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Histology > Exam 2 (Chs. 5-8) > Flashcards

Exam 2 (Chs. 5-8) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following structures is initially formed during the fifth week of prenatal development?

a. Neural tube
b. Palatal processes
c. Mandibular arch
d. Intermaxillary segment

A

d.

Intermaxillary segment

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2
Q

During which week of prenatal development is the palate completed?

a. Fifth
b. Eighth
c. Tenth
d. Twelfth

A

d.

Twelfth

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3
Q

What structure partially separates the nasal and oral cavities in the

fifth week of prenatal development?

a. Maxillary process
b. Primary palate
c. Final or definitive palate
d. Mandibular arch

A

b.

Primary palate

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4
Q

The tongue develops from multiple swellings derived from the:

a. outer parts of the maxillary process.
b. inferior growth of the intermaxillary segment.
c. palatal shelves of the maxillary process.
d. first four branchial arches.

A

d.

first four branchial arches.

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5
Q

The fusion of the two palatal shelves with the primary palate is dependent on the:

a. ingrowth from the maxillary arch.
b. change in position of the paranasal sinuses.
c. continued vertical growth of all the processes.
d. change in the position of the tongue.

A

d.

change in the position of the tongue.

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6
Q

When is the palate formed during prenatal development?

a. During the fourth week of prenatal development
b. After adjacent tongue formation begins
c. During only a week of prenatal development
d. Spanning both the embryonic and fetal periods

A

d.Spanning both the embryonic and fetal periods

Primary palate: 5th-6th week

Secondary palate: 6th - 12th week

Final palate: 12th week

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7
Q

What part of the final palate does the secondary palate give rise to?

a. Two-thirds of the hard palate
b. Entire hard palate
c. Only the soft palate region
d. Both the hard and soft palate

A

a.

Two-thirds of the hard palate:

the posterior two-thirds of the hard palate,

the canines,

all posterior teeth,

the soft palate & uvula

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8
Q

Considering the developmental disturbance of cleft palate, which of the following statements is correct?

a. May be isolated or associated with other abnormalities.
b. Isolated forms of cleft palate are more common than cleft lip.
c. Isolated forms are more common in males.
d. Cleft uvula is the most complicated example.

A

a.May be isolated or associated with other abnormalities.

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9
Q

When does tongue development occur during prenatal development?

a. During the fourth to fifth week
b. During the fourth to eighth week
c. During the eighth to tenth week
d. During the eighth to twelfth week

A

b.During the fourth to eighth week

the body of the tongue develops from the first branchial arch, and the base of the tongue originates later from the second., third, and fourth branchial arches.

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10
Q

The _____ is a superficial demarcation of the line of fusion of the two lateral lingual swellings during tongue development, as well as that of a deeper fibrous structure.

a. tuberculum impar
b. copula
c. median lingual sulcus
d. sulcus terminalis

A

c.

median lingual sulcus

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11
Q

As the tongue develops still further, the copula of the tongue base, after overgrowing the second branchial arch, merges with the anterior swellings of the first branchial arch of the tongue body, with the fusion is superficially demarcated by the:

a. sulcus terminalis.
b. tuberculum impar.
c. copula.
d. median lingual sulcus.

A

a.

sulcus terminalis.

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12
Q

During tongue development, what does the epiglottic swelling develop from?

a. Outer parts of the maxillary process
b. Inferior growth of the intermaxillary segment
c. Palatal shelves of the maxillary process
d. First four branchial arches

A

d. First four branchial arches
* posterior swelling that develops from the mesenchyme of the fourth branchial arches marking the development of future epiglottis*

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13
Q

Which of the following statements concerning tongue disturbances is correct?

a. Abnormalities of the tongue are common.
b. Ankyloglossia results from a long attachment of the lingual frenum.
c. Ankyloglossia may be associated with other craniofacial abnormalities.
d. Lingual frenum is never surgically cut anymore to free it.

A

c. Ankyloglossia may be associated with

other craniofacial abnormalities.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements concerning palatal developmental is correct?

a. The intermaxillary segment gives rise to the secondary palate.
b. Palatal fusion allows the fusion of swellings or tissue from different surfaces of the embryo.
c. The nasal cavity forms at later than the palate.
d. The secondary palate gives rise to the anterior third of the hard palate.

A

b. Palatal fusion allows the fusion of swellings

or tissue from different surfaces of the embryo.

