Test 1 Genetics Ch. 7 Flashcards

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1
Q
Sexual reproduction uses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to generate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ gametes, which join at fertilization. 
A) mitosis; diploid
B) meiosis; haploid
C) mitosis; identical
D) meiosis; diploid
E) mitosis; haploid
A

Answer: B

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2
Q
2) When a diploid cell divides by mitosis, the result is?
A) identical diploid cells
B) identical haploid cells
C) unique haploid cells
D) a zygote
E) unique diploid cells
A

Answer: A

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3
Q
3) Modern genetics consists of three major branches. Which of these branches, also known as “transmission genetics," involves the study of the transmission of traits and characteristics in successive generations?
A) molecular
B) evolutionary
C) reproductive
D) Mendelian
E) population
A

Answer: D

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4
Q
4) You identify a new unicellular organism with multiple chromosomes organized by proteins withinthe cell's nucleus. Into which of the three domains of life might this organism fit?
A) Eukarya
B) Archaea
C) Bacteria
D) Archaea or Bacteria
E) Archaea or Eukarya
A

Answer: A

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5
Q

5) Watson and Crick used evidence from several studies to determine the structure of DNA. What conclusion were they able to draw from Rosalind Franklin’s X- ray diffraction data, specifically?
A) DNA nucleotides form complementary base pairs.
B) The DNA strands are antiparallel, and the strands are held together by hydrogen bonds.
C) DNA consists of four types of nucleotide bases: A, T, C, and G.
D) DNA is a duplex, with two strands forming a double helix.
E) Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine when they are on opposite DNA strands.

A

Answer: D

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6
Q
6) What kind of bond is formed between the 5ȝ phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3ȝ hydroxyl (OH) group of the adjacent nucleotide?
A) hydrogen bond
B) disulfide bond
C) hydroxyl bond
D) ionic bond
E) phosphodiester bond
A

Answer: E

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7
Q
7) What kind of bond is formed between complementary base pairs to join the two DNA strands into 
a double helix?
A) hydrogen bond
B) peptide bond 
C) ionic bond
D) disulfide bond
E) phosphodiester bond
A

Answer: A

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8
Q

8) Identify which of the following includes three possible components of a RNA nucleotide?
A) deoxyribose, uracil, phosphate group
B) deoxyribose, cytosine, phosphate group
C) deoxyribose, guanine, phosphate group
D) ribose, thymine, phosphate group
E) ribose, adenine, phosphate group

A

Answer: E

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9
Q
9) What chemical group appears on the 5' carbon of a DNA nucleotide? 
A) carboxyl group
B) phosphate group
C) nitrogenous base
D) hydroxyl group 
E) amino group
A

Answer: B

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10
Q
10) If a eukaryotic chromosome was composed of 20% adenine, how much cytosine should theoretically be present in that same chromosome?
A) 40% 
B) 30% 
C) 60% 
D) 10% 
E) 20%
A

Answer: B

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11
Q
11) What is the sequence and polarity of the DNA strand complementary to the strand 12) 5' AAATGTCCATGC 3'?
A) 5' UUUACAGGUACG 3'
B) 3' UUUACAGGUACG 5' 
C) 3' AAATGTCCATGC 5'
D) 5' TTTACAGGTACG 3
E) 3' TTTACAGGTACG 5'
A

Answer: E

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12
Q

12) Messenger RNA (mRNA) is
A) the molecule that carries the genetic information from DNA and is used as a template for protein synthesis
B) the major structural material making up ribosomes
C) the monomer of polypeptides
D) a molecule that incorporates a specific amino acid into the growing protein when it recognizes a specific group of three bases
E) the major structural component of chromosomes

A

Answer: A

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13
Q
14) What are the DNA regulatory sequences recognized by RNA polymerase called? 
A) anticodons
B) termination sequences
C) promoters
D) introns
E) proteomes
A

Answer: C

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14
Q
15) What is the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA sequences?
A) transcription 
B) replication
C) transformation
D) transduction
E) translation
A

Answer: E

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15
Q
16) What is the process of synthesizing single- stranded RNA from template DNA? 
A) transduction
B) replication
C) transformation
D) translation
E) transcription
A

