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Blood Bank > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

list some of the innate immunity

A 
Skin
tears
sweat
saliva
normal flora
phagocytic cells
Natural Killer cells
inflammation
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2
Q

what is a CD4 cell

A

its a T helper cell

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3
Q

what is a CD8 cell

A

cytotoxic T cells

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4
Q

What marker/receptors do B cells have on them

A

CD19

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5
Q

what are the byproducts of complement proteins being split?

A

anaphylatoxins
chemotaxins
opsonins

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6
Q

What are the “acquired” process?

A
  • Macrophage engulfs foreign material
  • Macrophage selects and processes an antigen
  • Macrophage presents antigen wrapped in MHC-2 proteins to CD4 lymphocyte
  • CD4 lymphocyte presents antigen to B cell and CD8 T-cell
  • Antigen must be wrapped in MHC-1 proteins for CD8 cell to accept it
  • B-cell converts to plasma cell and produces antibodies
  • CD8 cell produces cytokines
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7
Q

what does CD stand for?

A

cluster of differentiation

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8
Q

What are CD numbers for?

A

they are assigned to lymphocytes to distinguish them

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9
Q

what marker do B cells have?

A

CD19

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10
Q

what markers do cytotoxic T cells have

A

CD8

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11
Q

what markers do helper T cells have

A

CD4

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12
Q

what markers natural killer cells have

A

none

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13
Q

What do CD4 cells do

A

help B-cells and CD8 cells by presenting antigen

Induces clonal expansion by releasing cytokines

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14
Q

Where is complement involved

A

in both innate and acquired immunity

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15
Q

How can Properdin and MBL pathways activated

A

directly by bacteria, viruses, yeasts, etc.

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16
Q

What does complement activation result in

A

a hole in the cell membrane

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17
Q

What is the classical pathway activated by

A

antibody to antigen

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18
Q

Which antibody always activates complement

A

IgM

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19
Q

Why does IgG not always activate complement

A

they have to bind close together on cell membrane

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20
Q

what does anaphylatoxin promote

A

inflammation by causing mast cells to release granular contents (histamine)

1) INCREASED VASCULAR PERMEABILITY
2) SMOOTH MUSCLE CONTRACTION

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21
Q

what does chemotaxin cause

A

PHAGOCYTIC CELLS TO BE RECRUITED TO THE AREA OF ANTIBODY/ANTIGEN REACTION – SEGMENTED NEUTROPHILS
– MACROPHAGES

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22
Q

what does opsonin do

A

ALERT
binds to cell wall and allows macrophage to recognize the abnormal cell more easily
-antibody
-complement fragements (C3b)
macrophage phagocytosis the cell presents to a CD4
CD4 presents to B cell
B cell changes to plasma cell to produce antibody

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23
Q

what are antigens

A

CHEMICAL CONSTITUENTS ON CELL MEMBRANE

PROTEINS, POLYSACCHARIDES

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24
Q

what do antigens do?

A

stimulate an antibody or cytotoxic response

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25
Q

what is the meaning of antigen dosage

A

amount of antigen introduced

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26
Q

what is the antigen route

A

IV is more antigenic than oral administration

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27
Q

what is the size of an antigen

A

10,000 daltons

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28
Q

what is an epitope

A

SMALL PORTION OF THE MOLECULE THAT ELICITS A SPECIFIC RESPONSE

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29
Q

what is an antigenic determinant

A

ANTIBODY PRODUCED THAT IS SPECIFIC FOR THE EPITOPE

MOLECULE MAY HAVE MORE THAN ONE EPITOPE

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30
Q

what are the RBC antigens

A

glycoproteins or glycolipids

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31
Q

how many known RBC antigens are there

A

textbook says 250

others say 400

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32
Q

how do we mostly detect RBC antigens

A

agglutination

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33
Q

what is agglutination

A

BINDING OF CELLS TOGETHER BY ANTIBODIES (LARGE PARTICLES, LIKE A RED CELL)

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34
Q

which antibody is easy to achieve agglutination

A

IgM

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35
Q

Which antibody uses anti-human globulin to achieve agglutination

A

IgG

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36
Q

Where are antibodies

A

in the plasma

37
Q

Where are antigens

A

on the red blood cells

38
Q

What do we screen patients plasma for that might cause transfusion reactions

A

ANTIBODIES

39
Q

what do we screen donor blood for?

A

to find blood that is negative for the corresponding antigen

40
Q

what are some other detection methods used for screening?

