Test 1 Genetics Ch. 1 Flashcards

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1
Q
Sexual reproduction uses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to generate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ gametes, which join at fertilization. 
A) mitosis; diploid
B) meiosis; haploid
C) mitosis; identical
D) meiosis; diploid
E) mitosis; haploid
A

Answer: B

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2
Q
2) When a diploid cell divides by mitosis, the result is?
A) identical diploid cells
B) identical haploid cells
C) unique haploid cells
D) a zygote
E) unique diploid cells
A

Answer: A

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3
Q
3) Modern genetics consists of three major branches. Which of these branches, also known as <br>"transmission genetics," involves the study of the transmission of traits and characteristics in successive generations?
A) moleculary
B) evolutionary
C) reproductive
D) Mendelian
E) population
A

Answer: D

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4
Q
4) You identify a new unicellular organism with multiple chromosomes organized by proteins withinthe cell's nucleus. Into which of the three domains of life might this organism fit?
A) Eukarya
B) Archaea
C) Bacteria
D) Archaea or Bacteria
E) Archaea or Eukarya
A

Answer: A

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5
Q

5) Watson and Crick used evidence from several studies to determine the structure of DNA. What conclusion were they able to draw from Rosalind Franklin’s X- ray diffraction data, specifically?
A) DNA nucleotides form complementary base pairs.
B) The DNA strands are antiparallel, and the strands are held together by hydrogen bonds.
C) DNA consists of four types of nucleotide bases: A, T, C, and G.
D) DNA is a duplex, with two strands forming a double helix.
E) Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine when they are on opposite DNA strands.

A

Answer: D

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6
Q
6) What kind of bond is formed between the 5ȝ phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3ȝ hydroxyl (OH) group of the adjacent nucleotide?
A) hydrogen bond
B) disulfide bond
C) hydroxyl bond
D) ionic bond
E) phosphodiester bond
A

Answer: E

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7
Q
7) What kind of bond is formed between complementary base pairs to join the two DNA strands into a double helix?
A) hydrogen bond
B) peptide bond 
C) ionic bond
D) disulfide bond
E) phosphodiester bond
A

Answer: A

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8
Q

8) Identify which of the following includes three possible components of a RNA nucleotide?
A) deoxyribose, uracil, phosphate group
B) deoxyribose, cytosine, phosphate group
C) deoxyribose, guanine, phosphate group
D) ribose, thymine, phosphate group
E) ribose, adenine, phosphate group

A

Answer: E

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9
Q
9) What chemical group appears on the 5' carbon of a DNA nucleotide? 
A) carboxyl group
B) phosphate group
C) nitrogenous base
D) hydroxyl group 
E) amino group
A

Answer: B

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10
Q
10) If a eukaryotic chromosome was composed of 20% adenine, how much cytosine should theoretically be present in that same chromosome?
A) 40% 
B) 30% 
C) 60% 
D) 10% 
E) 20%
A

Answer: B

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11
Q
11) What is the sequence and polarity of the DNA strand complementary to the strand 5' AAATGTCCATGC 3'?
A) 5' UUUACAGGUACG 3'
B) 3' UUUACAGGUACG 5' 
C) 3' AAATGTCCATGC 5’
D) 5' TTTACAGGTACG 3'
E) 3' TTTACAGGTACG 5'
A

Answer: E

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12
Q

12) Messenger RNA (mRNA) is <br></br>
A) the molecule that carries the genetic information from DNA and is used as a template for protein synthesis
B) the major structural material making up ribosomes
C) the monomer of polypeptides
D) a molecule that incorporates a specific amino acid into the growing protein when it recognizes a specific group of three bases
E) the major structural component of chromosomes

A

Answer: A

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13
Q
14) What are the DNA regulatory sequences recognized by RNA polymerase called? 
A) anticodons
B) termination sequences
C) promoters
D) introns
E) proteomes
A

Answer: C

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14
Q
15) What is the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA sequences?
A) transcription 
B) replication
C) transformation
D) transduction
E) translation
A

