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Histology > Test 1 (1-4) > Flashcards

Test 1 (1-4) Flashcards

1
Q

embryology

A

the study of prenatal development that begins at conception and ends with birth

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2
Q

histology

A

the study of the microscopic structures and the functions of cells and their tissues.

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3
Q

Primordium

A

earliest indication of a tissue type or an organ during prenatal development

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4
Q

congenital malformations

A

birth defects

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5
Q

amniocentesis

A

amniotic fluid test to detect abnormalities in the chromosomes

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6
Q

meiosis

A

process of reproductive cell production that ensures correct # of chromosomes

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7
Q

Cleavage

A

process during prenatal development when mitosis converts a zygote to a blastocyst

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8
Q

fusion

A

joining of embryonic tissue of two separate surfaces

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9
Q

mesenchyme

A

made from NCCs & mesoderm

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10
Q

embryonic folding

A

places tissues in proper positions for further development

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11
Q

intercellular junctions

A

specialized regions of contact between the plasma membranes of adjacent cells. They are essential to any multi-cellular organism, providing the structural means by which groups of cells can adhere and interact.

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12
Q

desmosome

A

a cell structure specialized for cell-to-cell adhesion.

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13
Q

hemidesmosome

A

a cell structure that attaches a cell to a non-cellular surface.

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14
Q

Identify the type of tissue

A

Simple Squamous Epithelium

(horizontal longer than vertical)

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15
Q

Identify the type of tissue

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

(horizontal and vertical equal)

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16
Q

Identify the type of tissue

A

Simple Columnar Epithelium

(vertical greater than horizontal)

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17
Q

Intramembranous Ossification

A

Bone development from sheets of mesenchymal connective tissue. (maxillary arch and most of the mandible)

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18
Q

endochondral ossification

A

Bone development by the replacement of hyaline cartilage (parts of the mandible)

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19
Q

resorption

A

the dental condition where the body’s cells eat away and dissolve the tooth structure, removing the mineralized tissue.

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20
Q

suppuration

A

pus, with large numbers of PMN’s (granulocytes) found in the fluid.

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21
Q

synapse

A

the junction between two neurons or a neuron and effector organs, such as a muscle or gland.

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22
Q

Name the three periods of prenatal development

A
  1. ) preimplantation (1st week after conception)
  2. ) embryonic (2-8 weeks)
  3. ) fetal (9 weeks to 40 weeks)
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23
Q

In the preimplantation period, list the phases of development

A

zygote → blastocyst

(1st week after conception)

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24
Q

In the embryonic period, list the phases of development

A

blastocyst → disc,

disc → embryo,

embryo → folded embryo

(2-8 weeks)

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25
Q

In the fetal period, list the phases of development

A

folded embryo → embryo,

embryo → fetus

(9 - 40 weeks)

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26
Q

when implantation occurs outside of the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube.

A

ectopic pregnancy

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27
Q

In week 1 (preimplantation), name the events that occur within the organism as it develops (in order):

A
  1. ) fertilization w/ sperm and ovum
  2. ) zygote undergoes mitosis (cleavage), to form a morula
  3. ) morula forms a blastocyst
  4. ) Blastocyst implants in the endometrium. 2 layers now (trophoblast, embryoblast)
  5. ) trophoblast layer gives rise to prenatal support tissue, embryoblast layer gives rise to the embryo.
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28
Q

In week 2 (embryonic period), name the events that occur within the organism as it develops (in order):

A
  1. ) implanted blastocyst grows via proliferation + morphogenesis.
  2. ) leads to the formation of bilaminar embryonic disc (epiblast EB layer

[high columnar cells], and hypoblast HB layer [small cuboidal cells]).

  1. ) suspension of the disc in endometrium between amniotic cavity (EB) and the yolk sac (HB) (embryo sac).
  2. ) Placenta joins embryo, allowing oxygen, CO2, nutritional, and hormonal substances to exchange.
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29
Q

in week 3 (embryonic period), name the events that occur within the organism as it develops (in order):

A
  1. ) development of primitive streak w/in the disc (creating bilateral symmetry)
  2. ) epiblast layer cells migrate toward hypoblast layer to become mesoderm and embryonic endoderm.
  3. ) formation of trilaminar embryonic disk (mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm)
  4. ) CNS development (brain, spinal cord begin)

A.) ectoderm creates neuroectoderm, within neural plate, that thickens to form neural groove.