Answer: E

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16
Q
17) What kind of bond is formed between successive amino acids during translation?
A) ionic bond
B) phosphodiester bond
C) peptide bond
D) hydrogen bond
E) disulfide bond
A

Answer: C

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17
Q
18) Retroviruses carry their genetic information in the form of RNA, which is subsequently coded into DNA after the virus enters its host cell. What enzyme does the retrovirus use to produce this initial DNA?
A) RNA polymerase
B) ribosomes
C) reverse transcriptase
D) DNA polymerase
E) reverse translationase
A

Answer: C

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18
Q
19) Only sixty- one of the sixty- four codons specify an amino acid. In what process do the other three codons function?
A) termination of transcription
B) initiation of replication
C) termination of translation
D) initiation of transcription
E) initiation of translation
A

Answer: C

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19
Q
20) The movement of DNA or RNA in gel electrophoresis is often a matter of molecular weight alone. Which of the following molecular parameters usually influence the movement of protein?
A) only shape
B) only charge
C) weight, charge, or shape
D) only weight
E) only weight and shape
A

Answer: C

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20
Q

22) Hereditary anemia known as sickle cell disease (SCD) results from inheritance of a variant form of<br></br>Ά- globin protein (ΆS), rather than the wild- type Ά- globin protein (ΆA). Which of the following did Linus Pauling find following gel electrophoresis of hemoglobin protein from individuals with the following three genotypes: ΆΆA, ΆΆS, or ΆΆS?<br></br>
A) all three lanes had just one protein band with the same electrophoretic mobility
B) the lane containing the hemoglobin from the heterozygote (ΆΆS) individual had two protein bands with differing electrophoretic mobility
C) the lane containing the hemoglobin from the homozygous (ΆΆA) individual had two protein bands with differing electrophoretic mobility
D) the lane containing the hemoglobin from the homozygous (ΆΆS) individual with SCD had two protein bands
E) all three lanes had the same two protein bands with the same electrophoretic mobility

A

Answer: B

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21
Q
23) You have digested a molecule of DNA and want to identify a specific fragment of interest. The DNA is subjected to gel electrophoresis, but you get two bands that are very close in size. What could you use to determine which band is the correct one?
A) southern blot
B) western blot
C) northern blot
D) eastern blot
E) stain with ethidium bromide
A

Answer: A

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22
Q
24) Which of the follow refers to all the RNA produced by transcription of DNA? 
A) population genetics
B) proteome
C) transcriptome
D) translatome
E) genome
A

Answer: C

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23
Q
25) Which evolutionary process describes the movement of members of a species from one population to another?
A) natural selection
B) migration
C) mutation
D) random genetic drift
E) population genetics
A

Answer: B

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24
Q
26) Which evolutionary process is most pronounced in small populations where statistical fluctuations in allele frequencies can be significant from one generation to the next?
A) natural selection
B) migration
C) mutation
D) random genetic drift
E) population genetics
A

Answer: D

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25
Q
27) Which evolutionary process involves the slow addition of allelic variation that increases the hereditary diversity of populations, ultimately leading to evolutionary change?
A) natural selection
B) migration
C) mutation
D) random genetic drift 
E) population genetics
A

Answer: C

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26
Q
28) Which evolutionary process relies on the premise that individuals with the best adaptations are most successful at reproducing and leave more offspring than those with less adaptive forms? 
A) natural selection
B) migration
C) mutation
D) random genetic drift  
E) population genetics
A

Answer: A

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27
Q
29) Which term describes a set of organisms that descended from a single common ancestor and are more closely related to other members of the group than to organisms outside the group?
A) species
B) paraphyletic group
C) monophyletic group
D) parsimony
E) phylogeny
A

Answer: C

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28
Q
30) Morphological or molecular characters shared by members of a clade are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) common ancestors
B) paraphyletic groups
C) monophyletic groups
D) synaptomorphies
E) homoplasmies
A

Answer: D

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29
Q

31) What are the three domains of life?

A

Answer: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

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30
Q

32) With the assistance of William Bateson, Archibald Garrod produced the first documented example of a human hereditary disorder that shaped the study of biochemical pathways. Which disorder were they describing?

A

Answer: alkaptonuria

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31
Q

33) The physical units of heredity composed of defined DNA sequences that collectively control gene transcription and contain the information to produce RNA molecules or proteins are better known as what?

