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Test 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What will right sided heart failure effect?

A 
The body.
S&S include: 
Ascites
JVD
Weight gain
Peripheral edema
Oliguria
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2
Q

What will left sided heart failure effect?

A 
The lungs. 
S&S include:
Crackles and wheezes 
Cough 
Dyspnea 
Nasal flaring
Orthopnea 
 Retractions 
Tachypnea
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3
Q

What heart rate does the SA node regulate?

A

60-100

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4
Q

What is a cardiac cycle?

A

One heartbeat

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5
Q

What does a P wave on an EKG represent?

A

The contraction of the atrium

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6
Q

The PR interval should be between what time?

A

0.12-0.2 seconds

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7
Q

What is the QRS complex representing the heart doing?

A

Contracting the ventricles

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8
Q

Where should the ST segment be?

A

On the isoelectric line

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9
Q

What is ST segment elevation indicative of?

A

A heart attack

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10
Q

What is ST segment depression indicative of?

A

Cardiac ischemia

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11
Q

What is occurring during the T wave?

A

The ventricles are relaxing. Also known as repolarization

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12
Q

What occurs to the atrium during the QRS complex?

A

Relaxation and repolarization

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13
Q

What are seven things that should be a normal finding on an EKG strip?

A 
HR is 60-100
R-R interval is evenly and regularly spaced 
P wave is upright
PR interval is 0.12-0.20 seconds
QRS complex is <0.12 seconds
ST segment is on the isoelectric line 
T wave is upright
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14
Q

What is an intervention for an ST segment being askew?

A

Oxygen. An ST wave being off the isoelectric line could indicate cardiac ischemia or a heart attack. administering oxygen would be a primary intervention to try and correct the problem.

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15
Q

What will present on an EKG with an atrial flutter?

A

An extra P wave. Caused by and ectopic focus that fires off an electrical impulse that disrupts the flow of electricity from the SA to the AV node. T waves will not be present due to the P wave hiding it.

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16
Q

What will present on an EKG with atrial fibrillation?

A

Many atrial impulses yet no true P waves. QRS complex will be present. There will be many points in the heart where electrical impulses will bounce around until finally reaching the AV node to cause ventricular contraction.

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17
Q

What is supraventricular tachycardia?

A

HR will be 150-220 BPM. The patient may have a low ejection fraction and distal pulses may not be present due to low cardiac output. Adenosine or adenocard is used to treat.

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18
Q

Adenosine or adenocard

A

Used to treat supraventricular tachycardia. Begins working in 6 seconds. Completely stops the heart and resets the heart rhythm. Push 6 MG as fast as possible undiluted followed by normal saline; increase dose if needed.

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19
Q

What is the isoelectric line?

A

The isoelectric line represents zero amplitude within the heart.

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20
Q

What route does electricity flow through the heart to signal contraction?

A

An electrical impulse is first sent to the SA node which is located in the right atrium signaling it to contract. The electrical impulse is then sent onto the AV node which delays the signal, giving the atrium the time to fully contract. After that the signal is sent into the Bundle of His in which at that point the hearts ventricles contract. Finally, the electrical impulses are sent into the Purkinje fibers where the electrical impulses are sent into the endocardium.

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21
Q

What medication is given in order to prevent clotting in atrial fibrillation and flutters.

A

Coumadin (warfarin) is given in order to prevent clotting.

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22
Q

What is premature ventricular contraction (PVC)?

A

A PVC is a condition where your ventricles contract forming an extra heart beat. On an EKG strip, this will appear as an extra QRS complex before a regular one.

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23
Q

What is ventricular tachycardia (V-Tach)?

A

Ventricular tachycardia is a condition in which abnormal electrical signals in the ventricles cause the heart to beat faster than normal, usually 100 or more beats a minute, out of sync with the upper chambers. This will present on a EKG strip as an evenly spaced wave like rhythm with no discernable P wave.

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24
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib)?

A

Ventricular fibrillation is where the ventricles of the heart quiver in an abnormal and unsynchronized way. This will present on a EKG strip seemingly as random scribbles with no discernable waves of any kind.