B.) Neural groove deepens to become surrounded by neural folds

C.) neural folds meet and fuse to form neural tube.

5.) Formation of somites (38-paired cuboidal segments of mesoderm)

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30
Q

in week 3 (embryonic period), the ectoderm develops into what?

A
  1. ) skin epidermis
  2. ) CNS
  3. )NCC’s
  4. ) mammary & cutaneous glands
  5. ) Histologic feature-Columnar
  6. ) Origin- Epiblast layer
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31
Q

in week 3 (embryonic period), the endoderm develops into what?

A
  1. ) respiratory/digestive system linings
  2. ) glandular cells
  3. ) liver/pancreatic cells
  4. ) Histologic features- Cuboidal
  5. ) Origin- Migrating cells from epiblast layer
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32
Q

in week 3 (embryonic period), the trilaminar embryonic disc develops two ends called?

A
  1. ) Cephalic end (Head end)
  2. ) Caudal end (Tail end)
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33
Q

in week 3 (embryonic period), the mesoderm develops into what?

A
  1. ) connective tissue (such as skin dermis, cartilage, bone, blood, muscle).
  2. ) excretory and reproductive organs
  3. ) histologic features- varies
  4. ) origins- migrating cells from epiblast layer
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34
Q

in week 3 (embryonic period), the Neural Crest Cells develop into what?

A
  1. ) components of nervous system pigment cells, connective tissue proper, cartilage, bone, certain dental tissue
  2. ) Histologic Features- Varies
  3. ) Origin- Migrating neuroectoderm
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35
Q

What forms at the cephalic end?

A

oropharyngeal membrane (future location of mouth, the beginning of digestive tract)

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36
Q

What forms at the caudal end?

A

cloacal membrane (future location of anus, terminal end of digestive tract)

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37
Q

in week 4 (embryonic period), name the events that occur within the organism as it develops (in order):

(Hint/trick to remember-fold, feed, face)

A
  1. ) trilaminar embryonic disk undergoes anterior (cephalic) and lateral embryonic folding (endoderm inside ecto+meso)
  2. ) formation of tube that becomes future digestive tract from cephalic (oropharyngeal membrane) to caudal (cloacal membrane) end. (Foregut [anterior], Midgut [posterior], Hindgut[posterior])
  3. ) Development of face and neck (primitive eyes, ears, nose, oral cavity, and jaw areas)
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38
Q

These are environmental factors that can induce changes in the developing embryo:

A

teratogens

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39
Q

This is an array of the metaphase stage chromosomes of a single cell used to determine gender and analysis for mutations.

A

karyotype

Male: XY

Female: XX

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40
Q

Down syndrome is associated with what chromosome?

A

21

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41
Q

After a zygote cleaves through mitosis it is now called a ________

A

morula

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42
Q

After a morula cleaves through additional mitotic divisions it is now called a __________

A

blastocyst

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43
Q

The difference between a morula and a blastocyst is that a blastocyst has a ________ and a morula does not

A

cavity

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44
Q

The outer cell mass of a blastocyst is called a ____________

A

trophoblast

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45
Q

The inner cell mass of a blastocyst is called a __________

A

embryoblast

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46
Q

These cells migrate from the crests of the neural folds and disperse within the mesenchyme

A

neural crest cells (NCC’s)

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47
Q

the mesenchyme is formed from what?

A

the joining of NCC’s with the mesoderm

48
Q

Name the three primary germ layers

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

49
Q

what hereditary disease causes abnormalities of the teeth, skin, hair, eyes, facial structure, and glands?

A

ectodermal dysplasia

50
Q

What syndrome occurs from the failure of NCC’s to migrate to the facial region?

A

Treacher Collins Syndrome

51
Q

What infective teratogen results in cataracts, cardiac defects, and deafness?

A

Rubella

52
Q

what infective teratogen results in defected incisors, molars, blindness, deafness, and possible paralysis?

A

Syphilis

53
Q

What teratogenic caused syndrome results in prenatal/postnatal deficiencies, mental disabilities, and other facial disturbances?