A

Answer: genes<br></br>34) A complete set of chromosomes is transmitted to produce identical daughter cells in which cell division process?&raquo_space;Answer: mitosis

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32
Q

35) The genotypes of humans are more than 99% similar. What is the term that describes the alternative forms of genes that contribute to human genetic variation?

A

Answer: alleles

33
Q

36) In eukaryotes, most of the cells’ DNA is found in the form of chromosomes in the nucleus. Which organelles contain their own genomes (descended from ancient endosymbiotic bacteria)?

A

Answer: mitochondria and chloroplasts

34
Q

37) During DNA replication, nascent DNA strands are synthesized in only one direction. Nucleotides are added only to which end of the nascent strand?

A

Answer: the 3ȝ hydroxyl end

35
Q

38) Messenger RNA codons pair with tRNA anticodons at which cell structure?

A

Answer: the ribosome

36
Q

39) Peptidyl transferase and other proteins power the continuous progression of the ribosome along mRNA and catalyze what type of bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain?

A

Answer: peptide bonds

37
Q

40) Before transferring DNA from a gel to the membrane in Southern blotting, the DNA must be denatured (usually by soaking the gel in NaOH). Why is this step necessary?

A

Answer: to make the DNA single stranded so that the molecular probe can bind via complementary base pairing to its target DNA

38
Q

41) What process proposed by Wallace and Darwin describes the higher rates of survival and reproduction of certain forms of a species over alternative forms?

A

Answer: natural selection

39
Q

42) As natural selection increases the frequency of one morphological form over another in the population, what changes at the genotypic level?

A

Answer: allele frequency

40
Q

43) What type of diagram would you use to depict morphological or molecular similarities and differences that identify evolutionary relationships?

A

Answer: phylogenetic tree

41
Q

44) Both sugar gliders and flying squirrels have evolved characteristics that allow them to glide, despite being geographically separated. Similar traits that have independent origins arise as a result of what phenomenon?

A

Answer: convergent evolution

42
Q

45) Phylogenetic trees are constructed based on morphological characteristics, but molecule phylogenetic trees are constructed based on which feature?

A

Answer: nucleic or amino acid sequencev

43
Q

46) The work of Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri suggested that the hereditary units, or genes, described by Mendel are located on ________.

A

Answer: chromosomes

44
Q

47) Genetic experiments have revealed the relationship between the observable traits of an organism, or ________, and the genetic constitution of an organism, or ________.

A

Answer: phenotype; genotype

45
Q

48) DNA replication is called ________ because the newly replicated DNA consists of a 5parental strand (from the original DNA) and a newly synthesized daughter strand.

A

Answer: semiconservative

46
Q

49) The ________, first proposed by Francis Crick, summarizes the relationships betweenDNA, RNA, and protein.

A

Answer: central dogma of biology

47
Q

50) A general labeling compound called ________ attaches to all DNA or RNA in a gel bybinding to the sugar- phosphate backbone, thus allowing researchers to visualize the nucleic acids when the gel is exposed to UV light.

A

Answer: ethidium bromide (EtBr)

48
Q
1) The process by which Pneumococcus transfers DNA between living type RII and heat- killed type SIII cells is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) transformation
B) ligation
C) conjugation
D) transduction
E) replication
A

Answer: A

49
Q

2) Avery, Macleod, and McCarty expanded on Griffith’s experiment to prove that DNA is the hereditary molecule required for transformation. What treatment of the heat- killed SIII bacteria extract resulted in the mouse LIVING?
A) Destruction of type SIII DNA with DNase
B) Destruction of type SIII lipids and polysaccharides
C) Destruction of type SIII RNA with RNase
D) Destruction of type SIII proteins with protease
E) Use of the control group (null treatment), in which all components are intact

A

Answer: A

50
Q

3) In the Hershey- Chase experiment, bacteriophages were produced in either 32P- containing or<br></br>35S- containing medium. Where were these isotopes eventually detected when the radioactively- labeled bacteriophages were introduced to a fresh bacterial culture?
A) The 32P was associated with the culture medium and 35S was associated with the phage particles.
B) Both 32P and 35S were associated with the bacterial cells.
C) The 32P was associated with the culture medium and 35S was associated with the bacterial cells.
D) Both 32P and 35S were associated with the phage particles.
E) The 32P was associated with the bacterial cells and 35S was associated with the phage particles.