Answer: E

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15
Q
16) What is the process of synthesizing single- stranded RNA from template DNA? 
A) transduction
B) replication
C) transformation
D) translation
E) transcription
A

Answer: E

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16
Q
17) What kind of bond is formed between successive amino acids during translation?
A) ionic bond
B) phosphodiester bond
C) peptide bond
D) hydrogen bond
E) disulfide bond
A

Answer: C

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17
Q
18) Retroviruses carry their genetic information in the form of RNA, which is subsequently coded into DNA after the virus enters its host cell. What enzyme does the retrovirus use to produce this initial DNA?
A) RNA polymerase
B) ribosomes
C) reverse transcriptase
D) DNA polymerase
E) reverse translationase
A

Answer: C

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18
Q
19) Only sixty- one of the sixty- four codons specify an amino acid. In what process do the other three codons function?
A) termination of transcription
B) initiation of replication
C) termination of translation
D) initiation of transcription
E) initiation of translation
A

Answer: C

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19
Q
20) The movement of DNA or RNA in gel electrophoresis is often a matter of molecular weight alone. Which of the following molecular parameters usually influence the movement of protein?
A) only shape
B) only charge
C) weight, charge, or shape
D) only weight
E) only weight and shape
A

Answer: C

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20
Q

22) Hereditary anemia known as sickle cell disease (SCD) results from inheritance of a variant form of Ά- globin protein (ΆS), rather than the wild- type Ά- globin protein (ΆA). Which of the following did Linus Pauling find following gel electrophoresis of hemoglobin protein from individuals with the following three genotypes: ΆΆA, ΆΆS, or ΆΆS?
A) all three lanes had just one protein band with the same electrophoretic mobility
B) the lane containing the hemoglobin from the heterozygote (ΆΆS) individual had two protein bands with differing electrophoretic mobility
C) the lane containing the hemoglobin from the homozygous (ΆΆA) individual had two protein bands with differing electrophoretic mobility
D) the lane containing the hemoglobin from the homozygous (ΆΆS) individual with SCD had two protein bands
E) all three lanes had the same two protein bands with the same electrophoretic mobility

A

Answer: B

21
Q
23) You have digested a molecule of DNA and want to identify a specific fragment of interest. The DNA is subjected to gel electrophoresis, but you get two bands that are very close in size. What could you use to determine which band is the correct one?
A) southern blot
B) western blot
C) northern blot
D) eastern blot
E) stain with ethidium bromide
A

Answer: A

22
Q

24) Which of the follow refers to all the RNA produced by transcription of DNA? <br></br>A) population genetics<br></br>B) proteome<br></br>C) transcriptome<br></br>D) translatome<br></br>E) genome

A

Answer: C

23
Q

25) Which evolutionary process describes the movement of members of a species from one population 26) to another?<br></br>A) natural selection<br></br>B) migration<br></br>C) mutation<br></br>D) random genetic drift<br></br> E) population genetics

A

Answer: B

24
Q

26) Which evolutionary process is most pronounced in small populations where statistical fluctuations in allele frequencies can be significant from one generation to the next?<br></br>A) natural selection<br></br>B) migration<br></br>C) mutation<br></br>D) random genetic drift<br></br>E) population genetics

A

Answer: D

25
Q
27) Which evolutionary process involves the slow addition of allelic variation that increases the hereditary diversity of populations, ultimately leading to evolutionary change?<br>
A) natural selection<br>
B) migration<br>
C) mutation<br>
D) random genetic drift <br>
E) population genetics
A

Answer: C

26
Q
28) Which evolutionary process relies on the premise that individuals with the best adaptations are most successful at reproducing and leave more offspring than those with less adaptive forms? <
A) natural selection<br>
B) migration<br>
C) mutation<br>
D) random genetic drift 
E) population genetics
A

Answer: A

27
Q
29) Which term describes a set of organisms that descended from a single common ancestor and are more closely related to other members of the group than to organisms outside the group?
A) species
B) paraphyletic group
C) monophyletic group
D) parsimony
E) phylogeny
A

Answer: C

28
Q
30) Morphological or molecular characters shared by members of a clade are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. <br>
A) common ancestors<br>
B) paraphyletic groups<br>
C) monophyletic groups<br>
D) synaptomorphies<br>
E) homoplasmies
A

Answer: D

29
Q

31) What are the three domains of life?

