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Veterinary Pathology > Term Test 2 - Neoplasia > Flashcards

Term Test 2 - Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

What is cell hypertrophy

A

Larger cells

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2
Q

What is cell atrophy

A

Smaller cells

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3
Q

What is tissue hypertrophy

A

Organ enlargement due to larger cells

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4
Q

What is tissue hyperplasia

A

Organ enlargement due to more cells

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5
Q

What is tissue hypoplasia

A

Organ shrinkage due to fewer cells

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6
Q

What is tissue atrophy

A

Organ shrinkage due to smaller cells

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7
Q

What is the opposite of hypertrophy

A

Atrophy

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8
Q

What is the opposite of hyperplasia

A

Hypoplasia

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9
Q

pathy indicates

A

diseased organ

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10
Q

megaly indicates

A

enlarged organ

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11
Q

what term describes a missing organ or tissue

A

aplasia or agenesis

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12
Q

what is atresia

A

absence or unusual narrowing of an opening or passage

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13
Q

name examples of cells that constantly proliferate

A

skin, small intestine, large intestine, bone marrow

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14
Q

name examples of cells that can increase proliferation if needed, but usually have a low proliferation

A

liver, kidney

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15
Q

name examples of cells that have little or no capacity to proliferate

A

heart, CNS, skeletal muscle

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16
Q

What regulates cell proliferation (3)

A

1) hormones
2) growth factors and nutrition
3) demands on the tissue

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17
Q

Give examples of factors that influence demand on tissue

A

Nerve stimulation, workload, hypoxia, compensation for tissue loss

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18
Q

Name the 5 steps for gene transcription in response to a growth factor

A
  1. growth factor
  2. membrane receptor
  3. signal transducer
  4. transcription factor
  5. response element
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19
Q

Describe how hepatocyte growth factor leads to cell proliferation

A

HGF binds to c-Met -> c-Met phosphorylates mTOR -> mTOR causes cell proliferation

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20
Q

Describe how cytokine signalling (ex. IL-6) leads to cell proliferation

A

IL-6 binds to IL6R -> IL6R phosphorylates STAT3 -> STAT3 causes cell proliferation

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21
Q

what 3 growth factors/cytokines have both endocrine and paracrine signalling

A

TNF, IL6, epidermal GF

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22
Q

give an example of an only endocrine growth factor/cytokine

A

any of: EPO, GM-CSF, insulin, IGF, thyroid stimulating hormone

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23
Q

give an example of an only paracrine growth factor/cytokine

A

any of: TGFβ, PDGF, FGF, VEGF, HGF, KGF

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24
Q

describe how HIF works to regulate EPO and VEGF under normal conditions

A

active HIF-1α (proline) regulates gene expression of EPO and VEGF -> erythropoiesis and angiogenesis -> increased O2 -> O2 catalyzes proline - hydroxyproline -> labile HIF-1α -> ubiquitinylation and degradation

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25
Q

what happens when there is dysregulation of proliferative cells

A

hyperplasia (not cancer, will go away if stimulus is removed)

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26
Q

what happens when there is damage to proliferative cells

A

atrophy

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27
Q

how does hyperthyroidism cause cardiac disease

A

hyperthyroidism -> increased T4/T3 -> increased basal metabolic rate -> cardiac hypertrophy (compensatory) -> cardiopathy

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28
Q

what is a consequence of nutritional hyperparathyroidism? how?

A

fibrous osteodystrophy; high dietary phosphorus -> parathyroid chief cell hyperplasia -> increased PTH secretion -> increased bone resorption and hyperplasia of periosteal and endosteal fibroblasts

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29
Q

what would be a consequence of a congenital portosystemic shunt on the liver and why

A

hepatocellular atrophy; hepatotrophic factors coming from the GI tract bypass the liver

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30
Q

what would be the effect of systemic hypertension on the heart? whats one cause of systemic hypertension

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (secondary); renal disease

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31
Q

what would be a consequence of poor myelination on muscles (ex. distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy) and why?

A

atrophy and muscle wasting due to poor stimulation

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32
Q

what are three causes of muscle atrophy

A

neuropathic, disuse, starvation

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33
Q

which is more likely to return to normal?
a) infarcted lobe of liver
b) post-necrotic (toxin) hyperplasia of liver

A

b) more likely to have intact vascular supply and CT framework (as well as more remaining healthy hepatocytes capable of dividing)

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34
Q

what is a consequence of colonic impaction in the horse?