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25
Q

What is an ejection fraction? What are the ranges for ejection fractions? What is used to measure an ejection fraction?

A

An ejection fraction is a measurement of the amount of blood that is outed from the heart upon each contraction. 55% or above output is considered a normal ejection fraction. blew 54-50% is considered borderline. 49% and below is considered inadequate. To measure the ejection fraction, an echocardiogram is performed.

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26
Q

What is cardiac ischemia?

A

Cardiac ischemia is caused by a lack of oxygen to the heart. This is represented on an EKG strip by a depressed ST segment.

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27
Q

What is a dysthymia?

A

An abnormal heart beat.

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28
Q

What is a systole?

A

The phase of the heartbeat where the heart muscle contracts and pumps blood

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29
Q

What is telemetry?

A

Cardiac telemetry is the continuous monitoring of the heart and its rhythms.

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30
Q

What is the average weight gain for pregnancy?

A

25-35 pounds

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31
Q

What does gravida mean?

A

The number of pregnancies

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32
Q

What does para mean?

A

Para is a birth after 20 weeks of gestation

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33
Q

What is TPAL?

A

TPAL stands for Term, Preterm, Abortion, and Living
This is the state of the fetus after delivery
T= >or = to 37 weeks
P=>or= 20-36 weeks
A= <20 weeks
L= Is when the child is actually delivered

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34
Q

Why is a CBC test done during pregnancy?

A

CBC tests are done to determine a baseline as well as test for infection and clotting factors

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35
Q

What is a VDLR test? Why is a VDRL done during pregnancy?

A

VDRL tests are done to test for syphilis. Non reactive means the patient is clear of syphilis. If a patient has syphilis the child can contract it as well.

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36
Q

Why is a rubella test done during pregnancy?

A

To test if a person of childbearing age is immune to rubella. If not the patient will need a booster shot AFTER pregnancy

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37
Q

Why is Hepatitis B test done?

A

Check immunity to Hep B

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38
Q

Why is an HIV test done?

A

To test for HIV in a mother. If HIV is detected, antiviral medications can be given and the chances of transmission to the fetus is diminished. HIV positive mothers must not breast feed

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39
Q

Why is a blood type and Rh factor test done?

A

Incompatible blood types can abort the fetus and cause problems with the pregnancy. Rogham is given during the pregnancy as well as after if the child is found to have an incompatible blood type

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40
Q

Why is a pap smear done?

A

To screen the patient for uterine associated problems

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41
Q

Why is a GBS culture done? What would be used to treat the associated problem?

A

To screen for strep. Strep is part of the natural flora of a woman’s body but can cause problems with the child after birth. Antibiotics are used to treat the strep

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42
Q

What should the caloric intake be increased to during pregnancy?

A

300-500 calories should be added to the diet

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43
Q

What is pseudo anemic pregnancy?

A

During a pregnancy, fluid volume increases which dilutes the blood, decreasing the RBC count

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44
Q

What is a fundal height test?

A

Used to measure the Childs growth. It is measured from the top of the mother’s uterus to the top of the mother’s pubic symphysis.

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45
Q

what is IUGR?

A

Intra-uterine growth restriction. A symmetrical IUGR is better than an asymmetrical IUGR as an asymmetrical IUGR can lead to bigger problems

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46
Q

Why is a blood glucose test done on pregnant patients?

A

To check for gestational diabetes. This test is performed between 24-28 weeks

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47
Q

What should the fundal height be in relation to the weeks of pregnancy?

A

The fundal height should equal the gestational weeks in centimeters

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48
Q

What is a nonstress test during pregnancy?

A

Monitors the fetal heart rate and should increase the heartrate at 15x15 in 15 to 20 mins

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49
Q

how do you calculate a due date after the last normal minstrel cycle?

A

Subtract 3 months and add seven days. change the year as appropriate

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50
Q

What age is considered to have high risk pregnancies? What are risk factors associated with high risk pregnancies?

A

After the age of 35. When the patient is high risk the child has a higher chance of developing disorders such as down syndrome or going into preterm labor

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51
Q

What would be a follow-up for a positive AFP test?

A

Either use a nuchal translucency test or an amniocenteses test

52
Q

What is a common feeling when a patient is dilating?