A

PRECIPITATION METHODS

IMMUNOASSAY METHODS

41
Q

what is an antibody/antigen complex

A

reaction of antibody with antigen

42
Q

is antibody/antigen complex reversible

A

yes

43
Q

what is the antibody/antigen complex dependent on

A

Time
Temp
pH
Ionic strength of medium

44
Q

What are the temp for antibodies

A

IgM- room temp

IgG- 37C body temp

45
Q

what is the pH for the reaction

A

7.0

46
Q

what is the ionic strength for the reaction to take place

A

medium to reduce zeta potential

47
Q

what is zeta potential

A

force of repulsion between RBC

48
Q

Low ionic strength solution is used to do what

A

lower the overall positive and negative ions in solution

reduces the ionic cloud traveling with the red cell

49
Q

In the antigen-antibody amounts, what is the prozone

A

too much antibody

50
Q

In the antigen-antibody amounts, what is the postzone

A

too much antigen

51
Q

In the antigen-antibody amounts, what is the zone of equivalence

A

approx. equal amounts

52
Q

in the IAT, what is the prozone

A

too much plasma

53
Q

in the IAT, what is the postzone

A

too much RBC

54
Q

What is hemolysis

A

lysing of RBC by complement
intravascular destruction of Rbc
LOW HAPTOGLOBIN LEVELS

55
Q

What is hemolysis mediated by

A

complement

56
Q

What is antiglobulin

A

antibody directed against human antibodies

57
Q

what does the term “anti” mean

A

antibody

58
Q

what does DAT stand for

A

Direct antiglobulin test

59
Q

What does IAT stand for

A

Indirect antiglobulin test

also called antibody screen

60
Q

when do you use DAT

A

when the antibody is already bound to red cell antigens
HEMOLYTIC DISEASE OF THE FETUS AND NEWBORN (HDN) OR (HDFN)
- MOTHER’S ANTIBODY ON BABY’S CELLS
TRANSFUSION REACTION
- PATIENT ANTIBODY ON TRANSFUSED DONOR CELLS

61
Q

what does IAT do

A

detects antibodies in the plasma

62
Q

how is IAT done

A

patient plasma + RBCs with known antigens
incubate
wash
add antihuman globulin (AHG) also called indirect coombs

63
Q

what are major causes of false negatives?

A

PROZONE
POSTZONE
INCORRECT TIME OR TEMP
INADEQUATE WASHING

64
Q

what is a chromosome

A

STRAND OF DNA CARRYING GENETIC INFORMATION

65
Q

what is a gene

A

UNITS OF INHERITANCE THAT PRODUCE ANTIGENS ON RBCs

66
Q

what is a locus

A

LOCATION ON A CHROMOSOME FOR A GENE

67
Q

what is an allele

A

ALTERNATIVE GENES THAT CAN OCCUR AT A SPECIFIC LOCUS

68
Q

what is homozygous

A

SAME GENE FROM BOTH PARENTS

69
Q

what is heterozygous

A

DIFFERENT GENES FROM PARENTS

70
Q

what is the genotype

A

THE ACTUAL GENES THAT ARE INHERITED

71
Q

phenotype

A

PHYSICAL EXPRESSION OF GENES

72
Q

in ABO, which ones produce antigen on RBC

A

A and B

73
Q

what is amorphic

A

no antigen production

74
Q

how many phenotypes with ABO

A

4

A, B, AB, O

75
Q

how many genotypes

A

6

AA, AO, BB, BO, AB, OO

76
Q

what does codominant mean

A

one does not suppress another

77
Q

A and B genes are codominant, what does this mean

A

ONE DOES NOT SUPPRESS THE OTHER

IF YOU INHERIT BOTH, YOU PRODUCE BOTH ANTIGENS

78
Q

what are haplotypes

A

genes very close together
inherited as a group MNSs is an example
M and N are alleles
S and s are alleles

79
Q

what does it mean when a person as an antibody

A
  • PATIENT LACKS THE ANTIGEN
  • PATIENT BUILT AN ANTIBODY
  • ANY DONOR BLOOD TO BE TRANSFUSED MUST LACK THE ANTIGEN
80
Q

what are the steps with needing units with multiple antibodies

A

FInd the occurrence of the antigen in general population
take negative occurrences of antigen and multiple them
use ratio and proportion to determine how many donor units of blood to screen

81
Q

what exclusion for ABO paternity

A

crossover
deletions
suppressions

82
Q

what is HLA

A

human leukocyte antigens

83
Q

HLA is on all cells in the body except

A

RBC(erythrocytes)

84
Q

HLA antibodies cause what kind of transfusion reactions

A

chill and fever

85
Q

what is the HLA antigen used for

A

paternity exclusion

86
Q

what do you do to IgM and IgG to change the zeta potential

A

IgM- add saline room temp

IgG- LISS, AHG 37 C

87
Q

what is the crossover

A

gene splits in the wrong place

88
Q

What is the dosage effect

A

test with antibody
KK- strong
Kk- weak
kk- none

Blood Bank (6 decks)

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