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

54
Q

What condition develops from the neural tube failing to fuse properly, characterized by defects in the vertebral arches and various degrees of disability?

A

Spina Bifida

55
Q

what disorder is caused by the use of a specific antibiotic during pregnancy that causes tooth discoloration and staining?

A

Tetracycline Stain

56
Q

Action of one group of cells on another that leads to the establishment of the developmental pathway in the responding tissue?

A

Induction

57
Q

Controlled cellular growth and accumulation of byproducts?

A

Proliferation

58
Q

Change in identical embryonic cells to become distinct structurally and functionally?

A

Differentiation

59
Q

Development of specific tissue structure or differing form due to embryonic cell migration or proliferation and inductive interactions?

A

Morphogenesis

60
Q

Attainment of adult function and size due to proliferation, differentiation, and morphogenesis?

A

Maturation

61
Q

Development of different cell types

A

Cytodifferentiation

62
Q

Development of differing morphology (which makes up its structure or shape for each organ or system)

A

Morphodifferentiation

63
Q

Development of different histologic tissue types within a structure

A

Histodifferentiation

64
Q

Growth where tissue enlarges by the addition of layers on the outside of a structure?

A

Appositional growth

65
Q

Growth which occurs from deep within a tissue type or organ?

A

Interstitial growth

66
Q

Is hard tissue growth usually appositional or interstitial?

A

Appositional

67
Q

Is soft tissue growth appositional or interstitial?

A

Interstitial

68
Q

What class of teratogens includes ethanol, tetracycline, phenytoin sodium, lithium, methotrexate, aminopterin, diethylstilbestrol, warfarin, thalidomide, isotretinoin (retinoic acid), androgens, progesterone?

A

Drugs

69
Q

What class of teratogens includes methylmercury and polychlorinated biphenyls?

A

Chemicals

70
Q

What class of teratogens includes rubella virus, syphilis spirochete, herpes simplex virus, and HIV?

A

Infections

71
Q

What class of teratogens includes high levels of the ionizing type?

A

Radiation

72
Q

Name the events of development that occur in week 4?

(Step 1 of 4)

A

1.) Disintegration of oropharyngeal membrane of stomodeum, which enlarges the primitive mouth, allowing access to the primitive pharynx.

73
Q

Name the events of development that occur in week 4?

(Step 2 of 4)

A

2.) Mandibular processes fuse to form mandibular arch, which then fuses to form the mandible and lower lip

74
Q

Name the events of development that occur in week 4?

(Step 3 of 4)

A

3.) Frontonasal process forms and gives rise to the nasal placodes/pits, medial/lateral nasal processes, and intermaxillary segment to form the nose and primary palate

75
Q

Name the events of development that occur in week 4?

(Step 4 of 4)

A

4/5.) maxillary process forms from mandibular arch, maxillary processes fuse with medial nasal process to form upper lip and with each mandibular arch to form the labial commissures.

76
Q

First branchial arches (Mandibular arches) forms what future skeletal structures and ligaments?

pneumonic Device- Mall Ant: Part S

A
  1. ) malleus and incus of the middle ear
  2. ) anterior ligament of the malleus
  3. ) parts of the sphenoid bone
  4. ) sphenomandibular ligament
77
Q

Second arches (Hyoid arches) forms what future nerves and muscles?

Pneumonic-Facebook Stops M.o.f.e. Posting Style

A
  1. ) Facial nerve
  2. ) stapedius muscle
  3. )muscles of facial expression
  4. ) posterior belly of the digastric muscle
  5. ) stylohyoid muscle
78
Q 
Second arches (**Hyoid arches**) forms what future skeletal structures and ligaments?
Pneumonic Device- **Stop Stys Style Up Less**
A
  1. ) stapes and parts of the malleus and incus of middle ear
  2. ) stylohyoid ligament
  3. ) styloid process of the temporal bone
  4. ) upper part of body of hyoid bone
  5. ) lesser cornu of hyoid bone
79
Q

Third arches forms what future nerves and muscles?

pneumonic device-Good Shit

A
  1. ) glossopharyngeal nerve
  2. ) stylopharyngeal nerve
80
Q

Third arches forms what future skeletal structures and ligaments?
Pneumonic Device- Great Lowes

A
  1. ) greater cornu of hyoid bone
  2. ) lower part of body of hyoid bone
81
Q

Fourth- sixth arches forms what future nerves and muscles?