A

Back pain and minstrel like pain that is intermittent

53
Q

What are the stages of delivery?

A

First stage which is cervical dilation with onset of contractions
Second stage is where dilation continues and the child is delivered

54
Q

How do you monitor contractions?

A

Palpation- nurse uses touch to determine strength

External- used most frequently. Called a toco which measures frequency and duration

55
Q

What are the levels of fetal heart rate variability (FHR variability)?

A

Absent variability- amplitude range undetectable
Minimal- <5 BPM
Moderate- 6-25 BPM
Marked- >25 BPM

56
Q

What are FHR decels?

A

Early- The heart rate will decrease with the contraction
Variable- Will appear as a V shaped line near the contraction
Late- Heart rate will be out of shape with the contraction

57
Q

What is occurring during the various FHR decels?

A

Variable- Cord is being compressed
Early- Head is being compressed
Accels- The oxygen is fine, this is preferred
Late- There is placental insufficiency

58
Q

What should be assessed at admission of a pregnant patient?

A 
Gestational age
Doctor
Age and other risk factors
Prenatal lab data
Allergies
Expectations during labor
Feeding methods
Weight before and during pregnancy 
Pregnancy history and problems 
Prenatal care
Cultural/religious beliefs
Preferred pain control method 
Support system 
Suspect domestic abuse
Functional needs met 
Adolescent mother 
Screen for PIH
Medication
Drug use
Placental location
59
Q

When should you give narcotics to a pregnant patient?

A

After a cervical examination. Any narcotics given to the mother are also given to the baby

60
Q

What are some side effects of an epidural?

A

Blood pressure will drop- Give fluid bolus

Bleeding if platelet count is low

61
Q

How would they test if the epidural is not in the vascular system?

A

Medication with a low dose of epinephrine is administered and if the heart rate increases then the epidural must be replaced

62
Q

What should be noted when the water has been broken?

A

Time
Amount
Color an consistency

63
Q

What is the normal EBL (Estimated blood loss)?

A

Up to 500 for vaginal delivery and 1000 for C-Section. Over either is considered excessive

64
Q

What should you assess during postpartum period?

A 
Breast
Uterus 
Bowel
Bladder
Lochia 
Episiotomy 
Homans sign 
Emotional status
65
Q

How is blood loss calculated after birth?

A

Bloody items are weighed and compared to their dried counterparts. 1 gram is equal to 1 ml of blood. The dry weight is then subtracted from the bloodied item and the sum is the amount lost

66
Q

What should be taught at discharge of a postpartum patient?

A 
DVT prevention
Pelvic muscle tone
Nutrition
Breastfeeding and Not Breastfeeding 
S&amp;S of Complication 
Birth Control
67
Q

What should the threshold be for an infant as far as glucose levels?

A

45mg/dl or above and within reason

68
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia in infants?

A 
Breathing that stops for short periods of time
Blue or purple skin color
Low body temperature
Problems eating well
Seizures
Sluggish or drowsy behavior
69
Q

Is it uncommon to see an elevated WBC count after giving birth?

A

No. WBC counts can be elevated into the high teens and low twenties.

70
Q

What are the normal vital signs of a neonate?

A

HR: 85-190
Temp: 98.6 F
R: 30-60
BP 67-84/31-45

71
Q

What is Succedaneum?

A

edema that resolves in a few days and crosses the midline

72
Q

What is Cephalohematoma?

A

takes several weeks to resolve, subperiosteally collection of blood that does not cross suture lines

73
Q

What are the three stages of fetal development?

A

Germinal stage- first two weeks after conception
Embryonic period- the third through eight week of pregnancy
Fetal period- ninth week until birth

74
Q

What is the function of a placenta?

A

A placenta provides oxygen and nutrients to a baby in the womb and removes waste products

75
Q

What is the function of the umbilical cord?

A

The umbilical cord carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the baby as well as taking away deoxygenated blood and waste. The umbilical cord is protected by a clear membrane called Wharton’s jelly

76
Q

What is the function of the amniotic sac and the surrounding fluids?

