Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Network+ N10-008 Todd Lammle > Terminology 2. > Flashcards

Terminology 2. Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two parts of a MAC address?

A

OUI - Organisationally Unique Identifier
Vendor assigned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is bit 47 of a MAC address?

A

I/G address bit (Individual/Group).
If 0, address is unicast address, if 1 it is a multicast/broadcast address
LSB of first octet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is bit 46 of a MAC address?

A

L/G address bit (Local/Global). Is the address is a burned-in address (BIA), or changed locally.
When set to 1, the address only has to be unique to the local network.
2nd LSB of first octet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the structure of an Ethernet_II frame?

A

Preamble - 7 octets
SOF - 1 octet
Destination - 6 octets
Source - 6 octets
Type - 2 octets *
Data and Padding - 46 - 1500 octets
FCS - 4 octets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the structure of an 802.3_Ethernet frame?

A

Preamble - 7 octets
SOF - 1 octet
Destination - 6 octets
Source - 6 octets
Length - 2 octets *
Data and Padding - 46 - 1500 octets
FCS - 4 octets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is encapsulating a frame with a different type of frame called?

A

Tunnelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In an ethernet frame, what is the preamble comprised of?

A

7 octets of an alternating 10101010 pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In an ethernet frame, what is the SOF

A

Start of frame or synch. The SOF is 10101011, where the last pair of 1’s allows the receiver to predict the beginning of a frame.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

802.3 ethernet can not identify the network layer protocol. What sort of protocol is required for it to be used?

A

A proprietary LAN protocol, such as IPX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the ethertype for IPv4?

A

0x0800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the ethertype for ARP?

A

0x0806

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the ethertype for VLAN tagged?

A

0x8100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the ethertype for IPv6?

A

0x86DD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the original IEEE 802.3 standards? (3)

A

10Base2 (thinnet)
10Base5 (thicknet)
10BaseT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the access method defined in 802.3? And what is its limitation?

A

AUI (Attachment Unit Interface), which only allows one bit at a time transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

802.3u (fast ethernet) introduced a new interface, what was it, how many bits at a time does it support?

A

MII (Media Independent Interface) - uses a nibble (4 bits at a time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gigabit ethernet introduced a variation on the MII, what was it, how many bits at a time does it support?

A

GMII (Gigabit Media Independant Interface) - transmits 8 bits at a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CWDM?

A

Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing
18 channels over a single fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are two common wavelengths for CWDM?

A

1310nm and 1550nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many channels does CWDM allow for?

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DWDM

A

Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing
80+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the maximum distance of CWDM?

A

70km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many channels does DWDM support?

A

80+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the max speed DWDM supports?

A

400 Gbps per channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How far apart are CWDM channels?

A

20nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How far apart are DWDM channels

A

0.8nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the two LEDs typically found on a NIC called?

A
  1. The link light - usually green, indicates that an ethernet connection has been established.
  2. The activity LED - flickers to indicate activity.
    Other LEDs may indicate the speed of the connection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A NIC is a layer _____ device.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A Hub is a layer ____ device.

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the primary function of a Bridge?

A

To break up collision domains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A Bridge is a layer ___ device.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 3 significant differences between a switch and a hub?

A
  1. A switch recognises frames
  2. A switch pays attention to the source and destination MAC addresses
  3. A switch makes each port a unique collision domain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A switch is a layer ____ device

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A router is a layer ____ device

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The term multi-layer switch refers to a ________.

A

router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the tree zones a triple homed router defines?

A
  1. External (untrusted)
  2. Internal (trusted)
  3. DMZ or Screened subnet (trusted)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

HIDS

A

Host-based Intrusion Detection System (runs on one computer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

PIDS

A

Protocol-based Intrusion Detection System (monitors traffic for one protocol on one server)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

APIDS

A

Application Protocol-Based IDS (monitor for a group of servers running the same application)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How many collision domains does an AP create?

41
Q

When using a WiFi range extender, what is the desirable overlap of the coverage areas of the AP and the extender?

42
Q

WLC

A

Wireless LAN Controller

43
Q

What device can send incoming packets to multiple machines hidden behind one ip address?

A

Load balancer

44
Q

CSMA/CA and CSMA/CD are examples of what?

A

Contention methods.

45
Q

What does a “helper IP address” do?

A

It allows a router to forward a DHCP broadcast by forwarding it as a unicast address to the DHCP server.

46
Q

What do “scope options” provide?

A

IP configuration for hosts on a specific subnet

47
Q

What is the name of the process of forwarding a DHCP request to another LAN?

A

DHCP Relay

48
Q

IPAM

A

IP Address Management - integrate with DHCP and DNS to help plan, track and manage IP addresses.