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15
Q

Which of the following statements concerning tongue development is correct?

a. Tongue development begins as a triangular median swelling, the tuberculum impar.
b. The copula is formed from the fusion of mesenchyme of mainly the second parts of the fourth branchial arches.
c. The foramen cecum is the beginning of the thymus.
d. The tongue develops during the eighth week of prenatal development.

A

a. Tongue development begins as a triangular median swelling, the tuberculum impar.

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16
Q

Which paired processes fuse to form the intermaxillary segment internally within the embryo during prenatal development?

a. Lateral nasal processes
b. Medial nasal processes
c. Palatal shelves
d. Mandibular processes

A

b.

Medial nasal processes

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17
Q

During the sixth week of prenatal development, within the embryonic period, the bilateral maxillary processes give rise to paired:

a. lateral nasal processes.
b. medial nasal processes.
c. palatal shelves.
d. mandibular processes.

A

c. palatal shelves.

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18
Q

The small paired nasopalatine canals are represented in the mature hard palate by the:

a. median palatine raphe.
b. medial lingual sulcus.
c. incisive foramen.
d. palatal rugae.

A

c. incisive foramen.

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19
Q

The intermaxillary segment is an internal wedge-shaped mass that extends inferiorly and deep to the nasal pits on the:

a. inside of the parotid salivary gland.
b. inside of the stomodeum.
c. wall of the pharynx.
d. wall of the maxillary sinus.

A

b.

inside of the stomodeum.

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20
Q

Which teeth are associated with the further development of the

primary palate?

a. Maxillary incisors
b. Mandibular incisors
c. Maxillary canines
d. Mandibular posterior teeth

A

a.

Maxillary incisors

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21
Q

To complete the palate, in which direction does the involved structures gradually fuse?

a. Right to left
b. Left to right
c. Anterior to posterior
d. Posterior to anterior

A

c. Anterior to posterior

Anterior ——-> Posterior

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22
Q

When does the nasal cavity form during prenatal development?

a. During the fourth to eighth week
b. During the fifth to ninth week
c. During the fourth to tenth week
d. During the fifth to twelfth week

A

b. During the fifth to ninth week

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23
Q

Which of the following completions of development allows the paired nasal cavity and the single oral cavity in the fetus to become completely separate?

a. Tongue completion
b. Tongue and nasal septum completion
c. Nasal septum and final palate completion
d. Final palate completion

A

c. Nasal septum

and

final palate completion

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24
Q

Around the lingual swellings, the cells degenerate, forming a sulcus, which frees the body of the tongue from the floor of the mouth, except for the attachment of the:

a. nasal septum.
b. tuberculum impar.
c. copula.
d. lingual frenum.

A

d. lingual frenum.

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25
Q

Which way does the sulcus terminalis point toward the oropharynx after tongue development?

a. Upward
b. Downward
c. Forward
d. Backward

A

d. Backward

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26
Q

What happens to the specific cells from the enamel organ that will differentiate into preameloblasts?

a. Their length shortens.
b. Their nuclei repolarize.
c. Their cellular contents mineralize.
d. They line up along the basement membrane.

A

b.Their nuclei repolarize.

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27
Q

Which embryonic structure is specifically responsible for the

development of the root?

a. Stellate reticulum
b. Enamel organ
c. Stratum intermedium
d. Cervical loop

A

d. Cervical loop

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28
Q

If a tooth has two roots, how many horizontal epithelial extensions or

flaps will be involved in its root formation?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

A

b. Two

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29
Q

During root development, the Hertwig epithelial root sheath is entirely composed of:

a. all layers of the enamel organ.
b. enamel organ and dental papilla.
c. inner and outer cells of the dental papilla.
d. inner and outer enamel epithelium.

A

d.

inner and outer

enamel epithelium.

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30
Q

The dental lamina is an embryonic structure that develops from the:

a. oral epithelium.
b. mesenchyme.
c. neural crest cells.
d. endodermal layer.

A

a. oral epithelium.

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31
Q

Enamel hypocalcification is a type of enamel dysplasia that involves:

a. an increased number of ameloblasts.
b. a reduction in the quantity of enamel matrix.
c. grooves and pitting on the enamel surface.
d. interference in the metabolic processes of ameloblasts.

A

d. interference in the metabolic processes of ameloblasts.

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32
Q

Which of the following statements concerning active eruption of a permanent succedaneous tooth is correct?

a. The tooth erupts when the root is completed.
b. The shedding of the associated primary tooth is intermittent.
c. The first junctional epithelium is from the surrounding dental sac.
d. The tooth actively erupts as gingival recession occurs.