A

The amniotic sac acts as a cushion against impact as well as regulating temperature and lubricant for the Childs body

77
Q

What circulatory functions are different in a fetus than in a delivered child?

A

Ducts in a fetus do not allow for blood to enter the lungs and liver. These ducts are opened once born

78
Q

What are three medications given to a child immediately after birth?

A

Vitamin K
Hep B vaccine
Erythromycin eye gel

79
Q

What is the diagonal conjugate?

A

The distance from the undersurface of the pubic arch to sacral promontory

80
Q

What is occiput?

A

Occiput is the relation of the back of the childs head to the mothers pelvis
The child can be occiput anterior, posterior, lateral, and transverse

81
Q

What is the true conjugate?

A

The shortest diameter which the head must pass in descending the super straight

82
Q

What measurements should be taken when the child is first born?

A

The circumference of the head as well as chest should be taken. A premature baby will also have their stomach circumference taken. The length and weight of the child are also recorded

83
Q

What is a meconium?

A

Meconium is the earliest stool of an infant. The meconium consists of materials ingested while in utero

84
Q

What presents with Acrocyanosis?

A

Hands and feet turn blue on a newborn infant. This is caused by small blood vessel contraction

85
Q

What is a harlequin sign?

A

Momentary red color that presents on a newborn. Sharp contrast at midline

86
Q

What is the cause of infant jaundice? How is it treated?

A

Infant jaundice is caused by a buildup of bilirubin. The jaundice is treated with UV light which helps to break down the bilirubin

87
Q

What is the vernix?

A

Vernix is a waxy or cheese like substance which coats new born babies

88
Q

What is lanugo?

A

Fine soft hair that covers a newborn baby. Premature babies will have more as they did not have time to shed the air naturally

89
Q

What is the let down reflex?

A

The let down reflex is a reflex that makes milk available for the baby to suckle. The let down reflex is triggered by oxytocin

90
Q

What is APGAR scoring? How often is it done and how is it scored?

A

The APGAR is a test that checks a babies HR, muscle tone, appearance, and breathing. The test is performed 1-5 mins after birth. Scores of 7-10 are good, 4-6 needs mild resuscitative efforts, and 0-3 elicits a need for severe resuscitation

91
Q

What are the normal vital signs of a neonate?

A

HR: 85-190
Temp:98.6
RR: 30-60
BP: 67-84/31-45

92
Q

Why would you delay cord clamping after birth? What would you observe after cutting the cord?

A

Delaying cord clamping would increase hemoglobin levels at birth as well as increase iron scores. Unfortunately, this increases the risk of jaundice though most hospitals are prepared for this outcome. After cutting the cord two arteries and one vein should be observed.

93
Q

What safety measure is done immediately after delivery?

A

The child is dried with warm towels and is given skin to skin contact with the mother. This is done to observe APGAR score and preserve heat

94
Q

What is transient tachypnea?

A

This occurs when a child retains lung fluids due to impaired clearance mechanisms. This is mostly seen in early or late preterm babies

95
Q

How would a nurse assess for congenital hip dysplasia?

A

The nurse would assess using the ortolani sign which produces a click as the leg is rotated

96
Q

What is tonic neck?

A

Tonic neck is a reflex found in newborns that occurs when the child turns their head to either side that the corresponding limbs extend. The pose resembles a fencers pose and is also called the “fencers reflex”. The reflex usually disappears in four months

97
Q

What is palmar grasp reflex?

A

The palmar grasp reflex is a reflex that makes an infants hand curl around an object placed into their hand

98
Q

What is Moro in an infant?

A

Moro is when a child extends their arms and legs while in a dropping motion. This will disappear after 3-6 months

99
Q

What is rooting?

A

When a child turns and faces a stimulant while making a suckling motion

100
Q

What is stepping?

A

Stepping is when the child is being held upright and makes a walking motion. This reflex disappears after two to three months

101
Q

What are signs of respiratory distress in a newborn?

A 
Tachypnea
Nasal flaring
Grunting
Stridor
Cyanosis
Wheezing
102
Q

What is the normal weight gain pattern for a newborn?