49
Q

DNS A record

A

Address record, returns IPv4 address of domain

50
Q

DNS AAAA record

A

Quad A record - returns IPv6 address

51
Q

TXT (SPF) record

A

List of authorised hostname/IP addresses that can originate from a specific domain name

52
Q

TXT (DKIM) record

A

Domain Keys Identified Mail - authentication of mail to prevent spam

53
Q

SRV record

A

Service record, specifies port number as well as IP address

54
Q

CAA record

A

Certificate Authority Authorisation - specifies authorised certificate authorities

55
Q

CNAME record

A

Canonical name - alias one domain name to another

56
Q

SOA record

A

Start of Authority - administrative information about a domain

57
Q

PTR record

A

Pointer record for reverse DNS lookup

58
Q

MX record

A

Mail Exchange record, how email should be routed

59
Q

NS record

A

Name Service - authoritative DNS server for the domain

60
Q

What is a recursive DNS lookup?

A

One DNS server will query other DNS servers rather than getting the client to perform all the operations

61
Q

What is an Iterative lookup?

A

The client communicates with multiple DNS servers during the lookup process.

62
Q

Dynamic DNS

A

Hosts register their their names with the DNS server as they receive their IP configuration from the DHCP server

63
Q

External DNS

A

DNS server in the DMZ

64
Q

Internal DNS

A

DNS server in the intranet

65
Q

A proxy server is a layer _____ device

66
Q

What does a Web Proxy Server do?

A

Creates a cache of web sites, including possible user data

67
Q

What does a Caching Proxy Server do?

A

Keeps local copies of the resources requested often

68
Q

A modem is a layer _____ device

69
Q

What does a packet shaper do?

A

Increases bandwidth for some kinds of packets by delaying other kinds.

70
Q

VPN Concentrator

A

(VPN headend) Hardware device that accepts multiple VPN connections

71
Q

NFGW

A

Next-generation Firewall - layer 7 firewall

72
Q

UTM

A

Unified Threat Management

73
Q

DOCSIS

A

Data Over Cable Service Interface Specifications

74
Q

PTZ

A

Pan/Tilt/Zoom - surveillance cameras

75
Q

ASIC

A

Application-Specific Integrated Circuit

76
Q

What is the DoD Model another name for?

A

TCP/IP Model

77
Q

What are the four layers of the DoD Model?

A

Process/Application Layer
Host-to-Host Layer
Internet Layer
Network Access Layer

78
Q

What are two things the Process/Application layer defines?

A

Protocols for node to node communications.
User-interface specifications

79
Q

What OSI layer(s) does the Process/Application Layer correspond to?

A

Application, presentation and session

80
Q

What OSI layer(s) does the Host-to-Host Layer correspond to?

81
Q

What OSI layer(s) does the Internet Layer correspond to?

82
Q

What OSI layer(s) does the Network Access Layer correspond to?

A

Data Link, Physical

83
Q

WINS

A

Windows Internet Naming Service

84
Q

APIPA

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing

85
Q

What is the APIPA range?

A

169.254.0.1 - 169.254.255.254

86
Q

How long is a TCP header without options?
With options?

A

20 bytes,
Up to 60 bytes

87
Q

Fields in a TCP Header? (in bytes)

A

Source port (2)
Destination port (2)
Sequence number (4)
Acknowledgement number (4)
Header Length (1)
Reserved (1.5 (6 bits))
Code bits (1.5(6 bits))
Window (2)
Checksum (20)
___
Options (0 or 4)

88
Q

The 1 byte TCP header length contains the length of the header in ___ ____ _______

A

32 bit words

89
Q

What are the code bits for in a TCP header?

A

To control functions used to set up and terminate a session.
This is where the flags, such as SYN etc, are

90
Q

The 2 byteTCP window field holds the window size in ______

91
Q

What determines whether the urgent field is valid in a TCP header

A

The urgent pointer in the code bits

92
Q

What does the urgent field in a TCP header contain

A

The offset from the current sequence number to where non-urgent data begins

93
Q

How many bytes is a UDP header?

94
Q

What are the fields in a UDP header ?(in bytes)

A

Source port (2)
Destination port (2)
Length (2)
Checksum (2)

95
Q

What are the Fields in an IP header? (in bits)

A
  1. Version (4)
  2. Header length (4)
  3. Priority and type of service (8)
  4. Total Length (16)
  5. Identification (16)
  6. Flags (3)
  7. Fragmented Offset (13)
  8. Time to live (8)
  9. Protocol (8)
  10. Header Checksum (16)
  11. Source IP Address (32)
  12. Destination IP Address (32)
  13. Options (0 or 32 if any)
96
Q

What is the Identification field in an IP header used for?

A

To differentiate fragmented packets from different datagrams

97
Q

What is the Flags field in an IP header used for?

A

Specifies whether fragmentation should occur

98
Q

In an IP header, what is the protocol number for ICMP

99
Q

In an IP header, what is the protocol number for IP (in IP tunnelling)

Network+ N10-008 Todd Lammle (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions