Test 1 Genetics Ch. 8 Flashcards

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1
Q

1) What are two distinguishing features of RNA? 1)
A) RNA has a ribose sugar and uracil nitrogenous base.
B) RNA contains phophodiester bonds as part of its sugar backbone.
C) RNA forms a double helix of reverse complementary strands.
D) RNA contains a methylated form of thymine.
E) RNA contains a pyrophosphate group bound to the ribose.

A

Answer: A

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2
Q

2) Which type of research technique was used to track newly synthesized RNA within a eukaryotic 2) cell?
A) DNA footprint protection assay
B) in situ hybridization
C) pulse- chase
D) Southern blotting E) band shift assay

A

Answer: C

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3
Q

3) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes produce which of the following types of RNA?
A) siRNA, tRNA, miRNA B) rRNA, siRNA, snRNA
C) mRNA, gRNA, siRNA
D) miRNA, rRNA, snRNA E) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
E) RNA contains a pyrophosphate group bound to the ribose.

A

E

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4
Q

4) You wish to create a mutation that prevents access of RNA polymerase to the gene. Which region of a gene would you mutate?
A) terminator sequence B) stop codon
C) coding region
D) start codon
E) promoter sequence

A

Answer: E

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5
Q

5) A gene has acquired a mutation in which the protein product has 50 additional amino acids at the end. Which region of the gene was likely mutated?
A) coding region
B) stop colon
C) terminator sequence
D) promoter sequence
E) start codon

A

Answer: B

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6
Q

6) What is the role of a promoter region of a gene?
A) Protect the gene from mutations in intergenic regions.
B) Recruit transcription factors that form the initiation complex.
C) Recruit RNA Polymerase to the transcriptional start site.
D) Recruit rho protein to assist in transcription.
E) Serve as the original region of transcription of a gene.

A

Answer: B

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7
Q

7) Which region(s) of a gene are NOT found within the mRNA transcript?
A) promoter and termination region
B) promoter region
C) stop codon
D) termination region

A

Answer: B

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8
Q

10) In a given bacterium, transcription of housekeeping genes is normal, but genes involved in nitrogen metabolism, stress, and chemotaxis are disrupted. Which sigma subunit is INTACT?
A) Η32
B) Η28
C) Η70
D) Η54
E) Η35

A

Answer: C

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9
Q

11) What is the significance of the open complex when the RNA Polymerase binds the DNA?
A) The growing RNA molecule can now fit inside the active site of the RNA Polymerase.
B) It permits transcription factors to bind to the RNA Polymerase.
C) It assists with propagation of the RNA Polymerase along the DNA helix.
D) The RNA Polymerase binds the single- stranded coding strand in its active site.
E) The RNA Polymerase binds the single- stranded template strand in its active site.

A

Answer: E

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10
Q

12) Why does rho- dependent transcriptional termination in bacteria require the rho protein?
A) The rho protein assists in formation of the termination stem- loop that pauses the RNA Polymerase.
B) RNA Polymerase stalls at various sites in the gene and rho helps push RNA Polymerase to the end of the gene.
C) The rho protein helps unwind the stem- loop structure after the RNA has been released by RNA Polymerase.
D) The stem- loop is insufficiently stable to displace the RNA Polymerase by itself and needs rho protein to assist.
E) RNA Polymerase stalls on the termination stem- loop and rho is needed to displace the RNA Polymerase.

A

Answer: E

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11
Q

13) You want to design a drug that prevents transcription of eukaryotic mRNAs but does not affect transcription of other RNAs. What enzyme would you target?
A) RNA polymerase III B) RNA polymerase I
C) ribozyme
D) methyl transferase
E) RNA polymerase II

A

Answer: E

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12
Q

14) What is the type of each eukaryotic protein that primarily transcribes mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA, respectively?
A) RNA Polymerase I, II, III
B) RNA Polymerase II, III, I
C) RNA Polymerase I, III, II
D) RNA Polymerase II, I, III
E) RNA Polymerase III, II, I

A

F) Answer: D

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13
Q

15) What must eukaryotes do to initiate transcription of a gene?
A) Recruit general transcription factors to produce an open complex and then recruit RNA Polymerase.
B) Bind RNA Polymerase to displace histone proteins that binding DNA in the promoter region.
C) Bind transcription factors from enhancer sequences to the RNA Polymerase.
D) Recruit the transcription factors and RNA Polymerase that compose the pre- initiation complex.
E) Open the DNA template and then bind RNA Polymerase at the transcriptional initiation site.

A

Answer: D

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14
Q

16) Which assay allows you to identify the exact location of the protein- binding sequence within a promoter?
A) pulse- chase assay
B) DNA footprint protection assay
C) western/immuno blotting
C) in situ hybridization
D) Southern blotting

A

Answer: A

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15
Q

19) Which of the following is part of a DNA molecule?
A) sigma
B) activator
C) RNA polymerase
D) promoter
E) transcription factor

A

Answer: D

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16
Q

20) Which of the following statements accurately describes tRNA?
A) tRNAs are a variety of lengths and fold into a variety of shapes.
B) Amino acids are bound to the 5’ end of the tRNA.
C) Wobble in the anticodon allows a single tRNA to bind to multiple codons.
D) Post- transcriptional modifications of tRNAs are not necessary for their function.
E) All organisms produce tRNAs corresponding to the 61 amino- acid coding codons.