A

A baby should gain 5-7 ounces per week. Birth weight should double by 5 months

103
Q

What is the proper method for suctioning with a bulb syringe?

A

The syringe should be first used on the babies mouth then on the nose and after each suction should be emptied away from the child

104
Q

What are the different types of discharge after birth and when do they occur?

A

Lochia Rubra- First discharge. Largely consists of blood and last two to four days
Lochia Serosa- Pink or brown tinged discharge. Contains blood, mucus, and leukocytes. Occurs three to ten days after birth
Lochia Alba- discharge is no longer tinged with blood and can last four to five weeks after birth

105
Q

What are some problems with urination that can occur in pregnant and postpartum women? What can be done to improve this?

A

Urinary incontinence can occur in both pregnant women from having the child pressing against the bladder, and in postpartum women from the vaginal muscles weakening. Pregnant women can alleviate this by urinating frequently and postpartum women can perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the vaginal muscles

106
Q

What is a first degree AV block?

A

Consistent, prolonged PR interval. Will be > than 0.2. Found commonly in older patients and can progress into higher degrees of AV blocks

107
Q

What is a second degree AV block type I?

A

In a second degree AV block the PR interval predictably lengthens until the QRS complex is lost. Also known as a Wenckebach or Mobitz 1. Could be caused by an inflammatory disorder in the heart.

108
Q

What is a second degree AV block type II?

A

The QRS complex will be randomly dropped while the PR interval will be normal. Also known as a classical heart block or Mobitz 2. Can progress into third degree

109
Q

What is a third degree AV block?

A

No relationship between P and QRS. Most patients will be unconscious during this rhythm. This condition is fatal is not treated. Also known as a complete heart block (CHB)

110
Q

What is Coronary Artery Disease?

A

Caused by a build up of plaque. NO S&S. Progressive disease that narrows or occludes the coronary artery (atherosclerosis). Can lead to an MI. Factors that lead to CAD are obesity and lifestyle choices as well as family history, congenital defects, and hyperlipidemia. More common in white males but after 65 male and female CAD rates are equal

111
Q

What should the total cholesterol level be?

A

Less than 200

112
Q

What do “statin” drugs do?

A

A cholesterol medicine that raise HDL and lower LDL. Should be given before the patient goes to sleep

113
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A

A breakdown of skeletal muscle

114
Q

What is angina? What are the types of angina?

A

Angina is chest discomfort caused when the myocardium is hypoxic. Can be caused by atherosclerosis, HTN, or coronary artery spasms. Stable angina is predictable and can be treated with nitrates. Unstable angina is unpredictable chest pain and worsens as time goes on. Unstable can occur at rest and is a medical emergency

115
Q

What are the types of heart failure?

A

Systolic- The heart cannot pump the blood out of the heart very well
Diastolic- The heart is stiff and does not fill with blood easily

116
Q

What are some methods to treat heart failure?

A

Sodium restrictions, smoking cessation, weight loss, cholesterol restrictions, rest, drug treatments, and exercise

117
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

A pulmonary embolism occurs when a clot or other matter lodges in the pulmonary artery system, disrupting the blood flow to a region of the lungs. Can originate from DVT, right ventricle.

118
Q

Where does a fat emboli come from?

A

Comes from the breaking of long bones or hip fractures

119
Q

What are the different types of pulmonary emboli?

A 
Fat
Tumors
Amniotic fluid
Air
Foreign bodies
120
Q

How could you diagnose a pulmonary embolism?

A 
V/Q scan 
ABG's
Spiral CT
Pulmonary angiogram 
DVT studies
D-Dimer
121
Q

What is a CVA?

A

A stroke

122
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Mini stroke. Resolves within 24 hours.

123
Q

What is FAST?

A

Facial features will droop
Arm will drop and grip will be weak
Speech will be slurred
Time Is important

124
Q

How would you diagnose a stroke?

A 
Carotid bruit
CT
Doppler
Cerebral angiogram 
ECG
TEE
125
Q

What should the weight gain be for a patient with a normal BMI?

A

25-35 lbs

126
Q

what is the maximum amount of time before a baby voids is it considered problematic?

A

48 hrs

Nursing 114 (6 decks)

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