A

Answer: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

30
Q

32) With the assistance of William Bateson, Archibald Garrod produced the first documented example of a human hereditary disorder that shaped the study of biochemical pathways. Which disorder were they describing?

A

Answer: alkaptonuria

31
Q

33) The physical units of heredity composed of defined DNA sequences that collectively control gene transcription and contain the information to produce RNA molecules or proteins are better known as what?

A

Answer: genes<br></br>

32
Q

35) The genotypes of humans are more than 99% similar. What is the term that describes the alternative forms of genes that contribute to human genetic variation?

A

Answer: alleles

33
Q

36) In eukaryotes, most of the cells’ DNA is found in the form of chromosomes in the nucleus. Which organelles contain their own genomes (descended from ancient endosymbiotic bacteria)?

A

Answer: mitochondria and chloroplasts

34
Q

37) During DNA replication, nascent DNA strands are synthesized in only one direction. Nucleotides are added only to which end of the nascent strand?

A

Answer: the 3ȝ hydroxyl end

35
Q

38) Messenger RNA codons pair with tRNA anticodons at which cell structure?

A

Answer: the ribosome

36
Q

39) Peptidyl transferase and other proteins power the continuous progression of the ribosome along mRNA and catalyze what type of bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain?

A

Answer: peptide bonds

37
Q

40) Before transferring DNA from a gel to the membrane in Southern blotting, the DNA must be denatured (usually by soaking the gel in NaOH). Why is this step necessary?

A

Answer: to make the DNA single stranded so that the molecular probe can bind via complementary base pairing to its target DNA

38
Q

41) What process proposed by Wallace and Darwin describes the higher rates of survival and reproduction of certain forms of a species over alternative forms?

A

Answer: natural selection

39
Q

42) As natural selection increases the frequency of one morphological form over another in the population, what changes at the genotypic level?

A

Answer: allele frequency

40
Q

43) What type of diagram would you use to depict morphological or molecular similarities and differences that identify evolutionary relationships?

A

Answer: phylogenetic tree

41
Q

44) Both sugar gliders and flying squirrels have evolved characteristics that allow them to glide, despite being geographically separated. Similar traits that have independent origins arise as a result of what phenomenon?

A

Answer: convergent evolution

42
Q

45) Phylogenetic trees are constructed based on morphological characteristics, but molecule phylogenetic trees are constructed based on which feature?

A

Answer: nucleic or amino acid sequencev

43
Q

46) The work of Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri suggested that the hereditary units, or genes, described by Mendel are located on ________.

A

Answer: chromosomes

44
Q

47) Genetic experiments have revealed the relationship between the observable traits of an organism, or ________, and the genetic constitution of an organism, or ________.

A

Answer: phenotype; genotype

45
Q

48) DNA replication is called ________ because the newly replicated DNA consists of a 5parental strand (from the original DNA) and a newly synthesized daughter strand.

A

Answer: semiconservative

46
Q

49) The ________, first proposed by Francis Crick, summarizes the relationships betweenDNA, RNA, and protein.

A

Answer: central dogma of biology

47
Q

50) A general labeling compound called ________ attaches to all DNA or RNA in a gel bybinding to the sugar- phosphate backbone, thus allowing researchers to visualize the nucleic acids when the gel is exposed to UV light.

A

Answer: ethidium bromide (EtBr)

48
Q

34) A complete set of chromosomes is transmitted to produce identical daughter cells in which cell division process?

A

> > Answer: mitosis