face/content validity: A test or inventory has face (or content) validity if its questions appear relevant to the tasks needed in law enforcement.

Most desirable, yet most difficult to achieve: predictive validity

Reliability: the consistency of a measure

construct validity: does the test measure what it says it measures?

Question 18

What is the goal of a fitness-for-duty evaluation (FFDE)?

Answer 18

to ascertain to what extent an employee is, or is not, able to meet job expectations

Question 19

Which test has been found to be the most valid (and therefore, the most widely used) for the selection of law enforcement personnel?

Answer 19

MMPI-2 (good predictive validity)

Question 20

Which type of occupational stressor is often the most prevalent and frustrating for law enforcement personnel?

Answer 20

organizational stressors (paperwork, weekend shifts, etc.)

Question 21

Know the definition of a “critical incident.”

Answer 21

emergencies and disasters that are nonroutine and unanticipated, such as an active
shooter or a family hostage-taking situation involving young children

Question 22

What is the major underling reason for police suicides?

Answer 22

difficulties in marital or intimate partner relationships

Question 23

What were the key finding of the National Institute of Justice’s 1999 report on police use of force?

Answer 23

1. Police use force infrequently.
2. Police use of force typically occurs at the lower end of the force spectrum, involving grabbing, pushing, or shoving.
3. Use of force typically occurs when police are trying to make an arrest and the suspect is resisting.

Question 24

What is the purpose of crime scene profiling?

Answer 24

collect evidence of the crime scene

Question 25

What is linkage analysis?

Answer 25

a method of identifying crimes that are likely to have been committed by the same
offender because of similarities across the crimes

Question 26

Distinguish among suspect-based profiling (e.g., racial profiling), psychological profiling (e.g., risk assessment), and the psychological autopsy (equivocal death analysis).

Answer 26

Suspect-based profiling: summarizes the psychological features of persons who may commit a crime based on features of past individuals who have committed similar crimes

Psychological profiling: gathering information-usually on a known individual or individuals who pose a threat or who are believed to be dangerous (risk assessment)

Psychological autopsy: a procedure that is done following a death in order to determine the person’s mental state prior to the death

Question 27

Be familiar with the principle of behavioral consistency over time and across situations, or space (temporal stability and cross-situational consistency, referred to in the text as trans-temporal consistency and trans-situational consistency).

Answer 27

trans-temporal consistency: the idea that human behavior is consistent across time

trans-situational consistency: the idea that human behavior is consistent across places

Question 28

Be familiar with the distinction between modus operandi and signature.

Answer 28

modus operandi: the actions and procedures an offender uses to commit a crime successfully (helps them evade detection)

signature: an identifiable unique object, message, or symbol left by a criminal at the scene of a crime (not necessary)

Question 29

Understand the principle of confirmation bias.

Answer 29

principle of confirmation bias: the tendency to notice and remember information that lends support to our views on something, such as a suspect (see what we expect)

Question 30

Be familiar with the legal aspects of police interrogation.

Answer 30

a confession must be freely and voluntarily given if it is to be used as evidence, police can lie, and Miranda rights don’t have to be read unless you’re placed under arrest (in custody)

Question 31

Be familiar with the types of lineups and protocols to minimize bias and error.

Answer 31

Simultaneous lineup: suspect is placed in a lineup with other individuals in hope that a victim or other witness will be able to identify the suspect as a perpetrator

Sequential lineup: individuals are shown to the witness one by one

Double-blind lineup: neither the witness nor the officer administering it is aware of the suspect

-the person putting together the lineup or photo spread know which person is the suspect, however, the person administering the lineup should not know
-eyewitness should be informed that the person administering the lineup does not know which person is the suspect
-eyewitnesses should be told that the suspect might not be in the lineup or photo spread
-suspect should not stand out in the lineup or photo spread
-a clear statement should be taken from the eyewitness at the time of identification, prior to any feedback on whether they chose the right suspect

Question 32

Know the Pros and cons of different polygraph approaches, especially the Control Question Technique (CQT) and the Guilty Knowledge Test (GKT).

Answer 32

CQT (more common) (professionals prefer):
1. Assumption of (CQT) is that guilty are more aroused during relevant over comparison
and that innocent are more aroused for comparison over relevant may be flawed.
2. Errors are made more common for innocent, goes against protecting the innocent

GKT (researchers prefer): impractical, as it requires the polygrapher to know details of the crime that are generally not known by the public

Question 33

personality

Answer 33

cross-situationally consistent and temporally stable patterns of thinking, feeling, and relating to others

Question 34

benefit of personality profiling

Answer 34

know what kind of person you’re looking for

Question 35

risk assessment

Answer 35

whether someone is a risk to themselves or others

Question 36

ABC of personality

Answer 36

affect, behavior, cognition