A

b. The shedding of the associated

primary tooth is intermittent.

(irregular intervals)

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33
Q

How many buds in the dental lamina appear along each dental arch during odontogenesis of the primary dentition?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

A

b.

10

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34
Q

Nonsuccedaneous permanent teeth develop from buds that grow off an extension of:

a. each successional dental lamina.
b. both paired palatal shelves.
c. the posterior part of the intermaxillary segment.
d. each primary second molar’s dental lamina.

A

d. each primary second molar’s dental lamina.

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35
Q

During the cap stage of tooth development, the tooth germ consists of:

a. enamel organ and dental sac.
b. enamel organ and dental papilla.
c. enamel organ, dental sac, and dental papilla.
d. dental sac and dental papilla.

A

c. enamel organ,

dental sac,

and

dental papilla.

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36
Q

The outer cells of the dental papilla are induced to differentiate during tooth development into:

a. pulp tissue.
b. preameloblasts.
c. odontoblasts.
d. cementoblasts.

A

c. odontoblasts.

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37
Q

Which of the following embryonic structures becomes the

dentinoenamel junction during the completion of tooth development?

a. Inner cells of the dental papilla
b. Outer cells of the dental papilla
c. Outer enamel epithelium of the enamel organ
d. Basement membrane between the enamel organ and dental papilla

A

d.

Basement membrane between

the enamel organ and dental papilla

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38
Q

Which of the following structures is not part of the enamel organ?

a. Stellate reticulum
b. Stratum intermedium
c. Odontoblastic layer
d. Outer epithelial cells

A

c. Odontoblastic layer3`

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39
Q

Which part of the tooth germ is the primary source for the periodontal ligament (PDL) of the tooth?

a. Dental sac
b. Hertwig epithelial root sheath
c. Stratum intermedium
d. Central cells of dental papilla

A

a. Dental sac

Mesoderm → Dental sac = PDL, cemuntum and some alvelor bone

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40
Q

Which part of the enamel organ is the main source of the junctional epithelium?

a. Outer enamel epithelium
b. Stellate reticulum
c. Stratum intermedium
d. Inner enamel epithelium

A

c. Stratum intermedium

JE = SI

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41
Q

The overlapping period between the primary and permanent dentition is best considered the _____ period.

a. deciduous
b. adult
c. secondary
d. mixed dentition

A

d.

mixed dentition

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42
Q

Which of the following statements is correct when considering odontogenesis?

a. Has a clear-cut beginning and endpoint to the process
b. Does not include the maturation of the dental tissues
c. Parallels the formation of the face
d. Does not have any identifiable stages

A

c. Parallels the formation of the face

(Odontogenises = 6th - 7th week)

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43
Q

The initiation stage of odontogenesis mainly involves the process of:

a. differentiation.
b. proliferation.
c. induction.
d. morphogenesis.

A

c. induction (6-7th week)

I – I

B–P

C–PDM

B–PDM

A–IP

M–M

44
Q

Where does the dental lamina begin to form first in the developing dental arches?

a. Near the midline
b. Adjacent to the mental foramen
c. Over the region of the future molars
d. Adjacent to the developing temporomandibular joint

A

a. Near the midline

(incisors)

45
Q

Which permanent teeth undergo partial anodontia the most within the developing oral cavity?

a. Third molars
b. Mandibular second premolars
c. Maxillary lateral incisors
d. Maxillary first premolars

A

a. Third molars

Anodontia- the lack of initiation within the dental lamina results in the absence of a single tooth or multiple teeth (partial) or an entire dentition (complete),

46
Q

What is the known etiology (cause)of supernumerary teeth?

a. Hereditary factors
b. Occlusal trauma involvement
c. Interatogen considerations
d. Disintegration of associated membranes

A

a. Hereditary factors

(6th-7th week Initiation stage)

47
Q

Which of the following permanent teeth can be considered nonsuccedaneous?

a. Incisors
b. Canines
c. Premolars
d. Molars

A

d. Molars

Primary Molars → Premolars

Permanent molars grow on their own

48
Q

Which of the following is the most common complication associated with dens in dente?

a. Macrodontic tooth size
b. Abnormal arch spacing
c. Lingual pit formation
d. Hypercementosis of root surface

A

c. Lingual pit formation

Cap Stage
Disturbance: Dens in dente (G)
Description: Enamel organ invaginates into the dental papilla that commonly affects the permanent maxillary lateral incisor
Etiologic factors: Hereditary
Clinical ramifications: Deep lingual pit that may need endodontic therapy

