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Spinal > Test 1 questions > Flashcards

Test 1 questions Flashcards

0
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblast—> form bone
Osteocyte—-> maintain or nurture bone
Osteoclast—-> remodel bone

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1
Q

What are the 4 basic tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural, connective

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2
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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3
Q

What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type 1

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4
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

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5
Q

What is Wolff’s law as it pertains to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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6
Q

What are the 3 responses of bone that allow it to e described as “living”?

A

it has the ability to heal
to remodel under stressors
to age

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7
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

mesenchyme or cartilage

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8
Q

What is the name give to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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9
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the 2nd to 3rd month in utero

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10
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from 2nd to 5th month in utero

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11
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

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12
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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13
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A 
sexual dimorphism (gender variation)
ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation)
geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation)
idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)
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14
Q

What are the 6 more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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15
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal II?

A

heterotopic and accessory bone

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16
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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17
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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18
Q

What is the characteristic feature of a long bone?

A

it is longer than it is across (length greater than breadth)

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19
Q

What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?

A 
the diaphysis (shaft)
typically 2 epiphyses (extremities)
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20
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

they are essentially cuboidal

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21
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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22
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

the parietal bone and sternum

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23
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, and temporal

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24
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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25
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

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26
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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27
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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28
Q

What are the 4 basic surface feature of categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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29
Q

When do the surface features of bone become prominent?

A

during and after puberty

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30
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

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31
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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32
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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33
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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34
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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35
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

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36
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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37
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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38
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

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39
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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40
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

meatus

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41
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of adjacent bones

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42
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

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43
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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44
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum, ribs

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45
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

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46
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

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47
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton) and the auditory ossicles

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48
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28

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49
Q

What bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?

A

the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid

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50
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8

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51
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton? (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)

A

14

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52
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

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53
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24

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54
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1

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55
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

the manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process

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56
Q

What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

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57
Q

What are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

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58
Q

What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

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59
Q

Which example of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

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60
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

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61
Q

What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

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62
Q

What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

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63
Q

What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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64
Q

What is the function of type 4 articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

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65
Q

Type 4b articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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66
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A
  1. synovial villi, 2. articular fat pads or Haversian glands, 3. synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
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67
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

lumbar zygapophyses

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68
Q

Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints examples?

A

temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular and radio-ulnar joints

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69
Q

Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?

A

femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

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70
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

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71
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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72
Q

Which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?

A

type 2

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73
Q

What is the primary function of bound gylcosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

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74
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

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75
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

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76
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

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77
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

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78
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

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79
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

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80
Q

Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

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81
Q

What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

lubricin

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82
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus

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83
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

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84
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

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85
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

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86
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?

A

ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint

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87
Q

What are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?

A

median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

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88
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

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89
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

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90
Q

What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle nd the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

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91
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?

A

femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus - glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

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92
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

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93
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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94
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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95
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the ant bear and three-toed sloth

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96
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the manatee and two-toed sloth

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97
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

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98
Q

What does the term “thoracic refer to?

A

breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

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99
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segements; the dorsals

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100
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

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101
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

the holy bone or holy region

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102
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

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103
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

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104
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

about 60 centimeters or 25 inches

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105
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 inches

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106
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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107
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region ( both measurements)?

A

about 28 centimeters or 11 inches

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108
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?

A

about 18 centimeters or 7 inches

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109
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

110
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

A

about 58 centimeters or 23 inches

111
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

112
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

113
Q

Distinguish between motion and locomotion.

A

motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location

114
Q

What is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc

115
Q

What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

116
Q

Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.

A

sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome

117
Q

What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

118
Q

Migration of somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal blastema

119
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

neural processes and costal processes

120
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

intersegmental artery

121
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastemae?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

122
Q

The intrasclerotomal fissure ( fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal disc

123
Q

The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichoral blastemae gives rise to what feature?

A

the vertebral blastema

124
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

the segmental artery

125
Q

When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

126
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

chondrification

127
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

six….2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process

128
Q

What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?

A

during the 7th embryonic week

129
Q

What is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers appear in utero, secondary centers appear after birth

130
Q

What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers

131
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

centrum centers and neural arch centers

132
Q

What are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

133
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

134
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform

135
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal plate

136
Q

What is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and articular processes attach?