A

Answer: C

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17
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes tRNA?
A) phosphodiesterase
B) adenylyl cyclase
C) ribozyme
D) methyl transferase
E) guanylyl transferase

A

Answer: E

18
Q

What defines the end of a eukaryotic gene?
A) A 3’ UTR of at least 25 nucleotides recruits an RNase that cleaves the pre- mRNA.
B) Presence of a polyadenylation signal sequence leads to cleavage of the pre- mRNA.
C) A stem- loop structure in the transcriptional terminator region stalls the RNA polymerase.
D) There is no clearly defined end to eukaryotic genes, unlike for bacterial genes.
E) Presence of a stop codon leads to RNA polymerase stalling and ceasing transcription.

A

Answer: B

19
Q

26) A cell has a defect in polyadenylation of mRNA. The RNA transcripts encoding which type of 26) protein would NOT be affected by this defect because they are not polyadenylated?
A) SR proteins
B) histone proteins
C) DNA binding proteins
D) transcription factors
E) transmembrane proteins

A

Answer: B

20
Q

27) What is the general name for the components of the spliceosome, which removes introns from 27) mRNAs?
A) small interfering RNA enhancers
B) small nuclear ribonucleoproteins
C) lariat intronic nucleolar proteins
D) microRNA activators
E) branch point adenine recognition proteins

A

Answer: B

21
Q

28) What is the purpose of alternative splicing in eukaryotic cells?
A) Improve the efficiency of transcription and translation.
B) Regulate the quantity of any single protein being produced in the cell.
C) Increase the number of genes that do not have to contain introns.
D) Produce multiple types of tRNAs that can bind to different codons.
E) Produce multiple polypeptide sequences from a single primary transcript.

A

Answer: E

22
Q

29) The rat ΅- tropomyosin (΅- Tm) gene produces nine different mature mRNA proteins from a single gene using which three “alternative” mechanisms?
A) 5’ cap, branch points, polyadenylation
B) 5’ cap, self- splicing, polyadenylation
C) splicing, start codon, stop codon
D) promoters, start codon, poly(A) signal sequences E) splicing, promoters, and polyadenylation

A

Answer: E

23
Q

30) What are catalytically active RNAs that can activate processes such as self- splicing?
A) snRNAs
B) ribosomes
C) pre- mRNAs
D) rnzymes
E) ribozymes

A

Answer: E

24
Q

31) In humans, the 30S pre- RNA transcript yields three rRNA segments following transcription and RNA cleavage. Which RNA transcripts are generated by the 30S pre- RNA transcript in E. coli?
A) two tRNA transcripts
B) three rRNAs (5S, 16S, and 23S) and two tRNA transcripts C) three rRNAs (5S, 16S, and 23S)
D) three rRNAs (5.8S, 18S, and 28S) and two tRNA transcripts
E) two rRNAs (15S each)

A

Answer: B

25
Q

32) One type of RNA editing involves inserting uracils into edited mRNA with the assistance of which type of specialized RNA?
A) telomerase RNA
B) guide RNA
C) post- transcriptional editor RNA
D) transposon RNA
E) small nucleolar RNA

A

Answer: B

26
Q

33) What are the two chemical structures found in RNA but not DNA?

A

Answer: ribose sugar, uracil base

27
Q

34) Which three types of RNAs are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

Answer: mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA

28
Q

35) miRNA regulates protein production through which process?

A

Answer: RNA interference

29
Q

36) Which type of RNA interacts with nuclear proteins to form a ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for intron removal?

A

Answer: snRNA

30
Q

37) You wish to prevent transcription of all three types of RNA in bacteria. How many different types of RNA polymerase would you need to inhibit?

A

Answer: one

31
Q

38) What are the mechanisms for transcription termination in bacteria?

A

Answer: intrinsic and rho- dependent

32
Q

39) Transcription of inverted repeats produces an mRNA with complementary segments that fold to form what type of secondary structure?

A

Answer: stem- loop (hairpin)

33
Q

41) A plant cell exhibits defects in transcription of transfer RNA genes. The gene encoding which polymerase is likely to be mutated in this cell?

A

Answer: RNA polymerase III

34
Q

42) Prokaryotes have a - 10 and - 35 consensus sequence in their promoter. What are the three eukaryotic promoter sequence elements (or “boxes”)?

A

Answer: GC- rich, CAAT, and TATA boxes

35
Q

43) What proteins aid in the recognition of the promoter sequence and binding of RNA polymer in eukaryotes?

A

Answer: transcription factors (TFs)

36
Q

44) What proteins are bound to enhancers, forming a protein “bridge” that bends the DNA over the promoter to initiate transcription?

A

Answer: activator proteins

37
Q

45) What proteins bind to silencer sequences, forming a protein “bridge” that bends the DNA over the promoter and prevents transcription?

A

Answer: repressor proteins

38
Q

46) Processing of the 30S pre- RNA transcript in humans produces which three rRNAs after enzymatic cleavage?

A

Answer: 5.8S, 18S, 28S

39
Q

47) RNA polymerase is called a ________, meaning it is an intact complex with full enzymatic capacity.

A

Answer: holoenzyme

40
Q

48) In intrinsic termination, inverted repeat DNA sequences followed immediately by a string of ________ produce an mRNA stem- loop, followed by a string of ________.

A

Answer: adenines; uracils

41
Q

49) Polyadenylation begins with the binding of ________ near a six- nucleotide mRNA sequence, AAUAAA, downstream of the stop codon.

A

Answer: cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF)

42
Q

50) Intron self- splicing occurs when two ________ reactions excise the intron and allow exons to ligate.

A

Answer: transesterification