49
Q

Which stage of tooth formation occurs for the primary dentition during the eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development?

a. Bell stage
b. Initiation stage
c. Cap stage
d. Bud stage

A

a. Bell stage

Initiation stage (6-7th week)

Bud stage (8th)

Cap stage (9-10th week)

Bell stage (11-12th week)

50
Q

What term describes the movement of the nuclei within the inner enamel epithelium as the tissue forms into preameloblasts?

a. Dentinogenesis
b. Repolarization
c. Disintegration
d. Maturation

A

b. Repolarization

movement of nuclei = repolarization​

51
Q

What is the angled part of the ameloblast that secretes the enamel matrix?

a. Inner enamel epithelium
b. Repolarized preameloblasts
c. Tomes process
d. Disintegrating basement membrane

A

c. Tomes process

(Ameloblast) = Tomes process → secretes enamel matrix

52
Q

Where does the initial teeth for both dentitions develop?

a. Anterior maxillary region
b. Anterior mandibular region
c. Posterior maxillary region
d. Posterior mandibular region

A

b. Anterior mandibular region

mandibular incisors

53
Q

During what period of prenatal development is most of the permanent dentition formed?

a. Preimplantation period
b. Embryonic period
c. Fetal period
d. Both embryonic and fetal period

A

c. Fetal period

54
Q

Lack of initiation within the dental lamina results in the absence of a single tooth or multiple teeth, producing:

a. supernumerary teeth.
b. anodontia.
c. dens in dente.
d. germination.

A

b. anodontia.

(6-7th week)

55
Q

Tubercles are a developmental disturbance that occurs during the cap stage of tooth development with both dentitions, but with the permanent dentition it can be mainly noted on the:

a. occlusal surface of premolars.
b. occlusal surface of third molars.
c. cingulum on mandibular lateral incisors.
d. cingulum of mandibular canines.

A

b. occlusal surface of third molars.

(Cap stage: 9-10th week)

  • Tubercles: Accessory cusps on cingulum of the anterior teeth or
  • occlusal tables** of the permanent molars.
56
Q

Which of the following functions are performed by the Golgi complex within the cell?

a. Metabolizes foreign compounds
b. Produces ribosomes
c. Packages protein compounds
d. Produces energy for the cell

A

c. Packages protein compounds
* Golgi complex: Responsible for the packaging, segregation, and transporting proteins into secretory vesicles without losing or mixing of the cytoplasm within the cell*

57
Q

During the cell cycle, interphase involves the cells engaging in:

a. organelle replacement.
b. substance destruction.
c. chromatin removal.
d. centrosome reduction.

A

a. organelle replacement.

Interphase: Period when a cell is between divisions but is
growing and functioning.

Mitosis: Interphase→Prophase→Metaphase→Anaphase→Telophase

IPM AT

58
Q

Which type of cellular junction attaches the junctional epithelium to the tooth surface?

a. Cemental
b. Lysosomal
c. Desmosomal
d. Hemidesmosomal

A

d. Hemidesmosomal

Forms intercellular junction
involving attachment of cell to nearby noncellular surface.

59
Q

The smallest living unit of organization in the body is a(n):

a. organ.
b. tissue.
c. cell.
d. system.

A

c. cell.

60
Q

A collection of similarly specialized cells in the body is termed a(n):

a. organ.
b. tissue.
c. cell.
d. system.

A

b. tissue.

61
Q

An independent body part formed from tissue is a(n):

a. organ.
b. tissue.
c. cell.
d. system.

A

a. organ.

62
Q

Organs in the body are known to be able to function together as a(n):

a. organ.
b. tissue.
c. cell.
d. system.

A

d. system.

63
Q

The semifluid part contained within cell membrane boundary is considered to be:

a. nucleoplasm.
b. cytoplasm.
c. tissue fluid.
d. nuclear envelope.

A

b. cytoplasm.

Cytoplasm = fluid portion** within the **cell

Nucleoplasm= fluid portion** within the **nucleus

64
Q

The fluid part within the nucleus of the cell is considered to be:

a. cytoplasm.
b. nucleoplasm.
c. nuclear envelope.
d. tissue fluid.

A

b. nucleoplasm.

Cytoplasm = fluid portion within the cell

Nucleoplasm = fluid portion within the nucleus

65
Q

The specialized, metabolically active structures within the cell are generally considered to be:

a. nuclear pores.
b. organelles.
c. chromosomes.
d. vacuoles.