Pneumonic Device- Pils

A
  1. ) pharyngeal constrictors
  2. ) intrinsic muscles of the larynx
  3. ) levator veli palatini muscles
  4. ) superior laryngeal branch and recurrent laryngeal branch of vagus nerve
82
Q

Fourth- sixth arches forms what future skeletal structures and ligaments?

Pneumonic Device- LarCar

A

1.) laryngeal cartilages

83
Q

First pouches form what future structures?

Pneumonic Device- MATT

A
  1. ) mastoid antrum
  2. ) auditory tube
  3. ) tympanic membrane (with first branchial groove)
  4. ) tympanic cavity

HEAR

84
Q

Second pouches form what future structures?

Mmenomic- crying and laughing nuts of the program today

A

1.) crypts and lymphatic nodules of the palatine tonsils

Swallow

85
Q

Third-Fourth pouches form what future structures?
mmenomic-Pt Tg

A

1.) parathyroid

and

thymus glands

86
Q

Mandibular arch forms from?

A

fusion of bilateral mandibular processes. Site of fusion is Mandibular symphysis (buttchin). Meckel’s cartilage forms bilaterally within the developing mandibular arch.

87
Q

What bony structures does Meckel’s cartilage give rise to?

A

ossicles of middle ear(malleus + incus).

88
Q

Stomodeum

A

primitive mouth of embryo

89
Q

mandibular processes

A

processes of first branchial arches that fuse @ midline to form mandibular arch

90
Q

mandibular arch

A

lower dental arch with mandibular teeth, or first branchial arch in embryo

91
Q

Meckel cartilage

A

forms within each side of mandibular arch & disappears as bony mandible forms

92
Q

Frontonasal process

A

Forms as a bulge of tissue at the most cephalic end, cranial boundary of stomodeum

93
Q

Lens placodes

A

Future eyes; initially located fishlike on each side of frontonasal process

94
Q

Otic placodes

A

Future internal ear; lateral & posterior to lens placodes

95
Q

Nasal placodes

A

Anterior part of frontonasal process; develop into olfactory epithelium for smell

96
Q

Nasal pits

A

Develop into nasal cavity

97
Q

Oronasal membrane

A

Temporary membrane that separates nasal sacs from the stomodeum

98
Q

Medial nasal processes

A

Two crescent-shaped swellings located between nasal pits, form apex, philtrum, tubercle

99
Q

Intermaxillary segment

A

Formed by the fusing of the paired medial nasal processes internally;involved in formation of incisors, primary palate and nasal septum

100
Q

Lateral nasal processes

A

Two crescent-shaped swellings on the outer part of nasal pit; forms alae of nose

101
Q

Maxillary process

A

Adjacent swelling forms from increased growth of mandibular arch on each side of stomodeum

102
Q

Cleft lip

A

Failure of fusion of the maxillary process with the medial nasal process

103
Q

Primitive pharynx

A

Hollow tube of embryo, derived from anterior part of foregut;

future oropharynx

104
Q

Branchial apparatus

A

Consists of branchial arches, branchial grooves + membranes & pharyngeal pouches

105
Q

Branchial arches

A

Stacked bilateral swellings of tissue appear inferior to the stomodeum & include Mandibular arch

106
Q

Fifth branchial arch

A

Rudimentary, sometimes absent or a part of fourth branchial arch

107
Q

First branchial arch

A

Mandibular arch; Meckel cartilage

108
Q

Hyoid arch

A

Second branchial arch

109
Q

Reichert cartilage

A

Forms in second branchial arch

110
Q

Third branchial arch

A

Forms part of hyoid bone

111
Q

Fourth branchial arch

A

Participates information of laryngeal cartilage

112
Q

Sixth branchial arch

A

Fuses with fourth branchial arch to participate in formation of laryngeal cartilage

113
Q

Branchial grooves

A

Grooves between neighboring branchial arches on each side of embryo

114
Q

Pharyngeal pouches

A

Four pairs of evaginations lining the pharynx between branchial arches

115
Q

Branchial cleft cyst

A

Developmental cervical cyst due to obliteration failure of second branchial groove

Histology (8 decks)

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