A

Answer: E

51
Q
A) thymine and cytosine
B) adenine and uracil
C) guanine and cytosine
D) adenine and guanine
E) adenine and thymine
A

Answer: A

52
Q
5) What type of bond is formed between the hydroxyl group of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of an adjacent nucleotide, forming the sugar- phosphate backbone of DNA?
A) phosphodiester bond
B) glycosidic bond
C) hydrogen bond
D) ester linkage
E) ionic bond
A

Answer: A

53
Q

6) What is the difference between a nucleotide and a nucleoside?
A) Nucleotides are involved in eukaryotic DNA replication, while nucleosides are used in bacterial DNA replication.
B) A nucleoside with a phosphate ester linked to the sugar is a nucleotide.
C) Nucleosides contain only deoxyribose sugars.
D) Nucleosides are purines, while nucleotides are pyrimidines.
E) Nucleotides are found in DNA, while nucleosides are found in RNA.

A

Answer: B

54
Q

7) What is the difference between a ribonucleic acid and a deoxyribonucleic acid?
A) Deoxyribonucleic acids have a 2’H instead of the 2’OH found in ribonucleic acids.
B) Deoxyribonucleic acids are used to build nucleic acid strands, while ribonucleic acids are used exclusively in enzymatic reactions.
C) Ribonucleic acids have a 3’OH, while deoxyribonucleic acids have a 3’H.
D) Deoxyribonucleic acids have fewer oxygen groups and so are found only in monophosphate form in the cell, while ribonucleic acids have more oxygen groups and are found only in triphosphate forms.
E) Ribonucleic acid include A, T, G, and C, while deoxyribonucleic acids include A, U, G, and C.

A

Answer: A

55
Q
8) What types of bonds are formed between complementary DNA bases?A) phosphodiester bonds
B) ionic bonds
C) hydrogen bonds
D) covalent bonds
E) glycosidic bonds
A

Answer: C

56
Q
9) If there is 24% guanine in a DNA molecule, then there is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cytosine. 
A) 48%
B) 24%
C) 26%
D) 52%
E) Not possible to determine
A

Answer: B

57
Q
10) In a single strand of DNA, what fraction of the nucleotides in a molecule are cytosine and thymine (% C and % T added together)?
A) 25%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 100%
E) It depends on the DNA sequence
A

Answer: E

58
Q

11) If complementary DNA strands were arranged in a parallel manner, what would you expect to see?
A) The phosphodiester backbones would be too close and repel one another.
B) There would be no discernable difference between DNA strands aligned in a parallel versus an antiparallel manner.
C) Complementary nucleotides would line up normally; but fewer hydrogen bonds would form, so the strands could be more easily pulled apart.
D) Some regions of the two strands may form atypical hydrogen bonds, but the overall structure of the two DNA strands would not be stable.
E) Complementary nucleotides would be attracted to each other, forming ionic bonds that would make the helix stable but not uniform in width.

A

Answer: D

59
Q

12) In their famous experiment, which of the following would Meselson and Stahl have observed after 1 one cycle of replication in 14N medium if DNA replication were CONSERVATIVE?
A) An equal number of DNA molecules containing two 15N- DNA strands and DNA molecules containing two 14N- DNA strands
B) DNA molecules containing one strand of 15N- DNA and one strand of 14N- DNA
C) A mix of DNA molecules corresponding to A and B
D) DNA molecules containing two 15N- DNA strands only
E) DNA molecules containing two 14N- DNA strands only

A

Answer: A

60
Q
13) A portion of one strand of DNA has the sequence 5ȝ AATGGCTTA 3ȝ. If this strand is used as template for DNA replication, which of the following correctly depicts the sequence of the newly synthesized strand in the direction in which it will be synthesized?
A) śȝ TAAGCCATT 3ȝ
B) śȝ AATGGCTTA 3ȝ
C) řȝ AATGGCTTA 5ȝ
D) śȝ TTACCGAAT 3ȝ
E) řȝ TTACCGAAT 5ȝ
A