A

b. organelles.

66
Q

The chromosomes have clear, constricted areas near each middle, specifically considered to be:

a. chromatin.
b. chromatids.
c. centromeres.
d. cytoplasm.

A

c. centromeres.

Clear constricted area where two chromatids
of chromosome are joined.

67
Q

The active transport of material from a vesicle within the cell out into the extracellular environment is termed:

a. endocytosis.
b. phagocytosis.
c. exocytosis.
d. interphase.

A

c. exocytosis.

exo = out

endo = into

68
Q

During what phase of mitosis does the chromatin condense within the cell?

a. Metaphase
b. Prophase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase

A

b. Prophase

Prophase: Chromosomes are comprised of two sister chromatids.

Prophase (XX) condense → X Metaphase (lines up)

X

69
Q

During what phase of mitosis do the chromosomes move so that the centromeres are aligned in the equatorial plane?

a. Metaphase
b. Prophase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase

A

a. Metaphase

70
Q

When does the nuclear membrane reappear during mitosis?

a. Metaphase
b. Prophase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase

A

a. Metaphase

71
Q

How many phases are within interphase when it occurs between cell division?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

A

c. Three

G1

S

G2

72
Q

How many phases are within mitosis or cell division?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

A

d. Four

1. Prophase

2. Metaphase

3. Anaphase

4. Telophase

73
Q

Which of the following are metabolically inert substances in the cell that are also considered transient?

a. Inclusions
b. Vacuoles
c. Intermediate filaments
d. Lysosomes

A

a. Inclusions

74
Q

Which of the following organelles in a cell can appear microscopically either smooth or rough?

a. Golgi complex
b. Lysosomes
c. Cytoskeleton
d. Endoplasmic reticulum

A

d. Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

ER = Membrane-bound organelle with

channels that is either rough or smooth

75
Q

Which of the following organelles are produced by the Golgi complex and function as well in both intracellular and extracellular digestion by the cell?

a. Lysosomes
b. Ribosomes
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Nucleus

A

a. Lysosomes

Lysosomes: Organelles of a scavenger nature that perform intracellular and extracellular digestion

76
Q

Which of the following is the main hydrolytic enzyme found in lysosomes?

a. Intercellular substance
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Tissue fluid
d. Lysozyme

A

b. Hyaluronidase

77
Q

Where is the centrosome specifically located within the cell, as it plays a significant role in forming the mitotic spindle apparatus during mitosis?

a. Cell membrane
b. Golgi complex
c. Nucleus
d. Mitochondria

A

c. Nucleus

78
Q

Which of the following is not considered a component of the cytoskeleton within a cell?

a. Microfilaments
b. Intermediate filaments
c. Microtubules
d. Vacuoles

A

d. Vacuoles

79
Q

What is the main difference between the cell membrane and nuclear envelope within the cell?

a. Cell membrane has nuclear pores.
b. Nuclear envelope is double-layered.
c. Nuclear envelope contains cytoplasm.
d. Cell membrane contains nucleoplasm.

A

b. Nuclear envelope is double-layered.

  • *Double membrane completely surrounding
    nucleus. **
80
Q

Which of the following involves the engulfing and then digesting of solid waste and foreign material by the cell through enzymatic breakdown of the material?

a. Exocytosis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Intermediate filaments

A

b. Phagocytosis

phago = eat, consume, or destroy

cytosis = transport of large quantities of molecules in and out of cells

81
Q

Which type of bone tissue has a Haversian system with osteons?

a. Cancellous bone
b. Compact bone
c. Osteoid
d. Immature bone

A

b. Compact bone

In the Haversian system, these lamellae form concentric layers of
matrix into cylinders or osteons. The osteon is the unit of structure in compact bone and consists of 5 to 20 lamellae.

82
Q

Which of the following tissue types provides nutrition for the underlying compact bone?

a. Cartilage
b. Periosteum
c. Compact bone
d. Cancellous bone

A

b. Periosteum

83
Q

Which of the following basic tissue types is usually composed of fewer cells spaced farther apart and containing larger amounts of matrix between the cells?

a. Epithelium
b. Nerve tissue
c. Muscle tissue
d. Connective tissue

A

d. Connective tissue

84
Q

The macrophages found in the connective tissue are derived from:

a. neutrophils.
b. monocytes.
c. basophils.
d. mast cells.

A

b. monocytes.

Other cells found in connective tissue include migrated white
blood cells from the blood supply, such as monocytes (macrophages),

basophils (mast cells)

85
Q

Which type of blood cell is directly responsible for immunoglobulin production?

a. Neutrophils
b. Basophils
c. Plasma cells
d. Mast cells

A

c. Plasma cells

lymphocytes = plasma cells

86
Q

Which of the following structures separates the epithelium from the connective tissue?

a. Submucosa
b. Basement membrane
c. Periosteum
d. Endosteum

A

b. Basement membrane

87
Q

Anchoring collagen fibers are found:

a. between the lamina densa and the lamina lucida.
b. between the epithelial cell surface and lamina lucida.
c. in the connective tissue adjacent to the lamina densa.
d. in the epithelium adjacent to the lamina densa.

A

c. in the connective tissue

adjacent

to the lamina densa.

88
Q

What is the term used to describe the amount of time it takes for newly divided cells to be completely replaced throughout a tissue?

a. Fusion
b. Mitosis
c. Turnover
d. Meiosis

A

c. Turnover

89
Q

Which of the following tissue types covers and lines both the external and internal body surfaces?

a. Adipose
b. Connective tissue
c. Cartilage
d. Epithelium

A

d. Epithelium

90
Q

What is the special term used for the unstratified squamous epithelium that lines the vessels and serous cavities of the body?

a. Endothelium
b. Reticular
c. Pseudostratified columnar
d. Epidermis

A

a. Endothelium

Unstratified squamous epithelium
lining vessels and serous cavities.

91
Q

What is the name given to the clot that forms during the repair of the epidermis?

a. Cyst
b. Scab
c. Pearl
d. Granulation

A

b. Scab

92
Q

The crystalline formation of mature bone consists of mainly of which of the following?

a. Calcium hydroxyapatite
b. Osteoid
c. Osteocytes
d. Canaliculi

A

a. Calcium hydroxyapatite

gives bone its hardness

93
Q

The extensions of epithelium into connective tissue, as appear on histologic section, are the:

a. connective tissue papillae.
b. squames.
c. basement membrane.
d. rete ridges.

A

d. rete ridges.

94
Q

By weight, which of the following is considered the most abundant type of basic tissue in the body?

a. Nerve tissue
b. Connective tissue
c. Muscle tissue
d. Epithelial tissue

A

b. Connective tissue

95
Q

The main superficial layer of the basement membrane is the _____ and is produced by the epithelium.

a. reticular lamina
b. basal lamina
c. lamina lucida
d. lamina densa

A

b. basal lamina

96
Q

Most epithelium in the body consists of _____, which includes the superficial layer of the skin and oral mucosa.

a. stratified squamous epithelium
b. pseudostratified columnar epithelium
c. simple squamous epithelium
d. endothelium

A

a. stratified squamous epithelium

97
Q

Epithelium, unlike connective tissue, is _____, which means that it never has a blood supply of its own.

a. stratified
b. avascular
c. keratinized
d. simple

A

b. avascular

98
Q

What is connective tissue directly derived from during prenatal development?

a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Neural crest cells
d. Somites of mesoderm

A

d. Somites of mesoderm

99
Q

Where in the adult body does reticular connective tissue still predominate?

a. Soft palate
b. Tendons and bone
c. Lymph nodes
d. Dermis

A

c. Lymph nodes

and spleen

100
Q

What is the most common type of collagen protein in the body?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

a. Type I

Most common type in dermis of skin, skeletal
bone, tendons, and virtually all connective
tissue

101
Q

The nervous system has two main divisions, which include the central nervous system (CNS) and the _____ nervous system.

a. autonomic
b. peripheral
c. somatic
d. parasympathetic

A

b. Peripheral (PNS)

102
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the autonomic nervous system is correct?

a. Only one division of the autonomic nervous system usually supplies most organs.
b. The autonomic nervous system includes the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system.
c. The autonomic nerves are efferent processes, and they are always in one-neuron circuits.
d. The autonomic nervous system operates with conscious control.

A

b. The autonomic nervous system includes the

sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system.

103
Q

Which of the following are not skeletal muscles?

a. Muscles of facial expression
b. Tongue muscles
c. Muscles of upper esophagus
d. Linings of blood vessels

A

d. Linings of blood vessels

104
Q

Which of the following are chemical mediators of the immune response produced by B and T cells?

a. Platelets
b. Immunoglobulins
c. Immunogens
d. Cytokines

A

d. Cytokines

Cytokines are small proteins that
function as signaling compounds for the white blood cells, which are
necessary to the inflammatory response

105
Q
A

Histology (8 decks)

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