A

pressure-induced and ischemic atrophy of the liver in contact with the impacted loop of colon

35
Q

what would be the sequence of events following chronic inhalation of irritants

A
  1. hyperplasia and inflammation
  2. metaplasia (to squamous cells)
36
Q

What % of dogs will get clinically significant neoplasms

A

30%

37
Q

what is important in clinical assessment of cancers

A

imaging and gross appearance

38
Q

what is important in specific diagnosis of cancers

A

histopathology

39
Q

what are some behaviours of cancer cells (6)

A
  1. self-sufficiency in growth signals
  2. insensitivity to antigrowth signals
  3. evade apoptosis
  4. limitless replicative potential
  5. sustained angiogenesis
  6. tissue invasion and metastasis
40
Q

Cancer is fundamentally a _________ disease

A

genetic

41
Q

what is metaplasia

A

REVERSIBLE replacement of a normal cell type with another normal cell type that is not usually found there

42
Q

what is dysplasia

A

disorganized cells or tissues

43
Q

T/F developmental dysplasia is a risk factor for cancer later on in life

A

false

44
Q

describe how cells can go from normal to neoplastic

A

hyperplasia and/or metaplasia -> preneoplastic dysplasia -> neoplasia

45
Q

a plaque can become what (2)

A

a polyp or a papilloma

46
Q

where do cysts form

A

in epithelial lined structures that secrete a substance

47
Q

T/F some focal hyperplasias become neoplasia

A

True

48
Q

what are 3 major abnormalities in neoplasms

A
  1. altered cell phenotype (metaplasia/dysplasia)
  2. dysregulated proliferation
  3. accumulative growth
49
Q

define neopasia

A

a new pattern of excessive and poorly controlled growth of cells with atypical differentiation

50
Q

define neoplasm

A

a mutant population of cells with atypical differentiation, dysregulated proliferation and accumulative growth

51
Q

define carcinoma

A

malignant neoplasm of epithelial cells

52
Q

define adenocarcinoma

A

malignant neoplasm of glandular epithelial cells

53
Q

define sarcoma

A

malignant neoplasm of mesenchymal cells

54
Q

T/F cancers always develop when cells go from preneoplastic -> benign -> malignant

A

false

55
Q

what is neoplastic transformation

A

change from preneoplastic to neoplastic

56
Q

what is malignant conversion

A

change from benign to malignant

57
Q

what is malignancy

A

propensity to progressively get worse

58
Q

what 4 criteria are used in diagnostic evaluation of cancers

A
  1. cell type
  2. grade (how abnormal/aggressive)
  3. stage (how far has it spread)
  4. resection margins
59
Q

what is the term for benign tumors

A

oma (or adenoma if of glandular epithelium)

60
Q

almost all melanomas are ________________

A

malignant (even though the nomenclature suggests otherwise)

61
Q

almost all lymphomas are _________________

A

malignant (even though the nomenclature suggests otherwise)

62
Q

what is a myeloma

A

malignant plasma cell neoplasm

63
Q

what is leukemia

A

neoplastic hematopoietic cells in blood and bone marrow

64
Q

Describe the sequence for cancer development in the bladder

A

metaplasia -> dysplasia -> adenoma -> carcinoma

65
Q

what is the T in TNM staging

A

tumor (primary)

66
Q

what is the N in TNM staging

A

local nodes

67
Q

what is the M in TNM staging

A

metastases

68
Q

describe a stage 0 tumor using TNM

A

T: no invasion
N: no local nodes impacted
M: no metastases

69
Q

describe a stage 1 tumor using TNM

A

T: shallow invasion
N: no
M: no

70
Q

describe a stage 2 tumor using TNM

A

T: deep invasion
N: no
M: no

71
Q

describe a stage 3 tumor using TNM

A

T: yes
N: yes
M: no

72
Q

describe a stage 4 tumor using TNM

A

T: yes
N: yes
M: yes

73
Q

if a tumor has metastasized, what stage is it

A

IV

74
Q

T/F not every cancer will spread to lymph nodes before metastasizing

A

True (in which case it becomes stage 4 automatically)

75
Q

how is TNM modified in mammary carcinoma

A

if greater than 3cm, upstage to stage 3 (even if no lymph nodes are affected yet)

76
Q

what criteria is used to grade tumors (4)

A
  1. rate of proliferation
  2. atypia
  3. aneuploidies
  4. local behaviour (growth, necrosis, invasion)
77
Q

what grading system is used for mast cell tumors

A

1, 2 (low, high)

78
Q

grading systems are meaningless in ___________ and ____________

A

osteosarcomas and hemangiosarcomas

79
Q

how do neoplastic cells differ from normal cells (6)

A
  1. atypical differentiation
  2. heterogeneity
  3. replicative activity
  4. nuclear abnormalities
  5. anaplasia
  6. reduced cell death
80
Q

what is an indicator of high replicative activity in cancers

A

high mitotic index (number of mitoses you see in the tissue)

81
Q

how is heterogeneity measured

A

anisocytosis; anisokaryosis; high N/C ratio

82
Q

what are common nuclear abnormalities observed in cancers (6)

A

hyperchromasia; multinucleation; aneuploidy/polyploidy; deletions/translocations; atypical mitoses; karyomegaly

83
Q

what is anaplasia

A

lack of differentiation; reversion to a more primitive form

84
Q

what are hallmarks of reduced cell death

A

loss of p53; increased bcl2; increased survivins; viral inhibitors

Veterinary Pathology (7 decks)

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