13. Using Statistics and Sensors to Ensure Network Availability Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the percentage of uptime provided when four nines of fault tolerance are present?
    a. 9.999 percent
    b. 99.99 percent
    c. 99.999 percent
    d. 90.9 percent
A

b. Four nines means 99.99 percent of the time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a commonly used Netflow identifier?
    a. Source IP
    b. Destination port number
    c. Layer 2 protocol field
    d. Input logical interface
A

c. Commonly used Netflow flows include the following identifiers: source IP address, destination IP address, source port number, destination port number, layer 3 protocol field, Type of Service (ToS) marking, and input logical interface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which service can identify major users of the network, meaning top talkers?
    a. Syslog
    b. SIEM
    c. Netflow
    d. SNMP
A

c. Netflow statistics can analyse the traffic on your network by showing the major users of the network, meaning top talkers, top listeners, top protocols, and so on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the standard level of performance of a certain device or to the normal operating capacity for your whole network?
    a. Baseline
    b. Target
    c. Normal
    d. Utilization
A

a. In networking, a baseline can refer to the standard level of performance of a certain device or to the normal operating capacity for your whole network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Raised floors are used to address which of the following?
    a. Electrical issues
    b. Flooding
    c. Terrorism
    d. Theft
A

b. When possible server rooms and data centres should be located on upper floors. If not, raised floors should be deployed to help prevent water from reaching the equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the following removes the UPS from between the device and the wall output conceptually, without disconnecting it?
    a. Inline mode
    b. Offline mode
    c. Bypass mode
    d. Maintenance mode
    e. Pie a la mode (just seeing if you’re paying attention)
A

c. Putting a UPS in bypass mode removes the UPS from between the device and the wall output conceptually, without disconnecting it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which UPS value assumes that all of the attached devices are pulling the maximum amount of power?
    a. Maximum load
    b. Volts ampere
    c. UPC
    d. Capacity
A

d. The capacity value assumes that all the attached devices are pulling the maximum amount of power, which they rarely do. As a rule of thumb, if you multiply the VA times .6 you will get a rough estimate of the maximum load your UPS may undergo at any particular time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which value is the amount of time a UPS can operate based on the current battery charge?
    a. Runtime
    b. Remaining life
    c. Lifetime
    d. Live time
A

a. In most cases the software that came with the UPS will have the ability to report the current expected runtime based on the current state of the battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. The proper shutdown of a system is called which of the following?
    a. Stateful
    b. Graceful
    c. Stateless
    d. Quick
A

b. Many of today’s enterprise-level UPS systems offer the ability to shutdown a server to which they are attached when the power is lost. A proper shutdown is called a graceful shutdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which of the following is the maximum amount of power the UPS can supply at any moment in time?
    a. Maximum load
    b. Volts ampere
    c. UPC
    d. Capacity
A

d. Capacity is the maximum amount of power that the UPS can supply at any moment in time. So if it has a capacity of 650 volt amperes (VA) and you attempt to pull 800 VA from the UPS, it will probably shut itself down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What devices have a battery attached that can provide power to the devices in the event of a power outage?
    a. NFC
    b. VA
    c. UPS
    d. Syslog server
A

c. Uninterruptable power supplies (UPSs) are designed to only provide short-term power to the devices, that is, a length of time sufficient to allow someone to gracefully shut down the devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which condition leads to shorts?
    a. High temperature
    b. High humidity
    c. Low temperature
    d. Low humidity
A

b. High humidity can not be tolerated because it leads to corrosion of electrical parts followed by shorts and other failures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Damage from static electricity can occur when which of the following is present?
    a. High temperature
    b. High humidity
    c. Low temperature
    d. Low humidity
A

d. Low humidity sounds good on paper, but with it comes static electricity buildup in the air, which can fry computer parts if it reaches them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which of the following causes system reboots?
    a. High temperature
    b. High humidity
    c. Low temperature
    d. Low humidity
A

a. Overheating causes system reboots and failures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. A humidifying system should be used to maintain the level above what percent?
    a. 30 percent
    b. 40 percent
    c. 50 percent
    d. 60 percent
A

c. If it is too damp, connections start corroding and shorts begin to occur. A humidifying system should be used to maintain the level above 50 percent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which error message indicates that the router has a layer 3 packet to forward and is lacking some element of the layer 2 header that it needs to be able to forward the packet toward the next hop?
    a. CRC header
    b. Encapsulation error
    c. Duplex mismatch
    d. Speed mismatch
A

b. A failed encapsulation error message indicates that the router has a layer 3 packet to forward and is lacking some element of the layer 2 header that it needs to be able to forward the packet toward the next hop.

17
Q
  1. Any ethernet packet that is greater than 1518 bytes is which of the following?
    a. Giant
    b. Runt
    c. Outlier
    d. Exception
A

a. Giants are packets that are discarded because they exceed the maximum packet size of the medium.

18
Q
  1. Using a cable that is too long can result in which of the following?
    a. Runt
    b. Giant
    c. Collisions
    d. CRC errors
A

c. Using a cable that is too long can result in late collisions rather than runts and giants.

19
Q
  1. Which of the following means that packets have been damaged?
    a. Runt
    b. Giant
    c. Collisions
    d. CRC errors
A

d. CRC errors mean that packets have been damaged. This can be caused by a faulty port on the device, or bad ethernet cable.

20
Q
  1. If you have a duplex mismatch, which counter will increment?
    a. Late collisions
    b. Babbles
    c. Watchdog
    d. Unknown protocol drops
A

a. If you have a duplex mismatch, a telling sign is that the late collision counter will increment.