A

the lamina - pedicle junction

137
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - posterolateral
thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
lumbar - posterior

138
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

139
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

140
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

141
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray?

A

shingling

142
Q

What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis

143
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral X-ray?

A

the spinolaminar junction

144
Q

What is the generic or orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - posterolateral; lumbar - lateral

145
Q

All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain equivalent feature?

A

the costal element

146
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new postion

147
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

148
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

149
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

150
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

151
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

152
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

153
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

imbrication

154
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - slight angle inferiorly
thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar - no inferior angle

155
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/ vertebral column?

A

cervical - triangular
thoracic - oval
lumbar - triangular
sacrum - triangular

156
Q

At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

157
Q

At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

158
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

159
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

160
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

161
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

162
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery?

163
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

164
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

165
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

166
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1, T2

167
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

168
Q

What segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

169
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

170
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

171
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

172
Q

Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

173
Q

What are the segmental arteries for L5?

A

iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery

174
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis).

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

175
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

176
Q

Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

177
Q

What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

178
Q

What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

179
Q

What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?

A

dorsospinal artery

180
Q

Which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen?

A

spinal artery

181
Q

Which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter the subarachnoid space?

A

spinal artery

182
Q

What are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery

183
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

184
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery & plexus

185
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior spinal canal artery & plexus

186
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

187
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/ anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

188
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/ posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

189
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

190
Q

What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

191
Q

What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries

192
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

193
Q

What intramedullary branches supply about 1/3 of the spinal cord?

A

pial perforating arteries

194
Q

What is the source for pial perforating arteries?

A

the pial plexus

195
Q

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

196
Q

What is the location and number of medullary feeder arteries present in the adult?

A

9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries

197
Q

What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

anterior spinal artery

198
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the vertebral artery

199
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

200
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

anterior medullary feeder arteries

201
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

202
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

203
Q

Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

204
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries

205
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communication arteries

206
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

pial veins

207
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

208
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular veins

209
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

210
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

211
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

212
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

213
Q

What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

dentate (denticulate) ligament

214
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

215
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

216
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement

217
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

218
Q

What is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

219
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

220
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically S4, S5 and Co1

221
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

222
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

223
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

224
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

225
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

226
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

227
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate?

A

lower limbs and the external anal sphincter

228
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

229
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale externum

230
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

231
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

232
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord

233
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple in the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

234
Q

Which mammals have more than 7 cervical vertebrae?

A

ant bear, three-toed sloth

235
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two-toed sloth, manatee

236
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical cervical spine?

A

seven segements

237
Q

Which vertebrae are typical cervicals?

A

C3-C6

238
Q

Which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?

A

C1, C2, C7

239
Q

What is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from the cranial view?

A

rectangular

240
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

241
Q

What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?

A

posterior or kyphotic

242
Q

What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

the intervertebral disc height

243
Q

What is the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

anterior or lordotic

244
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

245
Q

What is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body?

A

it diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body?

246
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

247
Q

What are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip

248
Q

At what developmental age will the uncinate process first be observed?

A

3rd-4th fetal month

249
Q

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

250
Q

What are the names given to the lateral modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim?

A

lateral groove or enchancrure

251
Q

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

252
Q

What is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) sundesmosis

253
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

254
Q

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) sumphysis

255
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

five

256
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

ten

257
Q

What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

joint of Luschka or unconvertebral joint

258
Q

What does the recent literature suggest as to the nature of the joint of Luschka?

A

the joint is representative of intervertebral disc aging, which results in loss of lamellar integrity near the joint

259
Q

What is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka?

A

it appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion - extension and requiring coupled motion (axial rotation with lateral bending) in the cervical spine

260
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

the longus colli muscle

261
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

posterolateral, 45 degrees

262
Q

At what location on the vertebral body of a typical cervical will the pedicle attach?

A

to the side and in the center of the vertebral body

263
Q

The greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at?

A

C6

264
Q

The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6

265
Q

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

266
Q

What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransversarii

267
Q

What muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

splenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intertransversarii

268
Q

What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

middle scalene and posterior intertransversarii

269
Q

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

270
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)

271
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle

272
Q

What will cause remodeling of the anterior tubercle at C6?

A

the common carotid artery

273
Q

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

the vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

Spinal (15 decks)

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