Answer: E

61
Q
15) The following represents a DNA strand in the process of replication. The bottom sequence is that of DNA strand with polarity indicated and the top sequence represents the RNA primer.GGGGCCUUU śȝ AAATCCCCGGAAACTAAAC 3. Which of the following will be the first DNA nucleotide added to the primer?
A) T 
B) U 
C) C 
D) G 
E) A
A

Answer: E

62
Q

16) What is one difference between DNA replication in bacteria versus eukaryotes?
A) Bacterial chromosomes are replicated bi- directionally, while eukaryotic chromosomes are replicated in one direction.
B) The process is identical in bacterial and eukaryotic DNA replication.
C) Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication, while bacteria have only one origin of replication.
D) Eukaryotic chromosomes are replicated bi- directionally, while bacterial chromosomes are replicated in one direction.
E) Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication and replicate bi- directionally, while bacteria have only one origin of replication and replicate uni- directionally.

A

Answer: C

63
Q

A) It is the DNA strand that wraps around DNA polymerase and serves as the template for the lagging strand.
B) It is the site where the DNA helix opens to two single DNA strands.
C) It is the site where the leading and lagging strands meet on chromosome.
D) It is the DNA bound inside the DNA polymerase active site.
E) It is the binding site on the chromosome for DNA polymerase.

A

Answer: B

64
Q

18) Why would DNA synthesis occur in both directions from an origin of replication?
A) DNA is a double helix and DNA synthesis is 5’ to 3’.
B) Replication- associated proteins bind at two replication forks.
C) It allows DNA strands to overlap when reaching another origin of replication.
D) Leading strands extend from one side of the origin while lagging strand extends from the other side of the origin.
E) DNA direction synthesis is random and sometimes extends in one direction from an origin of replication and sometimes in the other direction.

A

Answer: B

65
Q

19) Why do origins of replication in various bacteria have conserved DNA consensus sequences?
A) Fewer mutations in the DNA occur at the very beginning of replication at the origin, hence why they are conserved as consensus sequences.
B) It is more efficient to use the same sequence multiple times in different genomes than to change it.
C) The consensus sequence allows the origin to wrap into a circle and recruit replication initiation proteins.
D) Origins need to be recognized by replication initiation proteins to open up their AT- rich regions.
E) Consensus sequences are found throughout bacterial genomes and so would be found at the origin as well.

A

Answer: D

66
Q

20) If Single- Stranded Binding protein (SSB) is NOT present during DNA replication, what would you 2 expect to see?
A) The replisome complex would not assemble on the oriC region.
B) SSB carries the helicase protein to the open region of DNA, so hydrolysis and strand separation will not occur.
C) Helicase activity is inhibited, so DNA strands cannot be separated.D) SSB prevents reannealing of the separated strands, so strands would quickly reanneal and DNA replication cannot proceed.
E) The DNA cannot bend, so hydrogen bonds in the 13- mer region of oriC remain intact.

A

Answer: D

67
Q

21) DNA helicase inhibitors are well studied as potential drug targets. What would you expect to see if DNA helicase activity is inhibited?
A) Helicase prevents reannealing of the separated strands, so strands would quickly reanneal and DNA replication cannot proceed.
B) The DNA cannot bend, so hydrogen bonds in the 13- mer region of oriC remain intact.
C) Helicase carries the SSB protein to the open region of DNA, so hydrolysis and strand separation will not occur.
D) Helicase catalyzes ATP hydrolysis and DNA strands separation, so the helix cannot be unwound and strands will not separate.
E) The replisome complex would not assemble on the oriC region.

A

Answer: D

68
Q

22) What is required for DNA polymerase to initiate DNA strand synthesis?
A) a short DNA primer synthesized by the enzyme primase
B) a short RNA primer synthesized by the enzyme primase
C) ATP and a short RNA primer synthesized by the enzyme topoisomerase
D) ATP and a short DNA primer synthesized by the enzyme topoisomerase
E) DNA polymerase initiates DNA strand synthesis without requiring any additional enzymes.

A

Answer: B

69
Q

23) Why are leading and lagging strand primers removed rather than joined with Okazaki fragments?
A) They lack the 3’ OH that would permit them to be covalently linked to the Okazaki fragments.
B) The primers do not hydrogen bond to the template strand correctly.
C) They contain nucleotides with 2’OH groups, and are targeted for excision by DNA Polymerase.
D) They have to be removed for leading and lagging strand synthesis to begin.
E) Primers are too short to efficiently bind to Okazaki fragments.

A

Answer: C

70
Q
24) You identify a cell in which DNA polymerase III is functional, but it seems to exhibit extremely low processivity. This is likely a defect in what structure?
A) the topoisomerase enzyme
B) the pol III holoenzyme 
C) the sliding clamp
D) the clamp loader
E) the t proteins
A

Answer: C

71
Q
25) The extraordinary accuracy of the DNA polymerase III enzyme lies in its ability to "proofread"newly synthesized DNA, a function of the enzyme's \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) řȝ- to- śȝ helicase activity
B) śȝ- to- řȝ polymerase activity
C) řȝ- to- śȝ exonuclease activity
D) śȝ- to- řȝ exonuclease activity 
E) řȝ- to- śȝ polymerase activity
A

Answer: C

72
Q

26) What is the purpose of the 3’- to- 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA Polymerase?
A) Removing mismatched nucleotides at the polymerase active site increases the rate of synthesis in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
B) Degrade excessive nucleotides on Okazaki fragments.
C) Remove mismatched nucleotides in the template strand.
D) Some polymerases do not have exonuclease activity.
E) Remove mismatched nucleotides in the newly synthesized strand.

A

Answer: E

73
Q

27) Where would you expect to find telomerase activity?
A) At the centromere of a chromosome in a healthy eukaryotic reproductive cell.
B) At the end of a chromosome in a normal healthy eukaryotic body (somatic) cell.
C) On the leading strand of DNA in a normal bacterial cell.
D) On the lagging strand of DNA in a normal bacterial cell.
E) At the end of a chromosome in a cancerous eukaryotic body cell.

A

Answer: E

74
Q

28) Why are telomeres problematic for eukaryotic chromosome replication?
A) Telomerase is more error- prone than the normal DNA Polymerase.
B) Removal of the lagging strand primer leaves a gap in the one of the strand’s DNA sequences.
C) The T loop blocks formation of primers on the lagging strand.
D) They are highly repetitive and thus hard to replicate correctly.
E) Maintaining very long telomeres promotes cancer cell formation.

A

Answer: B

75
Q
29) Which of the following would you find in a Sanger sequencing reaction but not in a polymerase chain reaction?
A) dNTPs
B) DNA primer
C) DNA polymerase
D) DNA template
E) ddNTPs
A

Answer: E

76
Q

30) Which functional groups have been altered in a ddNTP compared to a dNTP?
A) The ddNTPs have a 2ȝ H and a 3ȝ OH, while dNTPs have a 2ȝ H and a 3ȝ H.
B) The ddNTPs have a 2ȝ OH and a 3ȝ H, while dNTPs have a 2ȝ H and a 3ȝ OH.
C) The ddNTPs have a 2ȝ H and a 3ȝ H, while dNTPs have a 2ȝ H and a 3ȝ OH.
D) The ddNTPs have a 2ȝ H and a 3ȝ H, while dNTPs have a 2ȝ OH and a 3ȝ OH.
E) The ddNTPs have a 2ȝ OH and a 3ȝ OH, while dNTPs have a 2ȝ H and a 3ȝ H.

A

Answer: C

77
Q
31) Which of the following temperature cycles would you expect to see in a standard polymerase chain reaction (from denaturation to annealing to extension)?<br>
A) 95° 55° 72°<br>
B) 45° 72° 95°<br>
C) 95° 72° 95°<br>
D) 75° 95° 45°<br>
E) 95° 72° 55°
A

Answer: A

78
Q

32) Why are next generation DNA sequencing technologies known as sequencing- by- synthesis
A) Numerous synthesized fragments of DNA are sequenced to determine which nucleotides were incorporated.
B) Incorporated nucleotides are determined while they are being added to a growing DNA strand.
C) RNA molecules are synthesized off of the DNA templates and the incorporated nucleotides are then determined.
D) The complete DNA strands are synthesized then sequenced.
E) The sequencing occurs during S phase of the cell cycle.

A

Answer: B